ch. 12 Embryology Flashcards by Megan Costa

Which mechanism of asexual reproduction involves the development of a new organism from a projection growing out of the parent’s body?

A. Binary fission
B. Fragmentation
C. Budding
D. Regeneration

C. Budding

Budding is observed in organisms like Hydra and yeast.

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What structure allows a bacterial cell to split during binary fission?
A. Spindle fibers
B. Acrosome
C. Septum
D. Cell wall

C. Septum

A septum forms to divide the cell into two identical daughter cells.

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What is the correct sequence of events during spermatogenesis?

A. Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatid
B. Primary spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Secondary spermatocyte
C. Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Primary spermatocyte → Sperm
D. Primary spermatocyte → Spermatid → Spermatogonia → Sperm

A. Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatid

This sequence is formed through mitosis and meiosis.

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Which of the following cells is haploid (n)?
A. Spermatogonia
B. Primary spermatocyte
C. Secondary spermatocyte
D. Sertoli cell

C. Secondary spermatocyte

Secondary spermatocytes are produced after Meiosis I.

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Use the mnemonic ‘SEVEN UP’ to identify the correct path sperm takes during ejaculation.

A. Seminiferous tubules → Vas deferens → Urethra → Penis → Epididymis → Ejaculatory duct
B. Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Penis
C. Vas deferens → Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Penis → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra
D. Epididymis → Vas deferens → Seminiferous tubules → Penis → Urethra → Ejaculatory duct

B. Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Penis

‘SEVEN UP’ helps remember the path.

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What part of the sperm contains the mitochondria that provide energy for motility?
A. Head
B. Tail
C. Body/Midpiece
D. Acrosome

C. Body/Midpiece

The midpiece is rich in mitochondria for energy.

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Which structure secretes an alkaline fluid to neutralize vaginal acidity and support sperm survival?
A. Testes
B. Seminal vesicles
C. Bulbourethral glands
D. Prostate gland

D. Prostate gland

The prostate gland plays a critical role in sperm survival.

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Which gland secretes fructose, mucus, and prostaglandins to nourish and transport sperm?
A. Prostate gland
B. Seminal vesicles
C. Bulbourethral glands
D. Vas deferens

B. Seminal vesicles

Fructose provides energy, mucus lubricates, and prostaglandins assist sperm movement.

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During oogenesis, the primary oocyte arrests in which phase until puberty?
A. Metaphase I
B. Anaphase II
C. Prophase I
D. Telophase II

C. Prophase I

Primary oocytes remain arrested in prophase I until puberty.

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What is the genetic content of the ovum that is produced after fertilization?
A. Diploid (2n)
B. Triploid (3n)
C. Haploid (n)
D. Aneuploid

A. Diploid (2n)

The zygote is diploid due to the fusion of haploid gametes.

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Where does fertilization typically occur in the female reproductive system?
A. Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Fallopian tube
D. Cervix

C. Fallopian tube

Fertilization usually happens in the fallopian tubes.

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When an egg is fertilized by a sperm in the uterine tubes, the egg implants itself on the?
A. Myometrium
B. Endometrium
C. Perimetrium
D. Epimetrium

B. Endometrium

The endometrium is critical for implantation.

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Which hormone triggers ovulation in the menstrual cycle?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. LH (Luteinizing hormone)
D. FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone)

C. LH (Luteinizing hormone)

LH surges to initiate ovulation.

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Which hormone pair is released from the ovaries?
A. FSH and LH
B. Estrogen and Progesterone
C. Oxytocin and FSH
D. GnRH and Progesterone

B. Estrogen and Progesterone

These hormones are crucial for regulating the menstrual cycle.

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At approximately what week does the embryo become a fetus?
A. Week 2
B. Week 4
C. Week 8
D. Week 10

C. Week 8

The transition from embryo to fetus occurs around week 8.

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During which week does the fetal heart begin to beat?
A. Week 3
B. Week 4
C. Week 5
D. Week 7

C. Week 5

The heart starts beating during week 5 of gestation.

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By which week is the sex of the baby visible on ultrasound?
A. Week 8
B. Week 14
C. Week 16
D. Week 20

B. Week 14

External genitalia are formed by week 14.

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What event typically occurs around Week 24?
A. Baby opens eyes and ears
B. Baby’s lungs are fully developed
C. Brain becomes very functional
D. Baby develops ability to grasp

C. Brain becomes very functional

Significant brain development happens by week 24.

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At which week does the baby begin to inhale and exhale amniotic fluid?
A. Week 18
B. Week 22
C. Week 25
D. Week 28

C. Week 25

This marks the beginning of respiratory development.

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What is the purpose of progesterone during pregnancy?
A. Suppress LH to prevent ovulation
B. Stimulate follicle development
C. Prepare the uterus lining and maintain pregnancy
D. Trigger estrogen secretion from the hypothalamus

C. Prepare the uterus lining and maintain pregnancy

Progesterone is essential for sustaining pregnancy.

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During which menstrual phase does the endometrial lining shed, and what hormone is involved in pregnancy detection?
A. Luteal phase; Estrogen
B. Menstrual phase; Progesterone
C. Menstrual phase; hCG
D. Follicular phase; LH

C. Menstrual phase; hCG

hCG is released if implantation occurs, preventing menstruation.

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Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by ovulation due to a surge in LH?
A. Menstrual phase
B. Follicular phase
C. Ovulatory phase
D. Luteal phase

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C. Ovulatory phase

The ovulatory phase is marked by LH surge around Day 14.

What type of feedback loop inhibits GnRH, FSH, and LH secretion once estrogen levels are high?
A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Mechanical feedback
D. Hormonal override

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B. Negative feedback

High estrogen levels inhibit further production via negative feedback.

Which of the following is a correct example of positive feedback?
A. Estrogen inhibits GnRH
B. High temperature causes sweating
C. Oxytocin increasing uterine contractions
D. FSH inhibits LH production

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C. Oxytocin increasing uterine contractions

This represents positive feedback during childbirth.

What prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the same egg? A. Myometrium contraction B. Follicular rupture C. Acrosomal and cortical reactions D. Zona radiata thickening

C. Acrosomal and cortical reactions ## Footnote These reactions ensure only one sperm fertilizes the egg.

What is the role of the zona pellucida (vitelline layer)? A. Stores enzymes for polyspermy prevention B. Acts as a glycoprotein barrier to aid sperm binding C. Produces hCG during fertilization D. Triggers ovulation via LH receptor binding

B. Acts as a glycoprotein barrier to aid sperm binding ## Footnote It ensures species-specific fertilization.

What happens during the acrosomal reaction? A. Follicle ruptures and releases an egg B. The egg releases calcium to activate sperm C. Enzymes from the sperm digest the egg’s outer layer D. Endometrial lining thickens

C. Enzymes from the sperm digest the egg’s outer layer ## Footnote This allows the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida.

What structure of the human egg is responsible for nourishing the egg and providing protection during development? A. Cortical granule B. Corona radiata C. Nucleus D. Zona pellucida

B. Corona radiata ## Footnote This layer provides physical and nutrient support.

What prevents polyspermy during fertilization? A. Zona hatching B. IP3 inhibition C. Cortical reaction with calcium ion release D. FSH surge

C. Cortical reaction with calcium ion release ## Footnote The cortical reaction forms a fertilization envelope to block additional sperm.

Which type of twins develops from a single zygote that splits? A. Dizygotic B. Fraternal C. Monozygotic D. Conjoined

C. Monozygotic for fraternal twins two eggs are fertilized by two different sperms ## Footnote Monozygotic twins are genetically identical.

What is true about cleavage during early embryonic development? A. Mass of the embryo increases B. Blastomeres get larger with each division C. It occurs in the fallopian tube and increases the number of smaller cells D. It begins after implantation

C. It occurs in the fallopian tube and increases the number of smaller cells ## Footnote Cleavage partitions cytoplasm without mass increase.

What is the type of cleavage where fate is not determined early? A. Determinate cleavage B. Spiral cleavage C. Indeterminate cleavage D. Meroblastic cleavage

C. Indeterminate cleavage ## Footnote This allows cells to remain totipotent longer.

The neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord, is derived from: A. Endoderm B. Mesoderm C. Ectoderm D. Trophoblast

C. Ectoderm ## Footnote The ectoderm folds into the neural tube.

Which stem cell type can differentiate into any cell type, including extraembryonic structures? A. Multipotent B. Pluripotent C. Totipotent D. Unipotent

C. Totipotent ## Footnote Totipotent cells can develop into any cell type.

What is formed during gastrulation? A. Morula B. Blastocyst C. Zygote D. Gastrula

D. Gastrula ## Footnote Gastrulation results in a 3-layered structure: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm.

The notochord and spleen is derived from which germ layer? A. Ectoderm B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Trophoblast

B. Mesoderm ## Footnote The notochord plays a role in neural induction.

Which layer gives rise to the respiratory tract and gastrointestinal lining and thymus? A. Ectoderm B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Neural crest cells

C. Endoderm ## Footnote The endoderm forms the lining of these systems.

Which of the following develops from the mesoderm? A. Brain B. Skin and nails C. Cardiovascular system D. Retina

C. Cardiovascular system ## Footnote The mesoderm forms the heart and blood vessels.

Which part of the blastocyst forms the embryo? A. Hypoblast B. Epiblast C. Trophoblast D. Zona pellucida

B. Epiblast ## Footnote The epiblast undergoes gastrulation to form the embryo.

Which of the following structures arises from the endoderm? A. Central nervous system B. Lungs C. Pancreas D. Epidermis

C. Pancreas ## Footnote The mesoderm also forms muscle and bone.

Which of the following structures arises from the mesoderm? A. Central nervous system B. Lungs C. Notochord D. Epidermis

C.Notochord ## Footnote Mesoderm forms muscle, bone, blood, and the circulatory system.

The epidermis and sensory receptors are derived from which germ layer? A. Endoderm B. Mesoderm C. Ectoderm D. Neural crest

C. Ectoderm ## Footnote The outermost germ layer forms skin, hair, nails, and the nervous system.

Which extraembryonic membrane stores waste and contributes to the umbilical cord? A. Amnion B. Yolk sac C. Allantois D. Chorion

C. Allantois ## Footnote The allantois stores nitrogenous waste and forms the umbilical cord in placental mammals.

What is the function of the amnion? A. Gas exchange B. Waste storage C. Mechanical protection and hydration D. Placenta formation

C. Mechanical protection and hydration ## Footnote The amnion surrounds the embryo with fluid to cushion and maintain hydration.

What type of egg has little yolk that is evenly distributed? A. Macrolecithal B. Microlecithal C. Mesolecithal D. Aclecithal

B. Microlecithal ## Footnote Microlecithal eggs (e.g., echinoderms) have small amounts of yolk spread evenly.

Which egg has a large amount of yolk concentrated at the vegetal pole? A. Aclecithal B. Microlecithal C. Mesolecithal D. Macrolecithal

D. Macrolecithal ## Footnote Reptiles lay macrolecithal eggs, which contain a large yolk for nourishment.

What term describes programmed cell death that removes structures like webbed fingers? A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis C. Morphogenesis D. Differentiation

B. Apoptosis ## Footnote Apoptosis sculpts body parts during development and eliminates damaged cells.

What are homeotic genes responsible for? A. Preventing polyspermy B. Turning on/off genes in specific body segments C. Building cell membranes D. Promoting gastrulation

B. Turning on/off genes in specific body segments ## Footnote These master regulatory genes help body parts develop in the correct locations.

What is the role of cytoplasmic determinants in early embryos? A. Protect DNA B. Anchor cells to the zona pellucida C. Guide gene expression and axis formation D. Create amniotic fluid

C. Guide gene expression and axis formation ## Footnote Cytoplasmic determinants regulate gene expression and help define the embryo’s body plan.

What results from the fusion of two different zygotes into one organism? A. Mosaic B. Clone C. Chimera D. Blastocyst

C. Chimera ## Footnote A chimera contains cells with different genetic compositions from multiple zygotes.

Which of the followings is an example of an anamniote? Turtle Fish Parrot Penguin Crocodile

Fish anamniote - lay eggs in water anmaiotes - lay eggs outside of water

Which of the following layers of the uterus contains smooth muscle? Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium

Myometrium

Which of the following types of asexual reproduction involves one cell being separated into two separate cells? Fragmentation Regeneration Budding Binary fission Parthenogenesis

Binary fission Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction that involves one cell being separated into two separate cells.

ch. 12 Embryology Flashcards

(53 cards)