Ch. 6: Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

What frequencies does VOR operate on?

A

108.0 thru 117.95

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2
Q

What is a VOR radial?

A

Magnetic bearing extending from a VOR. Projects 360 radials from the station. Radials determined by their direction from the station

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3
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDS classified?

A

Terminal, low, and high

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4
Q

VOR reception distances?

A

Terminal - 12,000’ and below: 25 miles

Low - Below 18,000’: 40 miles

High - 14,500’ +: 100+ miles

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5
Q

3 functional elements of GPS

A

Space - Satellites
Control - ground based GPA monitoring for accuracy
User - Antennas and receivers on AC

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6
Q

Checking Accuracy of VOR

A
VOT Check
Ground Checkpoint
Airbourne Checkpoint
Dual VOR Check
Selected radial over a known ground point
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7
Q

Purpose of RAIM

A

Self-monitoring function performed by GPS receiver

Ensures adequate GPS signal received

Availability can be obtained through FSS, manufacturer tool, or FAA SAPT

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8
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System

Ground/Satellite error correction system

Extremely accurate GPS

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9
Q

GPS Limitations

A

RAIM capability - Many don’t have RAIM. Pilot will not be aware of loss of satellites

Database currency

Antenna location

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10
Q

VFR Waypoints

A

Used as an supplementary tool to navigation. Assists with position awareness. Only used when flying VFR

Help when pilots are unfamiliar with the area, enhanced nav in class b and c, positive ID of reporting points

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11
Q

VHF Frequencies

A

118.0 thru 136.975

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12
Q

Ground Control Frequencies

A

TYPICALLY 121.6 thru 121.9

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13
Q

Heavy Lined Blue Box Around NAVAID

A

FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0, and 255.4 available

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14
Q

Thin Lined Blue Box

A

No standard FSS frequencies available

“R” indicates FSS is receive only

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15
Q

Max airspeed below 10,000’

A

250 Knots

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16
Q

If radio comms are lost in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing?

A

Must have basic VFR Wx minimums

Visual contact must be maintained with tower

Clearance to land received

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17
Q

Where is aerobatic flight prohibited?

A
Over a congested area
Over open air assembly
Less than 1,500' AGL
Less than 3 miles visibility
Within Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for airport
Within 4NM of a federal airway
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18
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class A

A

Two Way Radio
Mode C Transponder
IFR Equipment

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19
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class B

A

Two Way Radio
Mode C Transponder
If IFR, VOR, VORTAC, or RNAV

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20
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class C

A

Two Way Radio

Mode C Transponder

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21
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class D

A

Two Way Radio

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22
Q

Minimum Equipment for Class E

A

No specific requirement

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23
Q

Who can operate in Class B

A

Private Pilot

Student Pilots may operate in Class B if in compliance with appropriate regs

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24
Q

Entry Requirements for Class A

A

ATC Clearance

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25
Entry Requirements for Class B
ATC Clearance
26
Entry Requirements for C & D
Two Way Radio Communication Established
27
Various Types of Terminal Radar Service Available for VFR AC?
Basic Radar Services TRSA Class C Class B
28
Basic Radar Service
Safety alerts Traffic Advisories Limited Radar Vectoring Sequencing
29
TRSA - Terminal Radar Service Area
Radar sequencing and separation
30
Class C Service
Separation between VFR and IFR AC | Sequencing of VFR Arrivals
31
Class B
Separation between AC based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight | Sequencing of VFR Arrivals
32
Where is Mode C Required?
At/above 10,000' MSL, excluding airspace below 2,500' Mode C veil Within/above Class C up to 10,000' Within 10 miles of certain airports, excluding airspace outside of Class D and below 1,200' AGL All AC flying into, within, or across ADIZ
33
Max airspeed in Class C
200 knots
34
Class D Services
No separation On workload permitting basis, ATC may provide radar traffic info, safety alerts, and traffic info
35
Examples of Class E Airspace
``` Class e extension Surface area for airport where control tower is not open Airspace used for transition Federal airways and RNAV routes Offshore airspace areas En route domestic areas ```
36
Purpose of Class E Transition Areas
Extend up from 700’ or 1,200’ AGL Help separate (via cloud clearance) IFR traffic from VFR AC in vicinity
37
Are you required to establish contact with tower in Class E?
Yes, anytime you are operating to, from, through, or on airport with operational control tower, contact must be established 4 NM from airport up to 2,500' AGL
38
How are Class E Extensions Depicted on a Chart?
Magenta dashed line
39
Main difference between Class G and other airspace?
Wx minimums
40
Class B Wx Minimums
3 miles | Clear of Clouds
41
Class C Wx Minimums
3 Miles | 1/5/2
42
Class D Wx Minimums
3 Miles | 1/5/2
43
Class E Wx Minimums - Less than 10,000' MSL
3 Miles | 1/5/2
44
Class E Wx Minimums - 10,000' or above
1 Mile | 1,000' Above/1,000' Below/1 Mile
45
Class G Wx Minimums - Day 1,200' AGL or Less
1 Mile | Clear of Clouds
46
Class G Wx Minimums - Night 1,200' AGL or Night
3 Miles | 1/5/2
47
Class G Wx Minimums - Day Above 1,200' AGL but Less Than 10,000' MSL
1 Mile | 1/5/2
48
Class G Wx Minimums - Night Above 1,200' AGL but Less Than 10,000' MSL
3 Miles | 1/5/2
49
Class G Wx Minimums - | Above 1,200' AGL &/or above 10,000' MSL
5 Miles | 1,000' Above/1,000' Below/1 Mile
50
What is a prohibited area?
Contain certain airspace where AC ops is prohibited Established for security or other national welfare
51
What is a restricted area?
Ops not completely prohibited, but subject to restrictions. Often contain invisible hazards Must have clearance to operate contrary to imposed restrictions from controlling agency
52
What is a warning area?
3 NM outward from coast of US Contains activity that may be hazardous
53
What is a MOA?
Military operations area - Separates certain military training exercises from IFR traffic VFR pilots should use extreme caution Status may change frequently Should contact FSS within 100 miles to receive hours of operation
54
What is an alert area?
May contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type aerial activity All aircraft are responsible for collision avoidance
55
When may a pilot deviate from ATC clearance?
In an emergency Collision avoidance Amended clearance received
56
Preflight action required for all flights leaving the vicinity of departure airport?
``` N otams W eather K nown ATC delays R unway lengths and condition A lternatives available F uel requirements T akeoff and landing distance data ```
57
Arriving AC Receiver INOP
Remain outside Class D surface area Determine direction/flow of traffic Advise tower of AC type, position, altitude, and intentions Request light signals At 3-5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic Watch tower for light signals
58
Arriving AC Transmitter INOP
Remain outside Class D surface area Determine direction/flow of traffic Monitor frequency for landing and traffic info Join traffic pattern Watch tower for light signals Acknowledge by rocking wings or flashing landing light
59
Arriving AC Reciever/Transmitter INOP
``` Remain outside Class D surface area Determine direction/flow of traffic Join traffic pattern Watch tower for light signals Acknowledge by rocking wings or flashing landing ```
60
Oxygen requirements - 12,500' MSL - 14,000' MSL
Required for crew for that part of flight more than 30 minutes
61
Oxygen requirements - Above 14,000' MSL
Required for crew for entire duration
62
Oxygen requirements - Above 15,000 MSL
Required for all for entire duration
63
When are parachutes required on AC?
60 degrees of bank 30 degrees nose up/down Not required for training or pilot certification as specified in FARs
64
What are Military Training Routes?
Used by the military to conduct low altitude, high speed training. Routes above 1,500' AGL developed to be flown IFR Routes 1,500' and below are developed to be flown VFR
65
What is a TRSA?
Airspaces surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR AC. Depicted on charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line
66
What are ADIZ and where are they located?
Air Defense Identification Zone Domestic - Within US along international boundaries Coastal - Over US Coastal Waters Distance Early Warning ID Zone - Over coastal waters of Alaska Land Based ADIZ - US Metro Areas
67
Requirements to ops into, across, or within ADIZ
Flight Plan Two Way Radio Transponder Position Reports - For DVFR, must provide 15 minutes prior to entry AC position tolerances Land based ADIZ - activated and deactivated over US metro areas as needed. Report landing or leaving
68
When is immediate notification of NTSB required?
AC accident Flight control system malfunction Crew unable to perform normal duties Inflight fire AC collision inflight Property damage, other than AC, estimated to exceed $25K Overdue AC (believed to be an accident) Release of all or portion of prop blade from AC Complete loss of info from more than 50% EFIS cockpit display
69
"Aircraft Incident"
An occurrence other than accident associated with the AC which could affect safety of ops
70
"Aircraft Accident"
Occurrence associated with operations of AC in which death, serious injury, or substantial damage occurs
71
"Serious injury"
Any injury that: Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, within 7 days from date of injury Results in fracture of bone (except fingers, nose, and toes) Causes severe hemorrages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage Involves internal organ, Involves 2nd or 3rd degree burns affecting more than 5% of body
72
"Substantial Damage"
Damage that substantially affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the AC Engine failure or damage
73
When an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report to the NTSB be filed?
Within 10 days after an accident; When, after 7 days, an overdue AC is still missing
74
How to determine traffic pattern at airport without operating control tower?
At airport with full/part time UNICOM, airport advisory may be obtained Many airports have automated advisories on automated UNICOM system Segmented circle may be available
75
Recommended entry and departure procedures at airports without CT?
Enter in level flight abeam midpoint of runway at pattern altitude When departing, continue straight out or exit with a 45 degree turn beyond the departure end of the runway (left in LH pattern, right in RH pattern)
76
What comms procedures are recommended when departing Class D airspace?
Stay on frequency to receive traffic info
77
NOTAM
Time critical aeronautical info that could affect a pilot's decision to fly. Includes runway closures, changes to status of NAVAIDS, ILS's, FICON reports, etc.
78
Order of contact for arriving aircraft
ATIS Approach Control Control Tower Ground Control
79
Order of contact for departing aircraft
``` ATIS Clearance delivery Ground Control Control Tower Departure Control ```
80
NOTAM Categories
(D) NOTAM - Info that requires wide dissemination. Pertains to en route NAVAIDS, civil airports, procedures, etc FDC NOTAM - Regulatory. IFR Charts, procedures, & airspace usage Pointer NOTAM - Points out another NOTAM SAA NOTAM - Special Activity Airspace outside published times Military NOTAM
81
Where can NOTAMS be obtained?
``` FSS Notice to Airman Publication DUATs vendors FAA website FIS-B ```
82
"DVFR"
Defense VFR VFR flights operating in proximity of ADIZ Must file flight plan
83
Minimum safe altitude over congested area
1000' above tallest obstacle in 2000' radius