Cellular Final Flashcards
(316 cards)
1
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have a nucleus; ________ have a nucleoid
A
Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes
2
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have less DNA and fewer genes.
A
Prokaryotes
3
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? __________ have a single circular DNA molecule; _____ have multiple linear chromosomes.
A
Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes
4
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ________ contain an array of complex membranous & membrane-bound organelles.
A
Eukaryotes
5
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have a complex cytoskeleton.
A
Eukaryotes
6
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have 70S and 80S ribosomes
A
Eukaryotes
7
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have complex flagella and cilia.
A
Eukaryotes
8
Q
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have greater diversity of metabolism and habitat.
A
Prokaryotes
9
Q
The oldest ____ fossils are 2.7 billion years old. The oldest _____ fossils are 1.8 billion years old.
A
prokaryotic, eukaryotic
10
Q
Sequencing ____ places all organisms into three Domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya?
A
16s and 18s rRNAs
11
Q
Sequencing of organisms shows evidence of _______ between prokaryotes, and between eukaryotes and their ____.
A
lateral gene transfer, symbionts
12
Q
Genes involved in transcription, translation, and DNA replication are less likely to be involved in _____, so are the best subjects for determining phylogeny.
A
gene transfer
13
Q
What is the Endosymbiosis theory?
A
An anaerobic, heterotrophic Archaea ancestor ingested a small aerobic Eubacteria ancestor. These endosymbionts evolved into mitochondria.
14
Q
How did other organelles evolve?
A
by gradual evolution
15
Q
Early eukaryotes then ingested cyanobacteria ancestors giving rise to ______.
A
chloroplasts
16
Q
What are 3 factors of a virus structure?
A
Protein coat or capsid, Nucleic acid, Some have an envelope
17
Q
________ proteins must attach to host cell for infection to occur.
A
Capsid or envelope
18
Q
_____ are not cells.
A
Viruses
19
Q
Viruses are all ________.
A
obligate intracellular parasites
20
Q
Which is smaller, bacteria or viruses?
A
Viruses
21
Q
____ contain no cytoplasm.
A
Viruses
22
Q
A covalent bond is the _____.
A
sharing of electron pairs
23
Q
A chemical bond formed between two ions with opposite charges. They form when one atom gives up one or more electrons to another atom.
A
Ionic bonds
24
Q
A weak bond between two molecules resulting from an electrostatic attraction between a proton in one molecule and an electronegative atom in the other.
A
Hydrogen bonds
25
The interactions between nonpolar molecules are called ______.
Hydrophobic interactions
26
Weak, short-range electrostatic attractive forces between uncharged molecules, arising from the interaction of permanent or transient electric dipole moments.
van der Waals force
27
Strong electrostatic attractive forces between molecules or atoms that occur after the transfer of electrons.
ionic bonds
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Place in order by bond strength. Hydrogen bonds, van der Waals force, Covalent bonds, Hydrophobic interactions, Ionic bonds
```
Covalent bonds
Ionic bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Hydrophobic interactions
van der Waals force
```
29
simple sugars differ by number of carbons in the backbone; each carbon has a hydroxyl or carbonyl group
Carbohydrates
30
amino acids that each have an amine and carboxyl group, but have different R-groups: polar charged, polar uncharged, nonpolar and unique.
Proteins
31
nucleotides that are made of a sugar, phosphate and base, they have different sugars and bases: ribose/deoxyribose, A/T/G/C/U
Nucleic acids
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Glucose is a carbohydrate in its (monomer/polymer) form.
monomer
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Starch is a carbohydrate in its
polymer
34
Amino acids are proteins in their (monomer/polymer) form.
monomer
35
Chemists call these monomers "nucleotides." The five pieces are uracil, cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine.
Nucleic acids
36
RNA and DNA are polymers of ____.
Nucleic acids
37
_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form ionic bonds in tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules
Polar charged
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can form hydrogen bond in secondary, tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules.
Polar non charged
39
_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions in tertiary protein structure.
Non polar
40
_____ Amino Acid R-Groups in which glycine adds flexibility to the polypeptide, proline produces kinks and hinges in the secondary structure, cysteine produces disulfide bridges in tertiary and quaternary structure.
Unique amino acids
41
The smallest amino acid is ____. It is made up of -H.
Glycine
42
____ is a non polar ring of amino acids.
Proline
43
____ is an amino acid made up of -S-H
Cysteine
44
Tertiary protein structure: Most proteins are composed of _____.
two or more distinct domains
45
Tertiary protein structure: Many proteins have arisen by the fusion of _____.
gene parts from different ancestral proteins
46
Tertiary protein structure: Shuffling of domains creates proteins with ______.
unique combinations of activities
47
Quaternary protein structure – most proteins are composed of _______.
more than one polypeptide chain
48
proteins in different organisms that come from a common ancestral gene, natural selection has produced different variants of the protein.
Homologous proteins
49
The proteins of halophiles have more acidic amino acids directed outside, while thermophiles have more acidic and basic amino acids directed inside. This is an example of a ______.
Homologous protein
50
different versions of a protein found in the same organism adapted to function in different tissues or at different developmental stages. These two proteins arose from a single ancestral gene
Isoforms
51
proteins that have arisen from a single ancestral gene. Over time the gene undergoes a series of duplications. The duplicate genes evolve independently. These proteins may evolve to perform different functions.
Protein families
52
What do these all have in common? Protein catalysts, Required is small amounts, Have no affects on the thermodynamics of a reaction, Lower the energy of activation required, High level of catalytic activity, High level of specificity
They are properties of enzymes.
53
analogue of the substrates for transpeptidases, irreversible inhibiting by going into the active sites and forming covalent bonds.
Penicillin
54
destroys penicillins
Penicillinase
55
Initially no disease causing bacteria contained ______, but picked them up from other bacteria by conjugation, transduction and transformation.
penicillinase
56
penicillinase resistant penicillin
Methicillin
57
How have other bacteria developed resistance to penicillins?
by cell wall modification, membrane pumps, and reduce affinity of the transpeptidase for the antibiotics.
58
binds to the peptide substrate causing the transpeptidases to end the polymer incorrectly .
Vancomycin
59
____ strains have aquired several enzymes from Enterococcus faecium to become resistant to antibiotics.
Staphylococcus aureus
60
the enzyme pathway that breaks down glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.
Glycolysis
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Which steps of glycolysis add phosphates from two ATPs to the glucose molecule?
steps 1-3
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Which steps of glycolysis produce two glyceraldehyde phosphate molecules per glucose?
steps 4 and 5
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Which steps of glycolysis produce four ATPs, two NADHs, and two pyruvates per glucose?
steps 6-10
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Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Anaerobic oxidation: ____ produces pyruvate and a small amount of ATP, while ____ keeps it going and produces products like ethyl alcohol and lactic acid.
glycolysis, fermentation
65
Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Aerobic oxidation produces ___ and ___ and _____.
CO2 and H2O and large amounts of ATP
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Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 1 and 3 are coupled to ____.
ATP hydrolysis
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Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 7 and 10 involve _____.
substrate phosphorylation
68
Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 6 depends on _____.
fermentation or aerobic respiration.
69
amphipathic, embedded in the bilayer, functions include surface receptors, channels and transporters
Integral membrane proteins
70
associated with the membrane by weak electrostatic bond, usually on the cytoplasmic side; some remain on the surface, some come and go from the surface, and some penetrate the bilayer
Peripheral membrane proteins
71
covalently bound usually to the outside surface, function as receptors, enzymes, and cell-adhesion protein
Lipid anchored membrane proteins
72
What is Band 3 in integral membrane proteins?
a channel that allows movement of Cl- and HCO3- in and out of the cell
73
What is Glucophorin A in integral membrane protein? What does it have?
the protozoan that causes malaria attaches to this protein. It has oligosaccharides outside that make RBCs repel each other.
74
What is spectrin in peripheral proteins?
fibrillar membrane skeleton that determines the biconcave disk shape
75
What does ankyrin do in peripheral proteins?
links spectrin covalently to the inside surface of the plasma membrane
76
_____ is a member of the spectrin family of proteins that is found in the membranes of muscle cells.
Dystrophin
77
Mutations in dystrophin are the cause of ______.
muscular dystrophy
78
Cystic fibrosis an ___ disease.
inherited
79
What is cystic fibrosis caused by?
a defective CFTR protein which controls the movement of ions across mucus membranes.
80
_____ leads to decreased fluid bathing the epithelial cells of the respiratory lining caused by abnormal flux of Cl-, HCO3-, and Na+. This causes increase mucus viscosity and impairs cilia.
CFTR deficiency
81
______ binds to the extra cellular end of the CFTR protein, which may lead to its ingestion and destruction. This bacterium is a leading cause of death of cystic fibrosis patients.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
82
How might the heterozygous CFTR condition may confer an advantage?
From the effects of cholera and From typhoid fever
83
What does cholera cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?
thicker mucus in the intestine
84
What does typhoid fever cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?
the salmonella bacteria attaches to the CFTR protein to enter
85
The bacterial KcsA K + Channel and the eukaryotic voltage-regulated K + channel are _______.
virtually identical
86
When a ____ moves into the KcsA K + channel, the K+ at the opposite end is ejected into the cell. ___ opens the channel by causing a conformational change in the M2 helices which hinge open at the cytoplasmic side.
third K+, Low pH
87
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Inner membrane contains ______ such as devoid of cholesterol, rich in the lipid cardiolipin.
bacterial characteristics
88
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Outer membrane contains characteristics of ____, in that they have porins.
Gram–bacteria outer membranes
89
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial matrix contains ______ and _____.
70S ribosomes, circular DNA
90
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondria can ______.
split in two and fuse
91
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: _____ of mitochondrial genes are similar to eubacteria.
Nucleotide sequences
92
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial genome has (few/many) genes.
few
93
The outer membrane of mitochondria have ___, while the inner membrane has ___.
porins, cristae
94
Where does ATP synthase and electron transport take place?
The cristae of mitochondria.
95
Where can a high concentration of protons be found in mitochondria?
The intermembrane space
96
The matrix of mitochondria contains what? It is the sight of the ____.
circular DNA and ribosomes; TCA cycle/Krebs cycle/citric acid cycle
97
Where does glycolysis occur?
the cytoplasm
98
What provides most of the electrons for the ETC?
The TCA Cycle
99
What happens in step one of the TCA cycle?
acetyl coA + oxaloacetate produce citrate
100
TCA Cycle: Other than succinate dehydrogenase all its enzymes are _____.
soluble in the matrix
101
What waste is produced in the TCA cycle?
CO2
102
In the ETC, _____ transfers a pair of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone while pumping four protons.
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
103
In the ETC, _____ feeds electrons from succinate to FAD and then to ubiquinone.
Complex II
104
In the ETC, Ubiquinone transfers electrons to _____.
complex III
105
In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from ubiquinol to cytochrome C, while pumping four protons.
Complex III
106
In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from cytochrome C to Oxygen while pumping two protons.
Complex IV
107
The Spherical F1 head of ATP synthase, is made of _______.
alternating α and β peptides with the γ peptide running through the middle
108
The Fo portion of ATP synthase is made of _______.
three polypeptides imbedded the membrane
109
Beta subunits' affinity changes with what?
proton movement
110
Three affinity states occur in the binding change mechanism. What are those three?
Loose binding of ADP/Pi, Tight bonding of ADP/Pi and, Very loose binding of ATP
111
During ATP synthesis, ____ molecules of ATP are produced with one 360° turn.
3
112
In proton driven ATP synthesis, a proton from the intermembrane space enters ___________.
a half-channel within an a subunit.
113
Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton binds to an acidic residue on a c subunit causing a conformational change that moves the ring ___.
30 degrees
114
Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton is carried full circle and release into the ___ by _____________.
matrix, a second half channel
115
The outer envelope of ____ contains several kinds of porins, while ____ only have one.
chloroplast, mitochondria
116
The inner envelope membrane of chloroplast is highly ________.
impermeable
117
The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast is flattened into sacs and the space inside is called the ___.
lumen
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The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast contains the ____, ____, and _____.
photosystems, ETC, and ATP synthase
119
______ contain a single outer membrane and the inner membrane has cristae joined to it at the organelle boundary.
Mitochondria
120
The stroma of chloroplast contains what?
the Calvin cycle, circular ds DNA, and ribosome
121
The stroma of chloroplast contains what?
a high concentration of protons
122
What are chlorophylls?
the primary photosynthetic pigments
123
What are chlorophylls made of?
porphyrin ring + phytol tail
124
Chlorophylls absorb _____ light, while carotenoids absorb _____ light.
blue and red, blue and green
125
What are carotenoids?
secondary light collectors that draw excess energy from chlorophyll preventing production of singlet oxygen
126
How are carotenoids made up?
linear system of double bonds
127
The chloroplast pH gradient is largely a _____ not a ____ because proton movement is followed by anions.
pH gradient not a voltage gradient
128
ATP Synthase in the thylakoid membrane produces ATP by ______.
chemiosmosis
129
The Calvin cycle begins and ends with ____.
RuBP
130
Products of the Calvin cycle include _____.
G3P sucrose in the cytosol and G3P starch in the chloroplast
131
________ are proteins of the ECM. They form fibers of great strength.
Collagens
132
__% of a human's protein may be collagens.
25
133
Collagens are made by ______.
fibroblasts, muscle and epithelial cells
134
Collagen ___ come together to form rod-shaped fibers.
trimers
135
Fibrillar collagens form _________.
large cable-like fibers
136
Cross linking of fibrillar collagen continues throughout life strengthening the fibers, but leads to _______.
decreased elasticity of skin and brittleness of bones in the elderly
137
What is scar tissue due to burns or trauma caused by?
an accumulation of fibrillar collagen
138
Scurvy is due to a ____.
vitamin C deficiency
139
____ is a coenzyme for the enzymes that bind the collagen trimers together.
Vitamin C
140
Symptoms of scurvy include: (4.5)
inflamed gums, poor wound healing, brittle bones, and weakening of the lining of blood vessels, causing internal bleeding.
141
___ is a protein of the ECM which binds cations that bind water to act like packing material that resist crushing.
Proteoglycans
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___ is a protein of the ECM. It is two polypeptide chains that provide binding sites for EMC molecules and cells, and guides cells during embryonic development.
Fibronectin
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___ is a protein of the ECM. It is extra cellular glycoproteins made of three polypeptides linked by sulfide bonds which can influence migration, growth and development.
Laminin
144
scattered, discrete sites where an integrin attaches to an outside surface and with adaptor molecules to actin of the cytoskeleton. These adhesions are dynamic and are involved in attachment and movement.
Focal Adhesions (Cell Attachments to the ECM)
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the tightest attachment between a cell and its ECM. They contain a dense layer of keratin filaments projecting out from the plasma membrane.
Hemidesmosome
146
bind cells of similar type together to form a “cell-adhesion zipper”
Cadherins
147
Cadherins bind ______, are ____ dependent, and have _____ construction.
the cadherins of other cells, calcium, modular
148
thought to be responsible for the dynamic changes in adhesive contacts that lead to morphogenesis
Cadherins
149
Selectins bind ____, mediate interactions between ______, are ____ dependent, and have ______ construction.
oligosaccharides, leukocytes and vessel walls at sites of inflammation, calcium,
modular
150
Ig like proteins that bind to many different cell surface proteins
Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF)
151
Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) mediate _____, have ____ construction, are calcium _____, are found in ________.
reactions between lymphocytes and macrophages, modular, independent, invertebrates that do not have a classic immune system
152
What did Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) originally evolved as?
antibodies or T-cells receptors???
153
common in epithelia, like that in the intestine, where they encircle cells at apex with a belt
Adherens Junctions
154
Cadherin proteins connect external environment with actin in cytoplasm. These are called _____.
Adherens Junctions
155
can provide pathway for signals into the cell
Adherens Junctions
156
Disc shaped adhesive junctions
Desmosomes
157
numerous in cells subjected to stress like cardiac muscle
Desmosomes
158
Cadherins attach to dense cytoplasmic plaque and intermediate filaments
Desmosomes
159
pipelines made from six connexin proteins.
Gap Junctions
160
Gap junctions allow diffusion of molecules of ______.
1,000 Daltons
161
Gap junctions are ____ channels that open in (high/low) concentrations.
non-selective, high
162
Gap junctions are important for what?
non vascular tissue and cell-cell communication
163
What do gap junctions do to the cytoplasm of cells?
makes it continuous
164
pipelines between plant cell walls
Plasmodesmata
165
Lined with desmotubule formed from ER
Plasmodesmata
166
Plasmodesmata makes the cytoplasm ____, dilate to allow passage of ____, ____ and ____ can pass. Plasmodesmata can lead into the ____ which means it can lead to the whole plant.
continuous, 5000 Dalton molecules, proteins and RNAs, vascular system
167
a network of organelles that shuttle materials and membranes back and forth.
Endomembrane System
168
Organelles that are part of the system include endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, transport vesicles, vacuoles, endosomes, and lysosome, nuclear membrane.
Endomembrane System
169
What organelles are not part of the endomembrane system?
Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes
170
Transport vesicles always move ____ which is ____ direction.
forward, anterograde
171
Membranes can move ____ or in a ____ direction. This can return membrane materials and some contents to ________.
backward, retrograde, the original cisterna
172
What are sorting signals on proteins made of?
amino acid sequences and oligosaccharides
173
What do vesicle receptors do?
recognize sorting signals
174
RER or SER? Has ribosomes.
RER
175
RER or SER? Has flattened cisternae.
RER
176
RER or SER? Has tubular cisternae.
SER
177
RER or SER? Is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane.
RER
178
RER or SER? cisternae form an interconnecting system
SER
179
RER or SER? produces rough-surfaced vesicles
RER
180
RER or SER? produces smooth-surfaced vesicles
SER
181
The ___ produces steroid hormones,detoxification in the liver, sequesters Ca++ in cytoplasm of skeletal and muscle cells, and regulates release of Ca++ to trigger contraction.
SER
182
What is the function of the RER?
production of proteins, phospholipids, and carbohydrates that journey through cell membranes
183
a family of small GTP-binding proteins that specifically tether vesicles to targets by recruiting tethering proteins
Rabs
184
A _____ protein on a vesicle interacts with a ______ on the target membrane forming a four stranded α-helical bundle that brings the two membranes into contact.
v-SNARE, t-SNARE
185
________ pull the two membranes together with enough force to fuse the membranes.
SNARE proteins
186
Lysosomal proteins are synthesized on _____, and carried to the ____
ribosomes of RER, Golgi complex
187
Lysosomal proteins are recognized by _____, which _________.
enzymes in the Golgi cisternae, add a phosphate group to a mannose residues
188
Only _________ possess phosphorylated mannose residues, so they act as recognition signals.
lysosomal enzymes
189
_______ are integral membrane proteins in the TGN that forms clathrin-coated vesicles.
Mannose 6-phosphate receptors (MPR)
190
____ are a family of proteins that are adaptors which connect the clathrin protein with the sorting signal.
GGAs
191
Targeting Lysosomal Proteins: The ___is release and the ______ moves on to its destination.
clathrin coat, uncoated vesicle
192
____ move materials from the ER “forward” to the ERGIC (ERG intermediate complex) and Golgi complex.
COPII-coated vesicles
193
______ move materials in a retrograde direction from the Golgi complex to the ERGIC and ER, and from the Trans Golgi cisternae to the cis cisternae.
COPI-coated vesicles
194
_______ move materials from the TGN to endosomes, lysosomes, and vacuoles.
Clatherin-coated vesicles
195
What are the three rolls of lysosomes?
Intracellular digestion, Autophagy, and Protection against intracellular threats like abnormal protein aggregates or bacteria.
196
Intracellular digestion is done by ____.
single-celled organisms or phagocytes
197
an organelle that is surrounded by a double membrane. The outer membrane fuses with a lysosome to replace old organelles, or cannibalize.
Autophagy
198
____ build up in cells may play a role in aging.
Lipofuscin granules
199
A ______ chaperone uses energy from ATP to pull the polypeptide through the pore.
Force-generating
200
A ____ chaperone binds to the polypeptides as they start through the pore, preventing them from moving back out. Continued binding ratchets the polypeptide through.
Biased diffusion
201
The Types of Cytoskeleton Filamentous Structures
Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments
202
Name their motor proteins: Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments
Kinesins and dyneins, Myosins, none
203
What are microtubules composed of?
tubulin
204
What are microfilaments composed of?
actin
205
are long, hollow, unbranched tubes
Microtubules
206
are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network
Microfilaments
207
are tough, rope-like fibers
Intermediate filaments
208
____ are long, hollow, unbranched tubes composed of tubulin. Kinesins and dyneins are motor proteins that work with them.
Microtubules
209
_______ are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network. They are composed of actin. Myosins are motor proteins that work with them.
Microfilaments
210
_______ are tough, rope-like fibers, composed of a variety of related proteins. They have no motor proteins.
Intermediate filaments
211
Note: Each type of cytoskeleton filament is:
a polymer of protein subunits, held together by weak, noncovalent bonds, able to rapidly assemble and disassemble, and found in animal cells
212
Axonal transport is done by two motor protons called ____.
kinesin and dynein
213
____ moves vesicles and organelles out (anterograde direction).
Kinesin
214
____ moves vesicles and organelles inward to the cell body (retrograde direction).
Dynein
215
motors that move over actin filaments in the plus direction. A two motor head binds actin and hydrolyzes ATP to drive the myosin motor. Function in muscle contraction and cytokinesis.
Conventional Myocin II
216
What does Conventional Myocin II function in?
muscle contraction and cytokinesis
217
one of two motor heads remains attached as the other head walks over the first. Myosin V neck is 3X longer than that of myosin II, so it can take very long steps.
Unconventional Myosin V
218
initiates the formation of an actin filament.
Nucleating proteins (An actin binding protein)
219
prevent all of the monomers in the cell from being polymerized
Monomer – sequestering proteins (An actin binding protein)
220
cap either end of the filament preventing the addition or deletion of monomers.
End blocking proteins (An actin binding protein)
221
promotes the growth of actin filaments.
Monomer-polymerizing protein (An actin binding protein)
222
promote depolymerization, rapid turnover of actin, essential for cell locomotion, phagocytosis and cytokinesis.
Actin filament depolymerizing proteins (An actin binding protein)
223
can cross link two or more filaments to produce 3-D elastic gels or parallel arrays
Cross-linking proteins (An actin binding protein)
224
can break a filament into producing free ends for growth or may cap them
Filament-severing proteins (An actin binding protein)
225
peripheral membrane proteins that aid actin in phagocytosis and cytokinesis
Membrane binding proteins (An actin binding protein)
226
What are the 5 Components of the Nuclear Envelope?
Two membranes, nuclear pores, Outer membrane is studded with ribosomes,Integral membrane proteins, Nuclear lamina
227
The nuclear-membranes of the nuclear envelope are fused together _____.
at the pores
228
Proteins and RNAs are targeted to move across the nuclear envelope by transport receptor proteins called _____.
importins and exportins.
229
condensed, compacted DNA, found at the nuclear periphery
Heterochromatin
230
diffuse, dispersed DNA
Euchromatin
231
stays condensed in all cells at all times. Most is found at the flanks of telomeres and centromeres, and contains few genes.
Constitutive heterochromatin
232
inactivated during certain stages of an organism’s life or in different cell types.
Facultative heterochromatin
233
a second X chromosome in a female mammal condensed into a heterochromatin clump
Barr Body
234
histone tail modifications alter the docking sites for recruitment of specific nonhistone protein arrays which determine the level of compaction and likelihood a gene is transcribed.
Histone code hypothesis
235
caps at the ends of chromosome
Telomeres
236
Types of Upstream Regulatory Sequences: name the 4 types.
Proximal promoter elements, Distal promoter elements, Enhancer sequences, Insulator sequences
237
TATA box is a proximal promoter element and is the site of ______.
transcription initiation
238
CAAT and GC boxes are proximal promoter elements that ________.
regulate transcription frequency
239
GRE is an example of what?
Distal promoter elements
240
______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that are more distal elements.
Enhancer sequences
241
______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that cordon off a promoter and its enhancers.
Insulator sequences
242
Inheritance that is not dependent on a DNA sequence
Epigenetic
243
What are the 3 epigenetic inheritances?
DNA methylation, Histone methylation, Centromere determination
244
maintains DNA in an inactive state. Responsible for imprinting
DNA methylation
245
histone proteins in heterochromatin is largely methylated
Histone methylation
246
the function of the centromere is independent of the underlying sequence.
Centromere determination
247
The ______ is made from two subunits, a kinase, and cyclin.
Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF)
248
What does High MPF kinase activity cause?
entry into the M-phase
249
The cyclin subunit is in low concentration, MPF activity is (high/low).
low
250
When cyclin is in high concentration, MPF kinase _____.
active
251
_____ starts with the dissolution of the nuclear envelope.
Prometaphase
252
In prometaphase, mitotic spindle assembly is ______. Kinetochores ____. Chromosomes are _____ and spindle checkpoint _____.
completed, attach to microtubules, moved to the center of the cell by kinetochore motor proteins, delays separation until misplaced chromosomes take their positions
253
Anaphase starts when _____. The ____ leads the arms.
sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.
| The centromere
254
During prometaphase the longer chromosomal microtubes _____ while the shorter microtubules ____ lengthen.
shorten, lengthen
255
During metaphase _____ occurs. Subunits are added at the ____ end near the kinetochore and are lost at the _____ end.
microtubule flux, plus, minus
256
During anaphase subunits are lost at the ________ end. The kinetochore depolymerase aids this ______. This triggers the movement of the chromosomes.
plus and minus, subunit loss
257
_____ is movement of chromosomes toward the poles.
Anaphase A
258
In ____, subunits are added to the plus end of polar microtubules while being removed from the chromosomal tubules.
Anaphase B
259
______ is caused by failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II.
Meiotic Nondisjunction
260
Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II results in ______.
Aneuploidy
261
all chromosomes are lethal at an early embryonic stage or during fetal development
Autosomal monosomy
262
most chromosomes are fatal during early development.
Autosomal trisomy
263
This is an example of what? Trisomies for chromosomes 13 and 18 are born alive but die soon after.
Aneuploidy
264
_____ - a trisomy for chromosome 21 resulting in mental impairment, alteration of body features, circulatory problems, increased risk of leukemia, early Alzheimer’s onset. 95% can be traced to nondisjunction in the oocyte.
Down syndrome
265
Down syndrome increases with ____.
age of the mother
266
An example of Monosomy of sex chromosome is ______.
Turner syndrome
267
XO female with slightly abnormal body structure, sterile.
Turner syndrome
268
An example of Trisomy of sex chromosomes is _______.
Klinefelter syndrome
269
XXY male with mental retardation, underdeveloped genitalia and some feminine physical characteristics
Klinefelter syndrome
270
A XYY results in a ____ with Klinefelter syndrome.
normal male
271
What are the 4 types of receptors?
G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), Receptor protein-tyrosine kinases, Ligand-gated ion channels, Steroid hormone receptors
272
Cancer is a ______ disease. However, in most cases, cancer is not _______.
genetic, inherited
273
Most cases of cancer are caused as ______.
mutations accumulate in somatic cells during the lifetime of an individual
274
Only _ cancers are known to be contagious. One is ___.
three, Devil facial tumor disease
275
Cancer cells no longer respond to _____ or _____. Therefore, they have loss of growth control.
growth inhibiting influences or requiring growth factors
276
Cancer cells have presence of ____ and ___.
telomerase, Immortality
277
A property of cancer cells is aneuploidy which is _______.
the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell
278
Cancer cells have highly _______.
deranged chromosomes
279
Cancer cells have an increased _______.
reliance on anaerobic metabolic pathways.
280
Cancer cells have the tendency to ____ and cause changes to _________.
spread, histological and cellular appearance
281
___ is a transcription factor that activates the expression of a large number of genes involved in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis.
p53
282
p53 is a ________.
tumor-suppressor gene
283
More than 50% of human cancers contain cells with mutations in what gene?
TP53
284
p53 activates ______ which inhibits the cyclin-dependent kinase that normally drives the cell through the G1 checkpoint.
expression of p21
285
Without p21 cell division can occur without what?
time for DNA repair
286
p53 activates ______ whose product initiates apoptosis.
expression of the BAX gene
287
Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses: Both require what?
the ability to distinguish self from foreign
288
Innate responses occur ____, while Adaptive requires ___.
immediately, a lag period
289
Innate responses occur without ___.
| Adaptive is more ___.
previous contact, specific
290
Adaptive immunity _______, innate immunity ______. (Fill in the blank concerning memory)
a memory has, does not
291
_____ have some type of innate immunity. ______ mount an adaptive immune response.
All animals, Only vertebrates
292
Note: These are Types of Innate Immune Responses
Inflammation, Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils, Defensins from many of the body’s cells disrupt membranes of pathogens, Complement proteins in blood, Natural killer cells – kill virus infected cells, Interferons produced by virus infected cells
293
The _____ consists of a membrane-bound immunoglobulin that binds to an intact antigen, while the ______ binds to a small fragment of an antigen that is held at the surface of another cell.
B-cell receptor (BCR), T-cell receptor
294
(BCRs/TCRs) are part of large membrane-bound protein complexes that include invariant proteins.
Both
295
The _____ associate with BCRs and TCRs and transmit signals to the interior of the B and T cells to activate them.
Invariant polypeptides
296
Each subunit of a TCR contains two Ig-like domain indicating they share a common ancestry with what?
BCRs
297
Both antigen receptors of B and T cells share a similar _____.
three-dimensional shape
298
Virtually all cells of the body express _____ where they present fragments of their normal proteins, cancer proteins, or pathogen proteins.
MHC class I molecules
299
___ cells recognize self MHC class I proteins and will not kill a cell expressing them.
Natural killer (NK)
300
___ cells recognize their antigen associated with MHC class I molecules and destroy them.
Cytotoxic T
301
These cells (NK and Cytotoxic T?) can kill by binding to a cell receptor which activates ___, or by releasing _____.
apoptosis, perforins and granzymes
302
MHC class II molecules are found predominately on __________.
B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages
303
______ recognize antigen associated with MHC class II molecules. Once an antigen is presented to it, it can stimulate a ____ to produce antibodies.
Helper T cells, B cell
304
G protein-coupled receptors bind ligands that include __(7)____.
G proteins transmit the signal from the receptor to _____ (like adenylyl cyclase). Then that activates a _____.
hormones, neurotransmitters, opium derivatives, chemoattractants, odorants, tastants, and photons; an effector; secondary messenger
305
____ bind GPCRs (G protein-coupled receptors) that activate a G protein which activates adenylyl cyclase.
Glucagon and Epinephrine
306
Adenylyl cyclase activates ____ which activates PKA.
| PKA activates a _____ that results in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose and inhibition of glycogen synthesis.
cAMP, cascade of enzymes
307
The insulin receptor is an example of a ______.
receptor protein-tyrosine kinase (RTK).
308
Ligand binding to RTKs causes ___. Insulin binds to the ___ which causes the ___ to come together. When the dimer forms, ____ residues on the cytoplasmic domains of the beta subunits occurs. The activated beta subunits phosphorylate tyrosine residues on substrates.
dimerization of the receptor, alpha subunits, beta subunits, autophosphorylation of tyrosines
309
Calcium Concentration in the Cytosol is ___.
low
310
Ca2+ in the ER is 10,000 times higher/lower than in the cytosol.
higher
311
Ca2+ ion channels in the plasma and ER membranes normally remain opened/closed.
closed
312
Energy-driven Ca2+ transport systems of the plasma and ER membranes pump Ca2+ in/out of the cytosol.
out
313
What opens Calcium ion channels in the ER? Opening of Ca2+ channels in ER does what?
Calcium, increases cytosol Ca2+ concentration
314
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Protein kinases like focal adhesion kinase, which is responsible for what?
maintaining a cell’s attachment to neighboring cells
315
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Lamina which makeup what?
the inner lining of the nuclear envelope
316
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: ____ of the cytoskeleton and DNase inhibitory protein.
Proteins
