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Invertabrate Zoology > Cellular Final > Flashcards

Flashcards in Cellular Final Deck (316):
1

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have a nucleus; ________ have a nucleoid

Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes

2

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have less DNA and fewer genes.

Prokaryotes

3

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? __________ have a single circular DNA molecule; _____ have multiple linear chromosomes.

Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes

4

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ________ contain an array of complex membranous & membrane-bound organelles.

Eukaryotes

5

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have a complex cytoskeleton.

Eukaryotes

6

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have 70S and 80S ribosomes

Eukaryotes

7

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have complex flagella and cilia.

Eukaryotes

8

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have greater diversity of metabolism and habitat.

Prokaryotes

9

The oldest ____ fossils are 2.7 billion years old. The oldest _____ fossils are 1.8 billion years old.

prokaryotic, eukaryotic

10

Sequencing ____ places all organisms into three Domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya?

16s and 18s rRNAs

11

Sequencing of organisms shows evidence of _______ between prokaryotes, and between eukaryotes and their ____.

lateral gene transfer, symbionts

12

Genes involved in transcription, translation, and DNA replication are less likely to be involved in _____, so are the best subjects for determining phylogeny.

gene transfer

13

What is the Endosymbiosis theory?

An anaerobic, heterotrophic Archaea ancestor ingested a small aerobic Eubacteria ancestor. These endosymbionts evolved into mitochondria.

14

How did other organelles evolve?

by gradual evolution

15

Early eukaryotes then ingested cyanobacteria ancestors giving rise to ______.

chloroplasts

16

What are 3 factors of a virus structure?

Protein coat or capsid, Nucleic acid, Some have an envelope

17

________ proteins must attach to host cell for infection to occur.

Capsid or envelope

18

_____ are not cells.

Viruses

19

Viruses are all ________.

obligate intracellular parasites

20

Which is smaller, bacteria or viruses?

Viruses

21

____ contain no cytoplasm.

Viruses

22

A covalent bond is the _____.

sharing of electron pairs

23

A chemical bond formed between two ions with opposite charges. They form when one atom gives up one or more electrons to another atom.

Ionic bonds

24

A weak bond between two molecules resulting from an electrostatic attraction between a proton in one molecule and an electronegative atom in the other.

Hydrogen bonds

25

The interactions between nonpolar molecules are called ______.

Hydrophobic interactions

26

Weak, short-range electrostatic attractive forces between uncharged molecules, arising from the interaction of permanent or transient electric dipole moments.

van der Waals force

27

Strong electrostatic attractive forces between molecules or atoms that occur after the transfer of electrons.

ionic bonds

28

Place in order by bond strength. Hydrogen bonds, van der Waals force, Covalent bonds, Hydrophobic interactions, Ionic bonds

Covalent bonds
Ionic bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Hydrophobic interactions
van der Waals force

29

simple sugars differ by number of carbons in the backbone; each carbon has a hydroxyl or carbonyl group

Carbohydrates

30

amino acids that each have an amine and carboxyl group, but have different R-groups: polar charged, polar uncharged, nonpolar and unique.

Proteins

31

nucleotides that are made of a sugar, phosphate and base, they have different sugars and bases: ribose/deoxyribose, A/T/G/C/U

Nucleic acids

32

Glucose is a carbohydrate in its (monomer/polymer) form.

monomer

33

Starch is a carbohydrate in its

polymer

34

Amino acids are proteins in their (monomer/polymer) form.

monomer

35

Chemists call these monomers "nucleotides." The five pieces are uracil, cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine.

Nucleic acids

36

RNA and DNA are polymers of ____.

Nucleic acids

37

_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form ionic bonds in tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules

Polar charged

38

can form hydrogen bond in secondary, tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules.

Polar non charged

39

_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions in tertiary protein structure.

Non polar

40

_____ Amino Acid R-Groups in which glycine adds flexibility to the polypeptide, proline produces kinks and hinges in the secondary structure, cysteine produces disulfide bridges in tertiary and quaternary structure.

Unique amino acids

41

The smallest amino acid is ____. It is made up of -H.

Glycine

42

____ is a non polar ring of amino acids.

Proline

43

____ is an amino acid made up of -S-H

Cysteine

44

Tertiary protein structure: Most proteins are composed of _____.

two or more distinct domains

45

Tertiary protein structure: Many proteins have arisen by the fusion of _____.

gene parts from different ancestral proteins

46

Tertiary protein structure: Shuffling of domains creates proteins with ______.

unique combinations of activities

47

Quaternary protein structure – most proteins are composed of _______.

more than one polypeptide chain

48

proteins in different organisms that come from a common ancestral gene, natural selection has produced different variants of the protein.

Homologous proteins

49

The proteins of halophiles have more acidic amino acids directed outside, while thermophiles have more acidic and basic amino acids directed inside. This is an example of a ______.

Homologous protein

50

different versions of a protein found in the same organism adapted to function in different tissues or at different developmental stages. These two proteins arose from a single ancestral gene

Isoforms

51

proteins that have arisen from a single ancestral gene. Over time the gene undergoes a series of duplications. The duplicate genes evolve independently. These proteins may evolve to perform different functions.

Protein families

52

What do these all have in common? Protein catalysts, Required is small amounts, Have no affects on the thermodynamics of a reaction, Lower the energy of activation required, High level of catalytic activity, High level of specificity

They are properties of enzymes.

53

analogue of the substrates for transpeptidases, irreversible inhibiting by going into the active sites and forming covalent bonds.

Penicillin

54

destroys penicillins

Penicillinase

55

Initially no disease causing bacteria contained ______, but picked them up from other bacteria by conjugation, transduction and transformation.

penicillinase

56

penicillinase resistant penicillin

Methicillin

57

How have other bacteria developed resistance to penicillins?

by cell wall modification, membrane pumps, and reduce affinity of the transpeptidase for the antibiotics.

58

binds to the peptide substrate causing the transpeptidases to end the polymer incorrectly .

Vancomycin

59

____ strains have aquired several enzymes from Enterococcus faecium to become resistant to antibiotics.

Staphylococcus aureus

60

the enzyme pathway that breaks down glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.

Glycolysis

61

Which steps of glycolysis add phosphates from two ATPs to the glucose molecule?

steps 1-3

62

Which steps of glycolysis produce two glyceraldehyde phosphate molecules per glucose?

steps 4 and 5

63

Which steps of glycolysis produce four ATPs, two NADHs, and two pyruvates per glucose?

steps 6-10

64

Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Anaerobic oxidation: ____ produces pyruvate and a small amount of ATP, while ____ keeps it going and produces products like ethyl alcohol and lactic acid.

glycolysis, fermentation

65

Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Aerobic oxidation produces ___ and ___ and _____.

CO2 and H2O and large amounts of ATP

66

Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 1 and 3 are coupled to ____.

ATP hydrolysis

67

Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 7 and 10 involve _____.

substrate phosphorylation

68

Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 6 depends on _____.

fermentation or aerobic respiration.

69

amphipathic, embedded in the bilayer, functions include surface receptors, channels and transporters

Integral membrane proteins

70

associated with the membrane by weak electrostatic bond, usually on the cytoplasmic side; some remain on the surface, some come and go from the surface, and some penetrate the bilayer

Peripheral membrane proteins

71

covalently bound usually to the outside surface, function as receptors, enzymes, and cell-adhesion protein

Lipid anchored membrane proteins

72

What is Band 3 in integral membrane proteins?

a channel that allows movement of Cl- and HCO3- in and out of the cell

73

What is Glucophorin A in integral membrane protein? What does it have?

the protozoan that causes malaria attaches to this protein. It has oligosaccharides outside that make RBCs repel each other.

74

What is spectrin in peripheral proteins?

fibrillar membrane skeleton that determines the biconcave disk shape

75

What does ankyrin do in peripheral proteins?

links spectrin covalently to the inside surface of the plasma membrane

76

_____ is a member of the spectrin family of proteins that is found in the membranes of muscle cells.

Dystrophin

77

Mutations in dystrophin are the cause of ______.

muscular dystrophy

78

Cystic fibrosis an ___ disease.

inherited

79

What is cystic fibrosis caused by?

a defective CFTR protein which controls the movement of ions across mucus membranes.

80

_____ leads to decreased fluid bathing the epithelial cells of the respiratory lining caused by abnormal flux of Cl-, HCO3-, and Na+. This causes increase mucus viscosity and impairs cilia.

CFTR deficiency

81

______ binds to the extra cellular end of the CFTR protein, which may lead to its ingestion and destruction. This bacterium is a leading cause of death of cystic fibrosis patients.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

82

How might the heterozygous CFTR condition may confer an advantage?

From the effects of cholera and From typhoid fever

83

What does cholera cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?

thicker mucus in the intestine

84

What does typhoid fever cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?

the salmonella bacteria attaches to the CFTR protein to enter

85

The bacterial KcsA K + Channel and the eukaryotic voltage-regulated K + channel are _______.

virtually identical

86

When a ____ moves into the KcsA K + channel, the K+ at the opposite end is ejected into the cell. ___ opens the channel by causing a conformational change in the M2 helices which hinge open at the cytoplasmic side.

third K+, Low pH

87

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Inner membrane contains ______ such as devoid of cholesterol, rich in the lipid cardiolipin.

bacterial characteristics

88

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Outer membrane contains characteristics of ____, in that they have porins.

Gram–bacteria outer membranes

89

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial matrix contains ______ and _____.

70S ribosomes, circular DNA

90

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondria can ______.

split in two and fuse

91

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: _____ of mitochondrial genes are similar to eubacteria.

Nucleotide sequences

92

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial genome has (few/many) genes.

few

93

The outer membrane of mitochondria have ___, while the inner membrane has ___.

porins, cristae

94

Where does ATP synthase and electron transport take place?

The cristae of mitochondria.

95

Where can a high concentration of protons be found in mitochondria?

The intermembrane space

96

The matrix of mitochondria contains what? It is the sight of the ____.

circular DNA and ribosomes; TCA cycle/Krebs cycle/citric acid cycle

97

Where does glycolysis occur?

the cytoplasm

98

What provides most of the electrons for the ETC?

The TCA Cycle

99

What happens in step one of the TCA cycle?

acetyl coA + oxaloacetate produce citrate

100

TCA Cycle: Other than succinate dehydrogenase all its enzymes are _____.

soluble in the matrix

101

What waste is produced in the TCA cycle?

CO2

102

In the ETC, _____ transfers a pair of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone while pumping four protons.

Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)

103

In the ETC, _____ feeds electrons from succinate to FAD and then to ubiquinone.

Complex II

104

In the ETC, Ubiquinone transfers electrons to _____.

complex III

105

In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from ubiquinol to cytochrome C, while pumping four protons.

Complex III

106

In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from cytochrome C to Oxygen while pumping two protons.

Complex IV

107

The Spherical F1 head of ATP synthase, is made of _______.

alternating α and β peptides with the γ peptide running through the middle

108

The Fo portion of ATP synthase is made of _______.

three polypeptides imbedded the membrane

109

Beta subunits' affinity changes with what?

proton movement

110

Three affinity states occur in the binding change mechanism. What are those three?

Loose binding of ADP/Pi, Tight bonding of ADP/Pi and, Very loose binding of ATP

111

During ATP synthesis, ____ molecules of ATP are produced with one 360° turn.

3

112

In proton driven ATP synthesis, a proton from the intermembrane space enters ___________.

a half-channel within an a subunit.

113

Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton binds to an acidic residue on a c subunit causing a conformational change that moves the ring ___.

30 degrees

114

Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton is carried full circle and release into the ___ by _____________.

matrix, a second half channel

115

The outer envelope of ____ contains several kinds of porins, while ____ only have one.

chloroplast, mitochondria

116

The inner envelope membrane of chloroplast is highly ________.

impermeable

117

The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast is flattened into sacs and the space inside is called the ___.

lumen

118

The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast contains the ____, ____, and _____.

photosystems, ETC, and ATP synthase

119

______ contain a single outer membrane and the inner membrane has cristae joined to it at the organelle boundary.

Mitochondria

120

The stroma of chloroplast contains what?

the Calvin cycle, circular ds DNA, and ribosome

121

The stroma of chloroplast contains what?

a high concentration of protons

122

What are chlorophylls?

the primary photosynthetic pigments

123

What are chlorophylls made of?

porphyrin ring + phytol tail

124

Chlorophylls absorb _____ light, while carotenoids absorb _____ light.

blue and red, blue and green

125

What are carotenoids?

secondary light collectors that draw excess energy from chlorophyll preventing production of singlet oxygen

126

How are carotenoids made up?

linear system of double bonds

127

The chloroplast pH gradient is largely a _____ not a ____ because proton movement is followed by anions.

pH gradient not a voltage gradient

128

ATP Synthase in the thylakoid membrane produces ATP by ______.

chemiosmosis

129

The Calvin cycle begins and ends with ____.

RuBP

130

Products of the Calvin cycle include _____.

G3P sucrose in the cytosol and G3P starch in the chloroplast

131

________ are proteins of the ECM. They form fibers of great strength.

Collagens

132

__% of a human's protein may be collagens.

25

133

Collagens are made by ______.

fibroblasts, muscle and epithelial cells

134

Collagen ___ come together to form rod-shaped fibers.

trimers

135

Fibrillar collagens form _________.

large cable-like fibers

136

Cross linking of fibrillar collagen continues throughout life strengthening the fibers, but leads to _______.

decreased elasticity of skin and brittleness of bones in the elderly

137

What is scar tissue due to burns or trauma caused by?

an accumulation of fibrillar collagen

138

Scurvy is due to a ____.

vitamin C deficiency

139

____ is a coenzyme for the enzymes that bind the collagen trimers together.

Vitamin C

140

Symptoms of scurvy include: (4.5)

inflamed gums, poor wound healing, brittle bones, and weakening of the lining of blood vessels, causing internal bleeding.

141

___ is a protein of the ECM which binds cations that bind water to act like packing material that resist crushing.

Proteoglycans

142

___ is a protein of the ECM. It is two polypeptide chains that provide binding sites for EMC molecules and cells, and guides cells during embryonic development.

Fibronectin

143

___ is a protein of the ECM. It is extra cellular glycoproteins made of three polypeptides linked by sulfide bonds which can influence migration, growth and development.

Laminin

144

scattered, discrete sites where an integrin attaches to an outside surface and with adaptor molecules to actin of the cytoskeleton. These adhesions are dynamic and are involved in attachment and movement.

Focal Adhesions (Cell Attachments to the ECM)

145

the tightest attachment between a cell and its ECM. They contain a dense layer of keratin filaments projecting out from the plasma membrane.

Hemidesmosome

146

bind cells of similar type together to form a “cell-adhesion zipper”

Cadherins

147

Cadherins bind ______, are ____ dependent, and have _____ construction.

the cadherins of other cells, calcium, modular

148

thought to be responsible for the dynamic changes in adhesive contacts that lead to morphogenesis

Cadherins

149

Selectins bind ____, mediate interactions between ______, are ____ dependent, and have ______ construction.

oligosaccharides, leukocytes and vessel walls at sites of inflammation, calcium,
modular

150

Ig like proteins that bind to many different cell surface proteins

Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF)

151

Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) mediate _____, have ____ construction, are calcium _____, are found in ________.

reactions between lymphocytes and macrophages, modular, independent, invertebrates that do not have a classic immune system

152

What did Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) originally evolved as?

antibodies or T-cells receptors???

153

common in epithelia, like that in the intestine, where they encircle cells at apex with a belt

Adherens Junctions

154

Cadherin proteins connect external environment with actin in cytoplasm. These are called _____.

Adherens Junctions

155

can provide pathway for signals into the cell

Adherens Junctions

156

Disc shaped adhesive junctions

Desmosomes

157

numerous in cells subjected to stress like cardiac muscle

Desmosomes

158

Cadherins attach to dense cytoplasmic plaque and intermediate filaments

Desmosomes

159

pipelines made from six connexin proteins.

Gap Junctions

160

Gap junctions allow diffusion of molecules of ______.

1,000 Daltons

161

Gap junctions are ____ channels that open in (high/low) concentrations.

non-selective, high

162

Gap junctions are important for what?

non vascular tissue and cell-cell communication

163

What do gap junctions do to the cytoplasm of cells?

makes it continuous

164

pipelines between plant cell walls

Plasmodesmata

165

Lined with desmotubule formed from ER

Plasmodesmata

166

Plasmodesmata makes the cytoplasm ____, dilate to allow passage of ____, ____ and ____ can pass. Plasmodesmata can lead into the ____ which means it can lead to the whole plant.

continuous, 5000 Dalton molecules, proteins and RNAs, vascular system

167

a network of organelles that shuttle materials and membranes back and forth.

Endomembrane System

168

Organelles that are part of the system include endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, transport vesicles, vacuoles, endosomes, and lysosome, nuclear membrane.

Endomembrane System

169

What organelles are not part of the endomembrane system?

Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes

170

Transport vesicles always move ____ which is ____ direction.

forward, anterograde

171

Membranes can move ____ or in a ____ direction. This can return membrane materials and some contents to ________.

backward, retrograde, the original cisterna

172

What are sorting signals on proteins made of?

amino acid sequences and oligosaccharides

173

What do vesicle receptors do?

recognize sorting signals

174

RER or SER? Has ribosomes.

RER

175

RER or SER? Has flattened cisternae.

RER

176

RER or SER? Has tubular cisternae.

SER

177

RER or SER? Is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane.

RER

178

RER or SER? cisternae form an interconnecting system

SER

179

RER or SER? produces rough-surfaced vesicles

RER

180

RER or SER? produces smooth-surfaced vesicles

SER

181

The ___ produces steroid hormones,detoxification in the liver, sequesters Ca++ in cytoplasm of skeletal and muscle cells, and regulates release of Ca++ to trigger contraction.

SER

182

What is the function of the RER?

production of proteins, phospholipids, and carbohydrates that journey through cell membranes

183

a family of small GTP-binding proteins that specifically tether vesicles to targets by recruiting tethering proteins

Rabs

184

A _____ protein on a vesicle interacts with a ______ on the target membrane forming a four stranded α-helical bundle that brings the two membranes into contact.

v-SNARE, t-SNARE

185

________ pull the two membranes together with enough force to fuse the membranes.

SNARE proteins

186

Lysosomal proteins are synthesized on _____, and carried to the ____

ribosomes of RER, Golgi complex

187

Lysosomal proteins are recognized by _____, which _________.

enzymes in the Golgi cisternae, add a phosphate group to a mannose residues

188

Only _________ possess phosphorylated mannose residues, so they act as recognition signals.

lysosomal enzymes

189

_______ are integral membrane proteins in the TGN that forms clathrin-coated vesicles.

Mannose 6-phosphate receptors (MPR)

190

____ are a family of proteins that are adaptors which connect the clathrin protein with the sorting signal.

GGAs

191

Targeting Lysosomal Proteins: The ___is release and the ______ moves on to its destination.

clathrin coat, uncoated vesicle

192

____ move materials from the ER “forward” to the ERGIC (ERG intermediate complex) and Golgi complex.

COPII-coated vesicles

193

______ move materials in a retrograde direction from the Golgi complex to the ERGIC and ER, and from the Trans Golgi cisternae to the cis cisternae.

COPI-coated vesicles

194

_______ move materials from the TGN to endosomes, lysosomes, and vacuoles.

Clatherin-coated vesicles

195

What are the three rolls of lysosomes?

Intracellular digestion, Autophagy, and Protection against intracellular threats like abnormal protein aggregates or bacteria.

196

Intracellular digestion is done by ____.

single-celled organisms or phagocytes

197

an organelle that is surrounded by a double membrane. The outer membrane fuses with a lysosome to replace old organelles, or cannibalize.

Autophagy

198

____ build up in cells may play a role in aging.

Lipofuscin granules

199

A ______ chaperone uses energy from ATP to pull the polypeptide through the pore.

Force-generating

200

A ____ chaperone binds to the polypeptides as they start through the pore, preventing them from moving back out. Continued binding ratchets the polypeptide through.

Biased diffusion

201

The Types of Cytoskeleton Filamentous Structures

Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments

202

Name their motor proteins: Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments

Kinesins and dyneins, Myosins, none

203

What are microtubules composed of?

tubulin

204

What are microfilaments composed of?

actin

205

are long, hollow, unbranched tubes

Microtubules

206

are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network

Microfilaments

207

are tough, rope-like fibers

Intermediate filaments

208

____ are long, hollow, unbranched tubes composed of tubulin. Kinesins and dyneins are motor proteins that work with them.

Microtubules

209

_______ are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network. They are composed of actin. Myosins are motor proteins that work with them.

Microfilaments

210

_______ are tough, rope-like fibers, composed of a variety of related proteins. They have no motor proteins.

Intermediate filaments

211

Note: Each type of cytoskeleton filament is:

a polymer of protein subunits, held together by weak, noncovalent bonds, able to rapidly assemble and disassemble, and found in animal cells

212

Axonal transport is done by two motor protons called ____.

kinesin and dynein

213

____ moves vesicles and organelles out (anterograde direction).

Kinesin

214

____ moves vesicles and organelles inward to the cell body (retrograde direction).

Dynein

215

motors that move over actin filaments in the plus direction. A two motor head binds actin and hydrolyzes ATP to drive the myosin motor. Function in muscle contraction and cytokinesis.

Conventional Myocin II

216

What does Conventional Myocin II function in?

muscle contraction and cytokinesis

217

one of two motor heads remains attached as the other head walks over the first. Myosin V neck is 3X longer than that of myosin II, so it can take very long steps.

Unconventional Myosin V

218

initiates the formation of an actin filament.

Nucleating proteins (An actin binding protein)

219

prevent all of the monomers in the cell from being polymerized

Monomer – sequestering proteins (An actin binding protein)

220

cap either end of the filament preventing the addition or deletion of monomers.

End blocking proteins (An actin binding protein)

221

promotes the growth of actin filaments.

Monomer-polymerizing protein (An actin binding protein)

222

promote depolymerization, rapid turnover of actin, essential for cell locomotion, phagocytosis and cytokinesis.

Actin filament depolymerizing proteins (An actin binding protein)

223

can cross link two or more filaments to produce 3-D elastic gels or parallel arrays

Cross-linking proteins (An actin binding protein)

224

can break a filament into producing free ends for growth or may cap them

Filament-severing proteins (An actin binding protein)

225

peripheral membrane proteins that aid actin in phagocytosis and cytokinesis

Membrane binding proteins (An actin binding protein)

226

What are the 5 Components of the Nuclear Envelope?

Two membranes, nuclear pores, Outer membrane is studded with ribosomes,Integral membrane proteins, Nuclear lamina

227

The nuclear-membranes of the nuclear envelope are fused together _____.

at the pores

228

Proteins and RNAs are targeted to move across the nuclear envelope by transport receptor proteins called _____.

importins and exportins.

229

condensed, compacted DNA, found at the nuclear periphery

Heterochromatin

230

diffuse, dispersed DNA

Euchromatin

231

stays condensed in all cells at all times. Most is found at the flanks of telomeres and centromeres, and contains few genes.

Constitutive heterochromatin

232

inactivated during certain stages of an organism’s life or in different cell types.

Facultative heterochromatin

233

a second X chromosome in a female mammal condensed into a heterochromatin clump

Barr Body

234

histone tail modifications alter the docking sites for recruitment of specific nonhistone protein arrays which determine the level of compaction and likelihood a gene is transcribed.

Histone code hypothesis

235

caps at the ends of chromosome

Telomeres

236

Types of Upstream Regulatory Sequences: name the 4 types.

Proximal promoter elements, Distal promoter elements, Enhancer sequences, Insulator sequences

237

TATA box is a proximal promoter element and is the site of ______.

transcription initiation

238

CAAT and GC boxes are proximal promoter elements that ________.

regulate transcription frequency

239

GRE is an example of what?

Distal promoter elements

240

______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that are more distal elements.

Enhancer sequences

241

______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that cordon off a promoter and its enhancers.

Insulator sequences

242

Inheritance that is not dependent on a DNA sequence

Epigenetic

243

What are the 3 epigenetic inheritances?

DNA methylation, Histone methylation, Centromere determination

244

maintains DNA in an inactive state. Responsible for imprinting

DNA methylation

245

histone proteins in heterochromatin is largely methylated

Histone methylation

246

the function of the centromere is independent of the underlying sequence.

Centromere determination

247

The ______ is made from two subunits, a kinase, and cyclin.

Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF)

248

What does High MPF kinase activity cause?

entry into the M-phase

249

The cyclin subunit is in low concentration, MPF activity is (high/low).

low

250

When cyclin is in high concentration, MPF kinase _____.

active

251

_____ starts with the dissolution of the nuclear envelope.

Prometaphase

252

In prometaphase, mitotic spindle assembly is ______. Kinetochores ____. Chromosomes are _____ and spindle checkpoint _____.

completed, attach to microtubules, moved to the center of the cell by kinetochore motor proteins, delays separation until misplaced chromosomes take their positions

253

Anaphase starts when _____. The ____ leads the arms.

sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.
The centromere

254

During prometaphase the longer chromosomal microtubes _____ while the shorter microtubules ____ lengthen.

shorten, lengthen

255

During metaphase _____ occurs. Subunits are added at the ____ end near the kinetochore and are lost at the _____ end.

microtubule flux, plus, minus

256

During anaphase subunits are lost at the ________ end. The kinetochore depolymerase aids this ______. This triggers the movement of the chromosomes.

plus and minus, subunit loss

257

_____ is movement of chromosomes toward the poles.

Anaphase A

258

In ____, subunits are added to the plus end of polar microtubules while being removed from the chromosomal tubules.

Anaphase B

259

______ is caused by failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II.

Meiotic Nondisjunction

260

Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II results in ______.

Aneuploidy

261

all chromosomes are lethal at an early embryonic stage or during fetal development

Autosomal monosomy

262

most chromosomes are fatal during early development.

Autosomal trisomy

263

This is an example of what? Trisomies for chromosomes 13 and 18 are born alive but die soon after.

Aneuploidy

264

_____ - a trisomy for chromosome 21 resulting in mental impairment, alteration of body features, circulatory problems, increased risk of leukemia, early Alzheimer’s onset. 95% can be traced to nondisjunction in the oocyte.

Down syndrome

265

Down syndrome increases with ____.

age of the mother

266

An example of Monosomy of sex chromosome is ______.

Turner syndrome

267

XO female with slightly abnormal body structure, sterile.

Turner syndrome

268

An example of Trisomy of sex chromosomes is _______.

Klinefelter syndrome

269

XXY male with mental retardation, underdeveloped genitalia and some feminine physical characteristics

Klinefelter syndrome

270

A XYY results in a ____ with Klinefelter syndrome.

normal male

271

What are the 4 types of receptors?

G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), Receptor protein-tyrosine kinases, Ligand-gated ion channels, Steroid hormone receptors

272

Cancer is a ______ disease. However, in most cases, cancer is not _______.

genetic, inherited

273

Most cases of cancer are caused as ______.

mutations accumulate in somatic cells during the lifetime of an individual

274

Only _ cancers are known to be contagious. One is ___.

three, Devil facial tumor disease

275

Cancer cells no longer respond to _____ or _____. Therefore, they have loss of growth control.

growth inhibiting influences or requiring growth factors

276

Cancer cells have presence of ____ and ___.

telomerase, Immortality

277

A property of cancer cells is aneuploidy which is _______.

the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell

278

Cancer cells have highly _______.

deranged chromosomes

279

Cancer cells have an increased _______.

reliance on anaerobic metabolic pathways.

280

Cancer cells have the tendency to ____ and cause changes to _________.

spread, histological and cellular appearance

281

___ is a transcription factor that activates the expression of a large number of genes involved in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis.

p53

282

p53 is a ________.

tumor-suppressor gene

283

More than 50% of human cancers contain cells with mutations in what gene?

TP53

284

p53 activates ______ which inhibits the cyclin-dependent kinase that normally drives the cell through the G1 checkpoint.

expression of p21

285

Without p21 cell division can occur without what?

time for DNA repair

286

p53 activates ______ whose product initiates apoptosis.

expression of the BAX gene

287

Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses: Both require what?

the ability to distinguish self from foreign

288

Innate responses occur ____, while Adaptive requires ___.

immediately, a lag period

289

Innate responses occur without ___.
Adaptive is more ___.

previous contact, specific

290

Adaptive immunity _______, innate immunity ______. (Fill in the blank concerning memory)

a memory has, does not

291

_____ have some type of innate immunity. ______ mount an adaptive immune response.

All animals, Only vertebrates

292

Note: These are Types of Innate Immune Responses

Inflammation, Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils, Defensins from many of the body’s cells disrupt membranes of pathogens, Complement proteins in blood, Natural killer cells – kill virus infected cells, Interferons produced by virus infected cells

293

The _____ consists of a membrane-bound immunoglobulin that binds to an intact antigen, while the ______ binds to a small fragment of an antigen that is held at the surface of another cell.

B-cell receptor (BCR), T-cell receptor

294

(BCRs/TCRs) are part of large membrane-bound protein complexes that include invariant proteins.

Both

295

The _____ associate with BCRs and TCRs and transmit signals to the interior of the B and T cells to activate them.

Invariant polypeptides

296

Each subunit of a TCR contains two Ig-like domain indicating they share a common ancestry with what?

BCRs

297

Both antigen receptors of B and T cells share a similar _____.

three-dimensional shape

298

Virtually all cells of the body express _____ where they present fragments of their normal proteins, cancer proteins, or pathogen proteins.

MHC class I molecules

299

___ cells recognize self MHC class I proteins and will not kill a cell expressing them.

Natural killer (NK)

300

___ cells recognize their antigen associated with MHC class I molecules and destroy them.

Cytotoxic T

301

These cells (NK and Cytotoxic T?) can kill by binding to a cell receptor which activates ___, or by releasing _____.

apoptosis, perforins and granzymes

302

MHC class II molecules are found predominately on __________.

B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

303

______ recognize antigen associated with MHC class II molecules. Once an antigen is presented to it, it can stimulate a ____ to produce antibodies.

Helper T cells, B cell

304

G protein-coupled receptors bind ligands that include __(7)____.
G proteins transmit the signal from the receptor to _____ (like adenylyl cyclase). Then that activates a _____.

hormones, neurotransmitters, opium derivatives, chemoattractants, odorants, tastants, and photons; an effector; secondary messenger

305

____ bind GPCRs (G protein-coupled receptors) that activate a G protein which activates adenylyl cyclase.

Glucagon and Epinephrine

306

Adenylyl cyclase activates ____ which activates PKA.
PKA activates a _____ that results in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose and inhibition of glycogen synthesis.

cAMP, cascade of enzymes

307

The insulin receptor is an example of a ______.

receptor protein-tyrosine kinase (RTK).

308

Ligand binding to RTKs causes ___. Insulin binds to the ___ which causes the ___ to come together. When the dimer forms, ____ residues on the cytoplasmic domains of the beta subunits occurs. The activated beta subunits phosphorylate tyrosine residues on substrates.

dimerization of the receptor, alpha subunits, beta subunits, autophosphorylation of tyrosines

309

Calcium Concentration in the Cytosol is ___.

low

310

Ca2+ in the ER is 10,000 times higher/lower than in the cytosol.

higher

311

Ca2+ ion channels in the plasma and ER membranes normally remain opened/closed.

closed

312

Energy-driven Ca2+ transport systems of the plasma and ER membranes pump Ca2+ in/out of the cytosol.

out

313

What opens Calcium ion channels in the ER? Opening of Ca2+ channels in ER does what?

Calcium, increases cytosol Ca2+ concentration

314

Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Protein kinases like focal adhesion kinase, which is responsible for what?

maintaining a cell’s attachment to neighboring cells

315

Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Lamina which makeup what?

the inner lining of the nuclear envelope

316

Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: ____ of the cytoskeleton and DNase inhibitory protein.

Proteins