Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATP Private Pilot > Cessna Supplement Questions: Solo Prep > Flashcards

Cessna Supplement Questions: Solo Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are required for solo flight?

A

Government Issued Photo I.D., Logbook with endorsements, Medical, Student Pilot Certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire?

A

May only fly with an instructor, may not fly for compensation or hire. (61.89)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds.

A

3 statue miles visibility, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal (61.89)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who has final authority and responsibility for the aircraft when you are flying solo?

A

PIC (yourself)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe appropriate preflight actions pertaining to a local solo flight.

A

Use PAVE, IMSAFE, SPARROWED, AAV1ATE, NWKRAFT

Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External Pressures

Illness, Medication, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion

Supplements, Placards, Airworthiness, Registration, Radio (outside U.S.), Operating manual (POH), Weight + Balance, External Data Plate, Deviation Card

ADs, Annual (12 months), VOR (30 days), 100 hour, Altimeter (24 months), Transponder (24 months), ELT (12 months, half-life, 1 hour use)

NOTAMS, Weather, Known ATC delays, Runway lengths, Alternates available, Fuel requirements, TOL distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operation of an aircraft?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You may not fly as a pilot of civil aircraft within __ hours of consuming any alcoholic beverage, or while you have ___ by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

A

8 hours, 0.04%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belt and shoulder harnesses?

A

Safety belts while at station(airport), shoulder harness while taking off and landing (91.105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve requirement for VFR day and what cruise speed is fuel reserve based on?

A

+ 30 minutes, use cruise chart to determine speed and GPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above ____ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below ____ feet AGL.

A

10,000, 2,500 (91.225)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo? (hint SPARROWED)

A 
Supplements
Placards
Airworthiness
Registration
Radio (outside U.S.)
Operating manual (POH)
Weight + Balance
External Data Plate
Deviation Card
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a _____________.

A

Collision hazard (91.113)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

A

The aircraft lower in altitude (or aircraft in distress)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

Pass on the right. Aircraft in front has right-of-way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft? If another single-engine airplane is converging from the right, who has he right-of-way?

A

Both give way to the right. Converging airplane has right-of-way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

A

1000 feet above highest obstruction point in congested areas with 2000 feet horizontal radius, 500 feet in other areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the memory items for an engine failure shortly after takeoff, in the traffic pattern, and in cruise flight?

A 
TAKEOFF ROLL
Immediately close throttle stop straight ahead and avoid obstacles.
If not enough runway remains to stop:
Throttle - IDLE
Brakes - APPLY
Flaps - RETRACT
Mixture - CUTOFF
Magnetos - OFF
Stby Battery - OFF
Master Switch - OFF
Avoid obstacles
AFTER TAKEOFF
Land on remaining runway. Avoid obstacles. Don't attempt 180
Airspeed - 70: flaps up 65: flaps 10-30
Mixture - CUTOFF
Magnetos - OFF
Fuel Shutoff - OFF
Flaps - AS REQUIRED
Stby Battery - OFF
Master Switch - AS REQUIRED
Cabin Doors - UNLATCH
Land - STRAIGHT AHEAD
CRUISE
USE ABCDE
Airspeed 68
Best Place to Land (locate)
C (checklist)
Mixture - CUTOFF
Magnetos - OFF
Fuel Shutoff - OFF
Flaps - AS REQUIRED
Stby Battery - OFF
Master Switch - OFF (when landing assured)
Cabin Doors - UNLATCH
Brakes - APPLY
Declare Emergency (squawk 7700)
ELT (activate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to the Airplane Flying Handbook, how much altitude would a typical airplane lose if attempted a 180 turn back to the runway shortly after takeoff? Describe ATP procedure regarding 180 turns during an engine failure during takeoff?

A

Roughly 1000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe how pilot actions differ between an engine failure and a partial loss of power.

A

For engine failure, ABCDE. Airspeed 68, Best place to land, Checklists, Declare (emergency 7700), ELT (activate)
For partial loss, it’s best to assume engine failure and land at nearest airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is a go-around appropriate?

A

When approach is not stable by 200-300 AGL or when landing conditions are not satisfactory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight? Night VFR flight?

A

FAR 91.205(b)
ATOMATO FLAMES
A - airspeed indicator
T - tachometer (for each engine)
O - oil pressure gauge (for each engine using a pressure system)
M - manifold pressure gauge (for each altitude engine)
A - altimeter
T - temperature gauge (for each liquid cooled engine)
O - oil temperature gauge (for each air cooled engine)
F - fuel gauge
L - landing gear position indicator
A - anti-collision lights (for aircraft certified after March 11th 1996)
M - magnetic compass
E - ELT
S - safety belts

F - Fuses (circuit breakers)
L - Landing position light
A - anti-collision lights
P - position lights (NAV lights)
S - source of power (battery, alternator)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is ___ gallons. On a standard day (sea level, temperature 59 F, altimeter 29.92 in Hg) the fuel consumption rate during normal (approx 75% power) cruise is ___ gallons per hour.

A

53 gallons, 10 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What grade(s) of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed?

A 
100 LL (blue), 100 (green) 
Mixing makes it clear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is __ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity to begin a flight is ___ quarts.

A

8, 6 (ATP 6.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructor for solo takeoffs and landings in the training aircraft is ___ knots.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the indications of carburetor icing and appropriate pilot action of carburetor ice is suspected?

A

RPM drops, engine roughness

Carb Heat ON until engine returns to normal engine power, RPMs may initially drop then climb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for the traffic pattern?

A 
Runways:
16 L 
34 R 
16 R 
34 L 
Traffic Pattern:
1600 MSL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What, if any, radio communications are required?

A

By entering at a 45 degree angle to downwind at 1600 MSL. Communicate intentions with tower. Two-way radio communication is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport? What radio calls are required at your airport?

A

Use CTAF (Common traffic advisory frequency) Radio intentions!

Approach:
"Airport" Traffic
This is Skyhawk 1234
10 Miles East of "airport"
Planning a 45 degree entry into the 
left downwind for Runway "08”
"Airport" Traffic
Entering Traffic Pattern:
"Airport" Traffic
This is Skyhawk 1234
Making a 45 degree entry into the 
left downwind for Runway "08”
"Airport" Traffic
Downwind Entry:
"Airport" Traffic
This is Skyhawk 1234
In the left Downwind for Runway "08”
"Airport" Traffic
Base Entry:
"Airport" Traffic
This is Skyhawk 1234
Turning Base for Runway "08”
"Airport" Traffic
Final Entry:
"Airport" Traffic
This is Skyhawk 1234
Turning Final for Runway "08”
"Airport" Traffic
Clear of Runway (landed):
"Airport" Traffic
This is Skyhawk 1234
Clear of Runway "08” @ "Alpha 1"
"Airport" Traffic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a visual display indicating a nonstandard traffic pattern.

A

Left turns are standard. Right turns would be nonstandard.

Note: At Paine, 16L / 34R closed 9 p.m. - 7 a.m. for noise abatement purposes and 16R / 34L (big runway) patterns are reversed, as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport.

A

A designated frequency for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport. Useful when airport does not have a control tower or an airport where the control tower is closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A

NOTAMS, ATIS, ATC, Chart Supplement with X through it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirements must be me prior to entry?

A

4 NM radius, SFC to 2500 MSL

Student Pilot Certificate, two-way radio communication with ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the class of airspace at the airport where you’ll be conducting your first solo?

A

Class D, KPAE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate an FAR, what should you do?

A

Tell ATC you’re unable to comply and ask to deviate. If unable to communicate, deviate immediately to avoid dangerous situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other requirements must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within Class B airspace?

A

Ground and Flight training in Class B airspace
Endorsed by instructor for that specific airport
Visibility minimum is 3 SM, stay clear of clouds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirements when operating within or near Class B airspace.

A

Mode C transponder with altitude encoding required within 30 miles of Class B airport. Transponder used so ATC knows your position, speed, and altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe Class B airspace boundaries and how to apply to an airport within that airspace. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the class B boundaries.

A

Upside down wedding cake (generally sfc to 10,000 MSL)
Tailored to specific airport (upper radius 15 nm)
Mode C turned on within 30 NM radius
Need ATC clearance to enter.
Use G1000, sectional chart for ground reference points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering class B airspace, and the controller tells you to “squawk 2466 and ident.” Are you now allowed to enter Class B airspace without further instruction? Explain.

A

Negative, you must hear your call sign and receive clearance.

40
Q

On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A

Class E airspace (down to surface)

41
Q

Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VFR in Class D airspace when visibility is less than 3 miles? Explain.

A

For Special VFR, the visibility must be at least one statue mile, the pilot must remain clear of clouds.
At night, the pilot must be instrument rated in an IFR capable aircraft. (Students and recreation pilots cannot request SVFR)

42
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you “standby.” Are you now allowed to enter this airspace without any further instruction? Explain.

A

Yes, two-way radio communication with your call sign has been established.

43
Q

Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

5 NM, SFC to 4000 MSL, 10 NM radius from 1200 to 4000 MSL. Radar participation not required.

44
Q

Describe the Class C boundaries that affect your airport or a nearby airport. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference pints to identify the Class C airspace inner core surface area and shelf area, as well as the outer area.

A

Spokane International Airport, KGEG, has reference points all around, surrounding its border to the East and West are magenta flags which mark Tower MTS, and to the west you’ll see two lakes. You could also use the VOR/DME.

45
Q

(True/False) Engines on all ATP 172s are identical?

A

False

Early: 320 cubic inches
Late: 360 cubic inches

46
Q

Describe the 172 landing gear.

A

Tricycle type, with a steerable nosewheel and two main wheels.
Shock absorption is provided by the tubular spring steel main landing gear struts and the air/oil (oleo) nose gear.
Each main gear wheel is equipped with a hydraulically-actuated disc type brake on the inboard side of each wheel.

47
Q

How is steering accomplished on the ground?

A

Rudder pedals.

48
Q

What is the range of travel on the nose wheel?

A

When a rudder pedal alone is pressed, 10° each side of center. By applying either left or right brake, the degree of turn may be increased up to 30° each side of center.

49
Q

Describe the electrical system.

A

28-volt DC electrical system
24-volt lead-acid battery
60-amp alternator

50
Q

What are the indicators of a failed alternator?

A

A low voltage annunciator and a negative reading on the main (M) battery ammeter (which indicates that the battery is discharging).
Try restarting alternator Master switch.
If alternator not charging, reduce electrical load (checklist), communicate and divert.

51
Q

Will the engine continue to run with the alternator and battery master switches turned off?

A

Yes. Magnetos produce electricity independently.

52
Q

Describe the ignition system.

A

2 magnetos at the back of the engine

8 spark plugs (2 per cylinder)

53
Q

What type of stall warning system does the 172 have?

A

Pneumatic stall warning. (5-10 knots above stall)

54
Q

Describe the fuel system. (SRASSED)

A

2 tanks in wings with total capacity of 56 gallons, of which 53 is usable. Three gallons remain unusable because fuel is drawn from slightly above the bottom of the tanks to avoid drawing contaminants into the engine. 13 fuel sumps. 5 under each wing and 3 under engine cowling. 3 fuel vents: 1 under left wing and 1 in each fuel cap.

Selector (sump)
Reservoir (sump)
Auxiliary pump
Shut-off
Strainer (sump)
Engine driven fuel pump
Distribution (Fuel/Air distribution + control unit)
55
Q

What type of braking system is used by the 172?

A

Hydraulically-actuated main wheel single-disc brakes.

56
Q

What are the maximum taxi, takeoff, and landing weights?

A

Taxi: 2558 lbs
Takeoff: 2550 lbs
Landing: 2550 lbs

57
Q

What is the maximum baggage capacity?

A

120 lbs

58
Q

Explain the pitot-static system. A. Does the 172 have an alternate static source? If so, how is it activated and what actions are necessary to obtain the most accurate reading? B. What instruments are pitot-static? C. Where are the pitot and static ports located?

A

An aircraft pitot-static system comprises a number of sensors which detect the ambient air pressure affected (pitot pressure/ram air) and unaffected (static pressure) by the forward motion of the aircraft. These pressures are used on their own or in combination with each other to provide indications of various flight parameters. A static port on the left side of the fuselage provides static pressure to the altimeter, vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicator.

59
Q

What is the first step in accomplishing a good landing?

A

Good planning. Plan what type, speed, flap setting, aiming point and touchdown point on runway.

Note: 
Start with flying good patterns 
Control airspeed (climb 74, downwind 90, abeam 80, base 70, final 65) 
Aim at numbers, stay centerline
Round out @ 10 feet AGL
Enter ground effect
Bleed speed
Gently Flare (nose up)
Listen for stall horn
Touchdown!
60
Q

Whenever possible, at what distance from the runway should the traffic pattern be flown in a single-engine airplane?

A

1/2 Mile

61
Q

For training and testing purposes, what speed should the airplane be flown on short final when landing is assured?

A

65 knots

62
Q

What is the typical approximate altitude above the landing surface to begin the roundout (flare)

A

10-20 ft AGL

63
Q

At what speed should the touchdown occur in a 172?

A

Minimum controllable airspeed

64
Q

Define “managing energy”.

A

Pilot controls the airplane’s glide path, speed and power setting so that altitude and airspeed are depleted simultaneously on intended touchdown point.

65
Q

After landing, how long should the centerline be maintained?

A

Until taxi speed is reached.

66
Q

After touchdown, what should be done with the aileron controls as the airplane slows? Why?

A

Increase aileron controls for crosswind. Controls become less effective at slower speeds.

67
Q

What information should a visual approach briefing include?

A 
Type of landing (crosswind, soft-field, short field, etc.) 
Flap setting
Runway
Pattern Entry
TPA (Traffic Pattern Altitude)
Winds
Final approach speed
Aiming point
Touchdown point
68
Q

What does an approach briefing accomplish?

A

Solidifies plan between student and instructor.

69
Q

Define stabilized approach according to the Airplane Flying Handbook.

A

Pilot establishes and maintains a constant-angle glide path towards a predetermined point on the landing runway.

70
Q

What are the general conditions for a stabilized approach?

A 
Constant-angle glide path
Steady speed
Aircraft in final landing configuration
Aircraft will touch down within first 1/3 of runway
Maintaining Centerline
71
Q

What should a pilot do if the general conditions for a stabilized approach don’t exist during an approach? What if an instructor is on board?

A

Go around. Probably go around.

72
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot at 1,000’ AGL maintaining a constant angle glidepath is 10 knots too fast?

A

Reduce power.

73
Q

While maintaining a stabilized approach, what control input should the pilot use to correct for airspeed deviations, change the pitch or change the power?

A

Power

74
Q

Define “aiming point” according to the Airplane Flying Handbook.

A

It is the point on the ground at which, if the airplane maintains a constant glide path and was not flared for landing, it would strike the ground.

75
Q

While maintaining a stabilized approach, what control input should the pilot use to correct for the aiming point moving up in the windshield, change the pitch or change the power?

A

Pitch.

76
Q

If the aiming point is moving up in the windshield, is the airplane moving lower or higher relative to the constant angle glidepath?

A

Lower.

77
Q

What does it mean if a pilot flying in level flight has to physically keep the airplane from climbing by applying forward pressure on the yoke?

A

Nose down trim should be applied.

78
Q

What does it mean if a pilot flying in level flight has to physically keep the airplane from descending by applying aft pressure on the yoke?

A

Nose up trim should be applied.

79
Q

According to Cessna, what is the best flap setting for a normal landing a 172?

A

30 degrees

80
Q

How should the approach speed be adjusted for gusty winds?

A

Add 1/2 gust factor

For example, if the winds are reported at 10 knots, gusting 20 knots, it means you have a gust factor of 10 knots (20-10 = 10). So if you take half the gust factor, you get 5 knots.

81
Q

Why is correctly adjusting the seat position before each flight important?

A

Having a consistent viewpoint gives several operational advantages such as easing the handling of the aircraft by providing pilots with a consistent visual reference, repeatable at every flight.
This is especially useful during final approach to be familiarized with the final approach path angle and also for the flare phase.

In other words, to maintain a consistent sight picture.

82
Q

When should the pilot get ATIS, brief the approach, and complete the Approach Checklist?

A

As soon as possible, at least 15 nm from destination.

83
Q

Are the power settings listed on the landing profiles exact or approximate?

A

Approximate

84
Q

Is the aiming point also the touchdown point? If not, what is the difference?

A

No, you touchdown after your aiming point accounting for ground effect, round-out, and flare.

85
Q

What is the maximum recommended flap setting for crosswinds?

A

20 degrees

86
Q

Does ATP recommend the crab method or wing-low sideslip method during a crosswind approach and landing?

A

Wing-low sideslip

87
Q

When using the wing-low sideslip technique, will left or right rudder be required during a strong right crosswind?

A

Left rudder, right ailerons.

88
Q

Which control surface, aileron or rudder, corrects for wind drift during a crosswind landing?

A

Aileron

89
Q

During crosswind landings, which control surface, aileron or rudder longitudinally aligns the airplane with the runway centerline?

A

Rudder

90
Q

During crosswind landings, which control surface, aileron or rudder longitudinally aligns the airplane with the runway centerline?

A

Rudder

91
Q

When flying the downwind leg with a strong tailwind, where should the turn to base be started?

A

Before reaching the 45 degree point.

92
Q

What control inputs, if any, should the pilot apply after the airplane touches down?

A

Increase crosswind control inputs as airplane slows because control effectiveness decreases as airspeed decreases.

93
Q

What is the difference between a go-around/missed approach and a rejected landing?

A

A go-round is when an aircraft discontinues its approach to land and climbs back up into the sky.
A rejected landing is where the pilots decide to abandon the landing after the flare has been initiated.

94
Q

How do you determine a standard-rate turn on an aircraft with a G1000 system?

A

Magenta rate of turn indication at top of HSI that has tick marks for half-standard and standard rate turns.

95
Q

In the event of an AHRS failure, which indications will no longer be displayed on the PFD? Which indications will still be visible on the PFD?

A

HSI data (heading, turn rate indicator), attitude indicator, slip skid indicator, bank indicator.

You will still have your Altimeter, Air Speed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator

96
Q

How does the aircraft provide basic flight instrument information in the event of a total electrical failure?

A

Pitot static system. It provides data for Altimeter, Air Speed Indicator, and Vertical Speed Indicator

ATP Private Pilot (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions