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Flashcards in Ch 16 Deck (20)
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1. An organization ensures that users are granted access to only the data they need to perform specific work tasks. What principle are they following?

A. Principle of least permission
B. Separation of duties
C. Need to know
D. Role-based access control

Answer: C

Need to know is the requirement to have access to, knowledge about, or possession of data to perform specific work tasks, but no more. The principle of least privilege includes both rights and permissions, but the term principle of least permission is not valid within IT security. Separation of duties ensures that a single person doesn't control all the elements of a process. Role-based access control grants access to resources based on a role.


2. An administrator is granting permissions to a database. What is the default level of access the administrator should grant to new users?

A. Read
B. Modify
C. Full access
D. No access

Answer: D

The default level of access should be no access. The principle of least privilege dictates that users should only be granted the level of access they need for their job and the question doesn't indicate new users need any access. Read access, modify access, and full access grants users some level of access, which violates the principle of least privilege.


3. Why is separation of duties important for security purposes?

A. It ensures that multiple people can do the same job.
B. It prevents an organization from losing important information when they lose important people.
C. It prevents any single security person from being able to make major security changes without involving other individuals.
D. It helps employees concentrate their talents where they will be most useful.

Answer: C

A separation of duties policy prevents a single person from controlling all elements of a process, and when applied to security settings, it can prevent a person from making major security changes without assistance. Job rotation helps ensure that multiple people can do the same job and can help prevent the organization from losing information when a single person leaves. Having employees concentrate their talents is unrelated to separation of duties.


4. What is a primary benefit of job rotation and separation of duties policies?

A. Preventing collusion
B. Preventing fraud
C. Encouraging collusion
D. Correcting incidents

Answer: B

Job rotation and separation of duties policies help prevent fraud. Collusion is an agreement among multiple persons to perform some unauthorized or illegal actions, and implementing these policies helps prevent fraud. They don't prevent collusion and certainly aren't intended to encourage employees to collude against an organization. They help deter and prevent incidents, but they do not correct them.


5. A financial organization commonly has employees switch duty responsibilities every six months. What security principle are they employing?

A. Job rotation
B. Separation of duties
C. Mandatory vacations
D. Least privilege

Answer: A

A job rotation policy has employees rotate jobs or job responsibilities and can help detect incidences of collusion and fraud. A separation of duties policy ensures that a single person doesn't control all elements of a specific function. Mandatory vacation policies ensure that employees take an extended time away from their job, requiring someone else to perform their job responsibilities, which increases the likelihood of discovering fraud. Least privilege ensures that users have only the permissions they need to perform their job and no more.


6. Which of the following is one of the primary reasons an organization enforces a mandatory vacation policy?

A. To rotate job responsibilities
B. To detect fraud
C. To increase employee productivity
D. To reduce employee stress levels

Answer: B

Mandatory vacation policies help detect fraud. They require employees to take an extended time away from their job, requiring someone else to perform their job responsibilities and this increases the likelihood of discovering fraud. It does not rotate job responsibilities. While mandatory vacations might help employees reduce their overall stress levels, and in turn increase productivity, these are not the primary reasons for mandatory vacation policies.


7. An organization wants to reduce vulnerabilities against fraud from malicious employees. Of the following choices, what would help with this goal? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Job rotation
B. Separation of duties
C. Mandatory vacations
D. Baselining

Answer: A;B;C

Job rotation, separation of duties, and mandatory vacation policies will all help reduce fraud. Baselining is used for configuration management and would not help reduce collusion or fraud.


8. Of the following choices, what is not a valid security practice related to special privileges?

A. Monitor special privilege assignments.
B. Grant access equally to administrators and operators.
C. Monitor special privilege usage.
D. Grant access to only trusted employees.

Answer: B

Special privileges should not be granted equally to administrators and operators. Instead, personnel should be granted only the privileges they need to perform their job. Special privileges are activities that require special access or elevated rights and permissions to perform administrative and sensitive job tasks. Assignment and usage of these privileges should be monitored, and access should be granted only to trusted employees.


9. Which of the following identifies vendor responsibilities and can include monetary penalties if the vendor doesn't meet the stated responsibilities?

A. Service level agreement (SLA)
B. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
C. Interconnection security agreement (ISA)
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer: A

A service level agreement identifies responsibilities of a third party such as a vendor and can include monetary penalties if the vendor doesn't meet the stated responsibilities. A MOU is in informal agreement and does not include monetary penalties. An ISA defines requirements for establishing, maintaining, and disconnecting a connection. SaaS is one of the cloud-based service models and does not specify vendor responsibilities.


10. What should be done with equipment that is at the end of its life cycle and that is being donated to a charity?

A. Remove all CDs and DVDs.
B. Remove all software licenses.
C. Sanitize it.
D. Install the original software.

Answer: C

Systems should be sanitized when they reach the end of their life cycle to ensure that they do not include any sensitive data. Removing CDs and DVDs is part of the sanitation process, but other elements of the system, such as disk drives, should also be checked to ensure they don't include sensitive information. Removing software licenses or installing the original software is not necessarily required unless the organization's sanitization process requires it.


11. An organization is planning the layout of a new building that will house a datacenter. Where is the most appropriate place to locate the datacenter?

A. In the center of the building
B. Closest to the outside wall where power enters the building
C. Closest to the outside wall where heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems are located
D. At the back of the building

Answer: A

Valuable assets require multiple layers of physical security and placing a datacenter in the center of the building helps provide these additional layers. Placing valuable assets next to an outside wall (including at the back of the building) eliminates some layers of security.


12. Which of the following is a true statement regarding virtual machines (VMs) running as guest operating systems on physical servers?

A. Updating the physical server automatically updates the VMs.
B. Updating any VM automatically updates all the VMs.
C. VMs do not need to be updated as long as the physical server is updated.
D. VMs must be updated individually.

Answer: D

VMs need to be updated individually just as they would be if they were running on a physical server. Updates to the physical server do not update hosted VMs. Similarly, updating one VM doesn't update all VMs.


13. Some cloud-based service models require an organization to perform some maintenance and take responsibility for some security. Which of the following models places the majority of these responsibilities on the organization leasing the cloud-based resources?

A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. Cloud as a Service (CaaS)

Answer: A

Organizations have the most responsibility for maintenance and security when leasing IaaS cloud resources. The cloud service provider takes more responsibility with the PaaS model and the most responsibility with the SaaS model. CaaS isn't a valid name for a cloud-based service model.


14. An organization is using a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud-based service shared with another organization. What type of deployment model does this describe?

A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid

Answer: C

A community cloud deployment model provides cloud-based assets to two or more organizations. A public cloud model includes assets available for any consumers to rent or lease. A private cloud deployment model includes cloud-based assets for a single organization. A hybrid model includes a combination of two or more deployment models.


15. Backup tapes have reached the end of their life cycle and need to be disposed of. Which of the following is the most appropriate disposal method?

A. Throw them away. Because they are at the end of their life cycle, it is not possible to read data from them.
B. Purge the tapes of all data before disposing of them.
C. Erase data off the tapes before disposing of them.
D. Store the tapes in a storage facility.

Answer: B

The tapes should be purged, ensuring that data cannot be recovered using any known means. Even though tapes may be at the end of their life cycle, they can still hold data and should be purged before throwing them away. Erasing doesn't remove all usable data from media, but purging does. There is no need to store the tapes if they are at the end of their life cycle.


16. Which of the following can be an effective method of configuration management using a baseline?

A. Implementing change management
B. Using images
C. Implementing vulnerability management
D. Implementing patch management

Answer: B

Images can be an effective configuration management method using a baseline. Imaging ensures that systems are deployed with the same, known configuration. Change management processes help prevent outages from unauthorized changes. Vulnerability management processes helps to identify vulnerabilities, and patch management processes help to ensure systems are kept up-to-date.


17. Which of the following steps would not be included in a change management process?

A. Immediately implement the change if it will improve performance.
B. Request the change.
C. Create a rollback plan for the change.
D. Document the change.

Answer: A

Change management processes may need to be temporarily bypassed to respond to an emergency, but they should not be bypassed simply because someone thinks it can improve performance. Even when a change is implemented in response to an emergency, it should still be documented and reviewed after the incident. Requesting changes, creating rollback plans, and documenting changes are all valid steps within a change management process.


18. While troubleshooting a network problem, a technician realized it could be resolved by opening a port on a firewall. The technician opened the port and verified the system was now working. However, an attacker accessed this port and launched a successful attack. What could have prevented this problem?

A. Patch management processes
B. Vulnerability management processes
C. Configuration management processes
D. Change management processes

Answer: D

Change management processes would ensure that changes are evaluated before being implemented to prevent unintended outages or needlessly weakening security. Patch management ensures systems are up-to-date, vulnerability management checks systems for known vulnerabilities, and configuration management ensures that system are deployed similarly, but these other processes wouldn't prevent an unauthorized change.


19. Which of the following is not a part of a patch management process?

A. Evaluate patches
B. Test patches
C. Deploy all patches
D. Audit patches

Answer: C

Only required patches should be deployed so an organization will not deploy all patches. Instead, an organization evaluates the patches to determine which patches are needed, tests them to ensure that they don't cause unintended problems, deploys the approved and tested patches, and audits systems to ensure that patches have been applied.


20. What would an administrator use to check systems for known issues that attackers may use to exploit the systems?

A. Versioning tracker
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Security audit
D. Security review

Answer: B

Vulnerability scanners are used to check systems for known issues and are part of an overall vulnerability management program. Versioning is used to track software versions and is unrelated to detecting vulnerabilities. Security audits and reviews help ensure that an organization is following its policies but wouldn't directly check systems for vulnerabilities.