Dive Rev 7a > CH 18 Dive Manual > Flashcards

CH 18 Dive Manual Flashcards

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1
Q

What are recompression chambers used for?

A
  • Treatment of decompression sickness and arterial gas embolism
  • surface decompression
  • pressure tests for divers
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2
Q

What is the advantage of double-lock chambers?

A

They permit personnel and supplies to enter and leave the chamber during treatment.

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3
Q

What is the RCC Support Level I?

A

A U.S. Navy certified recompression chamber close enough to the dive site to support surface decompression with a surface interval of 5 minutes.

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4
Q

What defines RCC Support Level II?

A

A U.S. Navy certified recompression chamber accessible within one hour of the casualty.

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5
Q

What is the definition of RCC Support Level III?

A

A U.S. Navy certified recompression chamber accessible within six hours of the casualty.

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6
Q

True or False: A non-Navy chamber can be used for Level II support if authorized in writing by the first Flag Officer.

A

True.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: During extreme circumstances when a chamber cannot be reached within six hours, the _______ can authorize using the nearest recompression facility.

A

Commanding Officer

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8
Q

What is required for a non-Navy chamber to be used for Level III support?

A

It must be evaluated using the NAVSEA non-Navy recompression chamber check sheet and authorized in writing by the Commanding Officer.

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9
Q

What is the maximum surface interval that may be authorized by the Commanding Officer for RCC Support Level I?

A

7 minutes.

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10
Q

What are the basic components of a recompression chamber?

A
  • pressure vessel
  • air supply and exhaust system
  • pressure gauge
  • built-in breathing system (BIBS) to supply oxygen to the patient
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11
Q

What pressure must a recompression chamber maintain?

A

The systems must be able to impose and maintain a pressure equivalent to a depth of 165 fsw (6 ata) on the diver.

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12
Q

Why are double-lock chambers used?

A

Double-lock chambers are used because they allow tending personnel and supplies to enter and leave the chamber during treatment.

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13
Q

What is the function of the Built-In Breathing System (BIBS) in modernized recompression chambers?

A

It reduces ventilation requirements and provides gas supply for occupants.

The BIBS is designed to enhance the breathing environment within the chamber.

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14
Q

True or False: The RCF 6500 is equipped with a NATO mating flange.

A

True

This feature allows interoperability with NATO equipment.

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15
Q

How many divers can the SNDL chamber accommodate in the inner and outer locks?

A

4 divers in the inner lock and 3 divers in the outer lock.

This configuration ensures efficient use of space while providing treatment.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the Air Flask Rack Assembly (AFRA) in the SNDLRCS?

A

To supply air to the system.

The AFRA is similar to the Air Supply Rack Assembly (ASRA) used in other systems.

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17
Q

What environmental controls are included in the ISO container of the SNDLRCS?

A

Heating and air conditioning

These controls provide a comfortable environment for personnel conducting treatments.

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18
Q

What does the RCF’s atmospheric conditioning system provide?

A

Internal atmospheric scrubbing and monitoring, temperature and humidity controls.

These features are essential for long-term patient treatment.

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19
Q

What is TRCS Mod 1?

A

It consists of just the Transportable Recompression Chamber (TRC)

TRCS Mod 1 does not include the Transfer Lock.

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20
Q

What upgrade does TRCS Mod 2 have compared to Mod 0?

A

It has the 5000 psi upgrade ECP installed, allowing use with an Air Supply Rack Assembly (ASRA)

This upgrade enhances the chamber’s capabilities.

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21
Q

What is the Fly Away Recompression Chamber (FARCC)?

A

A double lock chamber in a 20’ x 8’ x 8’ milvan

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22
Q

What is the purpose of the Emergency Evacuation Hyperbaric Stretcher (EEHS)?

A

To transport a diving or disabled submarine casualty from an accident site to a treatment facility while under pressure

The EEHS is not a replacement for a recompression chamber.

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23
Q

What features must recompression chambers have?

A

Means for delivering breathing oxygen and connections for demand-type oxygen inhalators

Proper oxygen delivery is critical for patient safety.

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24
Q

What should be done with all lines in recompression chambers?

A

They should be identified and labeled to indicate function, content, and direction of flow

Color coding is recommended for clarity.

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25
What is required for optimum chamber ventilation?
Separation of the inlet and exhaust ports within the chamber ## Footnote This ensures proper airflow and prevents mixing of gases.
26
What safety feature must be provided for exhaust ports?
A guard device to prevent accidental injury when they are open ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining safety around the chamber.
27
What type of pressure gauges must be fitted in chambers?
Pressure gauges marked to read in feet of seawater (fsw) ## Footnote Calibration must follow the Planned Maintenance System (PMS) for accuracy.
28
What is the designation for Helium in the recompression chamber line guide?
HE ## Footnote Designations help identify the type of gas being used in the chamber.
29
What color code represents Oxygen in the recompression chamber line guide?
Green ## Footnote Color coding is essential for quick identification of gas types.
30
What should recompression chambers be equipped with in each manned lock?
Pressure relief valves ## Footnote These valves prevent overpressure situations within the chamber.
31
What is the requirement for chambers without latches on the doors regarding relief valves?
They are not required to have a relief valve on the outer lock ## Footnote This indicates a safety protocol based on chamber design.
32
What type of valve must be located between the chamber pressure hull and each relief valve?
A gag valve, which is a quick-acting, ball-type valve ## Footnote The gag valve must be compatible with the relief valve and safety wired in the open position.
33
What backup communication may be provided in the chamber?
A set of standard sound-powered telephones ## Footnote This ensures communication is maintained in case of primary system failure.
34
What lighting consideration should be made for the chamber?
Installation of a low-level lighting fixture on a separate circuit ## Footnote This reduces heat and glare for the patient.
35
What is the purpose of Tender Change-Out during extensive treatments?
To allow medical personnel to lock-in to examine the patient and then lock-out, rather than remain inside throughout the treatment.
36
What is the maximum rate at which pressure should be applied during Lock-In Operations?
75 feet per minute.
37
What should the outside tender do when pressurization begins?
Record the time to determine the decompression schedule.
38
What happens when pressure levels in the outer and inner locks are equal during Lock-In Operations?
The inside door should open.
39
What position must the actuating lever of the chamber gag valves be maintained in?
Open position at all times.
40
Under what condition should the gag valves be closed?
In the event of relief valve failure during chamber operation.
41
What is a requirement for the WARNING plate affixed to the chamber regarding the gag valves?
It must be readily viewable by operating personnel and state that the gag valve must remain open at all times.
42
What is the effective concentration limit of carbon dioxide in the chamber?
Not to exceed 1.5 percent (11.4 mmHg).
43
What is the ventilation requirement for each diver at rest when breathing air?
2 cubic feet per minute (acfm).
44
What is the ventilation requirement for each diver who is not at rest when breathing air?
4 cubic feet per minute (acfm).
45
What is the ventilation requirement for a diver at rest when using the built-in breathing system (BIBS)?
12.5 acfm.
46
What is the ventilation requirement for a diver who is not at rest when using the built-in breathing system (BIBS)?
25 acfm.
47
What is the maximum time for which ventilation may be interrupted?
5 minutes in any 30-minute period
48
What should be done when ventilation is resumed after an interruption?
Use twice the volume of ventilation for the time of interruption
49
What ventilation rate may be used if a BIBS dump system or a closed circuit BIBS is employed?
The ventilation rate for air breathing
50
What should the oxygen level be maintained below when using monitoring systems?
25 percent by volume
51
What is the standard procedure for determining the volume of air used for ventilation?
Open the exhaust valve a given number of turns at a specific chamber depth
52
What is the first step to determine valve settings for ventilation?
Mark the valve handle position
53
What depths are typically checked for ventilation rates?
* 30 feet * 60 feet * 100 feet * 165 feet
54
What are some common ventilation rates that may be convenient to know?
* 6 cubic feet per minute * 12.5 cubic feet per minute * 25 cubic feet per minute * 37.5 cubic feet per minute
55
What is the formula to calculate the time to change the chamber pressure by 10 feet?
T = V × 60 x ΔP / (R × (D + 33))
56
True or False: The procedure for determining ventilation rates should be performed with an occupied chamber.
False
57
What is the role of the supply valve during ventilation?
To maintain a constant chamber depth during ventilation
58
What is the maximum time for which ventilation may be interrupted?
5 minutes in any 30-minute period
59
What should be done when ventilation is resumed after an interruption?
Use twice the volume of ventilation for the time of interruption
60
What ventilation rate may be used if a BIBS dump system or a closed circuit BIBS is employed?
The ventilation rate for air breathing
61
What should the oxygen level be maintained below when using monitoring systems?
25 percent by volume
62
What should the carbon dioxide level be maintained below when using monitoring systems?
1.5 percent surface equivalent (sev)
63
What is the standard procedure for determining the volume of air used for ventilation?
Open the exhaust valve a given number of turns at a specific chamber depth
64
What is the first step to determine valve settings for ventilation?
Mark the valve handle position
65
What depths are typically checked for ventilation rates?
* 30 feet * 60 feet * 100 feet * 165 feet
66
What are some common ventilation rates that may be convenient to know?
* 6 cubic feet per minute * 12.5 cubic feet per minute * 25 cubic feet per minute * 37.5 cubic feet per minute
67
What is the formula to calculate the time to change the chamber pressure by 10 feet?
T = V × 60 x ΔP / (R × (D + 33))
68
True or False: The procedure for determining ventilation rates should be performed with an occupied chamber.
False
69
What is the role of the supply valve during ventilation?
To maintain a constant chamber depth during ventilation
70
What is the danger of having too little oxygen in the chamber?
There is seldom any danger of having too little oxygen in the chamber, even with no ventilation and a high carbon dioxide level.
71
What improves ventilation in a chamber?
Locating the inlet near one end of the chamber and the outlet near the other end.
72
How does coming up to the next stop affect gas in the chamber?
It reduces the standard cubic feet of gas in the chamber and proportionally reduces the quantity (scm) of air required for ventilation.
73
What is the most efficient method of ventilation?
Continuous ventilation.
74
What is a disadvantage of continuous ventilation?
It exposes divers in the chamber to continuous noise.
75
What can high sound levels during ventilation lead to?
Hearing loss becomes a hazard to the divers in the chamber.
76
What should chamber occupants wear if high sound levels occur?
Ear protectors.
77
What precaution should be taken with ear protectors?
A small hole should be drilled into the central cavity of the protector to prevent ear squeeze.
78
Does the size of the chamber influence the rate of air required for ventilation?
No, the size of the chamber does not influence the rate (acfm) of air required.
79
How does increasing depth affect the mass of air required for ventilation?
Increasing depth increases the actual mass of air required for ventilation.
80
When expressed in volumes at chamber pressure, does increasing depth change the number of actual cubic feet (acfm) required?
No, it does not change the number of actual cubic feet (acfm) required.
81
How can pressure changes in cylinders be used in the chamber?
To check the amount of ventilation being provided.
82
What is the purpose of the Postdive Checklist?
To ensure equipment receives proper postdive maintenance and is returned to operational readiness.
83
What are the PMS requirements for USN recompression chambers?
Every USN recompression chamber shall adhere to PMS requirements and be pressure tested at 2-year intervals.
84
What constitutes a major overhaul for a permanently installed chamber?
Removing and reinstalling the chamber.
85
What should be followed after moving portable chambers?
Operating procedures prior to use.
86
What is the greatest single hazard in the use of a recompression chamber?
Explosive fire
87
How much faster may fire spread in a pressurized chamber compared to atmospheric conditions?
Two to six times faster
88
What is the recommended oxygen percentage to maintain in a recompression chamber?
As close to 21 percent as possible
89
What is the maximum oxygen percentage allowed in a recompression chamber?
25 percent
90
What types of materials should be removed from the chamber to minimize fire hazard?
Fittings or equipment that do not conform with standard requirements or are made of flammable materials
91
What types of flooring or furniture are prohibited in the chamber?
Wooden deck gratings, benches, or shelving
92
What type of mattresses should be used in hyperbaric chambers?
Only mattresses designed for hyperbaric chambers, such as Durett Product or submarine mattress
93
What is the NSN for the recommended submarine mattress?
7210-00-275-5878 or 5874
94
What should mattresses in the chamber be enclosed in?
Flame-proof covers
95
What type of sheets and pillowcases should be used in the chamber?
100% cotton sheets and pillowcases
96
What is the guideline for the amount of bedding in the chamber?
Put no more bedding in the chamber than is necessary for the comfort of the patient
97
What types of blankets should never be used in the chamber?
Wool or synthetic fiber blankets
98
Fill in the blank: The presence of _______ can cause sparks from static electricity in a recompression chamber.
wool or synthetic fibers
99
What materials are acceptable for clothing worn by chamber occupants?
100% cotton or a flame resistant blend of cotton and polyester ## Footnote Diver swim trunks made of 65% polyester and 35% cotton are also acceptable.
100
What must be done if oil or volatile materials have been used in the chamber?
Ensure the chamber is thoroughly ventilated before pressurization ## Footnote Oil must not be put on or in any fittings or high-pressure line.
101
What must be done if oil is spilled in the chamber?
It must be completely removed ## Footnote If lubricants are required, only those approved in NSTM NAVSEA S9086-H7-STM-000, Chapter 262 should be used.
102
What materials are prohibited from being carried into the chamber?
Smoking materials, matches, lighters, or any flammable materials ## Footnote A WARNING sign should be posted outside the chamber.
103
What must all recompression chambers have for fire safety?
A means of extinguishing a fire in the interior ## Footnote Examples include wetted towels, a bucket of water, or a fire extinguisher.
104
What document specifies the fire protection systems for recompression chambers?
U.S. Navy General Specification for the Design, Construction, and Repair of Diving and Hyperbaric Equipment (TS500-AU-SPN-010) ## Footnote Only fire extinguishers listed on the NAVSEA Authorization for Navy Use are to be used.
105
What physical qualification must U.S. Navy diver candidates meet?
They must be physically qualified in accordance with the Manual of the Medical Department, Art. 15-102.
106
What is required before diver candidates are eligible for diver training?
They must pass a pressure test ## Footnote This test can be conducted at any Navy certified recompression chamber.
107
To what depth must candidates demonstrate the ability to equalize pressure in both ears?
60 fsw
108
What test must candidates pass in accordance with MILPERSMAN 1220-100?
The screening physical readiness test.
109
What additional evaluation may be required for Aviation Duty personnel with medical concerns?
A modified Diver Candidate Pressure Test ## Footnote This evaluation must be medically supervised.
110
What is required for candidates to undergo a Diver Candidate Pressure Test?
Candidates shall undergo a diving physical examination by a Navy Medical Officer in accordance with the Manual of the Medical Department, Art. 15-102.
111
Do Aviation Duty personnel require a Diving Duty physical examination for pressure testing?
No, Aviation Duty personnel requiring pressure testing due to medical concerns do not require a Diving Duty physical examination.
112
What is the initial pressure for candidates in the recompression chamber during the Diver Candidate Pressure Test?
Candidates are pressurized to 60 fsw on air.
113
What is the maximum descent rate for modified Diver Candidate Pressure Tests for Aviation Duty personnel?
The maximum descent rate is limited to 10 fpm.
114
What action is taken if a candidate cannot complete the descent in the recompression chamber?
The chamber is stopped and the candidate is placed in the outer lock for return to the surface.
115
How long must candidates stay at 60 fsw during the Diver Candidate Pressure Test?
Candidates must stay at 60 fsw for at least 10 minutes.
116
What procedures are followed for ascending to the surface after the Diver Candidate Pressure Test?
Candidates ascend to the surface following standard air decompression procedures.
117
How long must all candidates remain at the immediate chamber site after the Diver Candidate Pressure Test?
All candidates shall remain at the immediate chamber site for a minimum of 15 minutes.
118
What is the minimum time candidates must stay at the test facility after the Diver Candidate Pressure Test?
Candidates must stay at the test facility for 1 hour.
119
What must candidates or tenders do if they must return to their command via air travel?
They must proceed in accordance with paragraph 9-14.
120
What is the reference for the Manual of the Medical Department relevant to diving physical examinations?
Manual of the Medical Department, Art. 15-102.
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