CH 9: Personnel Policies in the Workplace Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

A nurse manager is hiring new staff and wants to ensure compliance with federal employment laws. Which of the following actions best demonstrates adherence to these regulations?

A. Asking candidates about their marital status during the interview
B. Requiring a medical examination before offering a job
C. Ensuring hiring decisions are based on job qualifications and nondiscriminatory criteria
D. Giving preference to applicants with specific religious beliefs

A

C. Ensuring hiring decisions are based on job qualifications and nondiscriminatory criteria

Rationale: Federal employment laws, such as the Civil Rights Act and the Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) laws, prohibit discrimination based on race, religion, gender, or disability. Hiring must be based solely on job qualifications to reduce liability and ensure fair employment practices.

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2
Q

A nurse manager is reviewing federal employment laws to ensure compliance when hiring new staff. Which of the following laws impact employment in healthcare? (SATA)

A. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
C. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
E. Nurse Practice Act (NPA)

A

A. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
C. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Rationale: The ADA protects individuals with disabilities from employment discrimination. The FLSA regulates minimum wage and overtime pay. The FMLA provides eligible employees with job-protected leave for medical and family reasons. OSHA ensures workplace safety. The NPA, while important in nursing, primarily regulates nursing practice rather than employment law.

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3
Q

A hospital is updating its hiring policies to align with federal and state employment regulations. Which of the following policies would put the hospital at risk for liability?

A. Requiring background checks for all applicants
B. Mandating equal pay for employees in the same role, regardless of gender
C. Implementing a policy that requires nurses over 50 to undergo annual physical exams
D. Including an anti-discrimination statement in all job postings

A

C. Implementing a policy that requires nurses over 50 to undergo annual physical exams

Rationale: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits discrimination against individuals 40 and older. Requiring only older employees to have physical exams is discriminatory and could lead to legal consequences.

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4
Q

A nurse leader is developing training for hiring managers on reducing liability in the hiring process. Which of the following should be included? (SATA)

A. Avoid asking candidates about age, race, or marital status
B. Ensure job descriptions clearly outline essential job functions
C. Offer lower wages to employees with disabilities to accommodate reduced productivity
D. Follow standardized interview questions for all candidates
E. Require candidates to disclose past medical conditions during pre-employment screening

A

A. Avoid asking candidates about age, race, or marital status
B. Ensure job descriptions clearly outline essential job functions
D. Follow standardized interview questions for all candidates

Rationale: Avoiding personal questions prevents potential discrimination claims. Clear job descriptions help ensure hiring decisions are based on qualifications. Standardized interviews promote fairness and consistency. Offering lower wages due to disability violates the ADA, and requiring medical disclosures before employment violates privacy laws.

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5
Q

A newly promoted nurse manager is reviewing employment laws to prevent workplace discrimination. Which law specifically protects employees from discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?

A. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
B. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
C. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
D. Civil Rights Act, Title VII

A

D. Civil Rights Act, Title VII

Rationale: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. It applies to hiring, promotions, compensation, and workplace conditions.

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6
Q

A nurse manager is hiring new nursing staff. Which federal law prohibits the manager from making hiring decisions based on a candidate’s race or national origin?

A. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
B. Equal Pay Act of 1963 (EPA)
C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

A

A. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

Rationale: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin in hiring, promotion, and employment practices.

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7
Q

A nurse leader is developing a presentation on employment laws. Which of the following federal laws protect employees from discrimination in the workplace? (SATA)

A. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
B. Equal Pay Act of 1963 (EPA)
C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
E. The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

A

A. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
B. Equal Pay Act of 1963 (EPA)
C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

Rationale: Title VII, the EPA, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, and the ADA all protect employees from various forms of workplace discrimination. The FMLA, while important, pertains to medical leave rather than discrimination.

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8
Q

A 45-year-old registered nurse applies for a management position but is denied the role despite having the necessary qualifications. The hospital later hires a younger, less experienced candidate. Which law protects the nurse from age-based employment discrimination?

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Equal Pay Act of 1963 (EPA)

A

C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

Rationale: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) protects individuals 40 years and older from workplace discrimination based on age.

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9
Q

A nurse who has a disability is applying for a position at a private hospital. Which of the following laws provide protection against discrimination in the hiring process? (SATA)

A. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B. Sections 501 & 505 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973
C. The Equal Pay Act of 1963
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
E. The Civil Rights Act of 1991

A

A. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B. Sections 501 & 505 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973

Rationale: Title I of the ADA protects qualified individuals with disabilities from discrimination in the private sector and state/local governments. Sections 501 & 505 of the Rehabilitation Act provide similar protections for individuals with disabilities working in the federal government.

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10
Q

A nurse discovers that a male coworker in the same position, with the same experience and qualifications, is earning a higher salary. Which federal law addresses this type of wage discrimination?

A. The Equal Pay Act of 1963
B. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

A

A. The Equal Pay Act of 1963

Rationale: The Equal Pay Act of 1963 mandates equal pay for equal work, regardless of sex, to prevent wage discrimination based on gender.

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11
Q

A hospital is found guilty of employment discrimination and ordered to compensate the affected employees. Which law allows employees to seek monetary damages in such cases? (SATA)

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B. The Equal Pay Act of 1963
C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
E. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

A

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
E. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

Rationale: The Civil Rights Act of 1991 provides monetary damages for employment discrimination. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act also protects against workplace discrimination and allows for legal recourse.

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12
Q

A nurse with a disability applies for a job at a local clinic. The hiring manager is concerned about accommodations and refuses to consider the application. Which law has the clinic potentially violated?

A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
C. The Equal Pay Act of 1963
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

A

B. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

Rationale: Title I of the ADA prohibits discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities in hiring and employment decisions. Employers must provide reasonable accommodations unless doing so would impose an undue hardship.

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13
Q

A hospital’s policy states that employees over the age of 50 must undergo annual physical exams as part of continued employment. Which federal law could this policy violate?

A. The Equal Pay Act of 1963
B. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
D. Sections 501 & 505 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973

A

C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

Rationale: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) protects employees 40 and older from discrimination, including unnecessary medical exams based solely on age.

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14
Q

A newly hired nurse attends a union orientation session. The nurse asks about the primary purpose of a nurses’ union. Which of the following responses by the union representative is most appropriate?

A. “The union exists to protect the hospital from unnecessary lawsuits and financial losses.”

B. “The union negotiates contracts that cover wages, benefits, and working conditions for its members.”

C. “The union primarily ensures that nurses follow all hospital policies and procedures without question.”

D. “The union serves as a mediator between nurses and patients to improve patient satisfaction scores.”

A

B. “The union negotiates contracts that cover wages, benefits, and working conditions for its members.”

Rationale: A nurses’ union represents its members in negotiations related to wages, benefits, and working conditions. It also advocates for fair treatment, job security, and safe working environments.

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15
Q

A nurse manager is educating newly hired nurses about union membership. Which of the following are potential benefits of joining a nursing union? (SATA)

A. Collective bargaining for fair wages and benefits
B. Protection from unfair disciplinary actions
C. Guaranteed exemption from mandatory overtime
D. Legal representation in employment disputes
E. The ability to ignore hospital policies without consequence

A

A. Collective bargaining for fair wages and benefits
B. Protection from unfair disciplinary actions
D. Legal representation in employment disputes

Rationale: Nursing unions advocate for fair wages, job security, and improved working conditions through collective bargaining. They also provide protection from unfair disciplinary actions and may offer legal support in employment disputes. However, union membership does not guarantee exemption from mandatory overtime unless stipulated in a contract, and nurses must still adhere to hospital policies.

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16
Q

A hospital with a unionized nursing staff is negotiating a new contract. Which of the following topics would most likely be addressed in the collective bargaining agreement?

A. Patient-to-nurse staffing ratios
B. State licensure renewal requirements
C. National nursing certification standards
D. Medical treatment protocols for patient care

A

A. Patient-to-nurse staffing ratios

Rationale: Unions negotiate collective bargaining agreements that often include staffing ratios, wages, benefits, and workplace conditions. State licensure, national certification, and patient care protocols are typically regulated by professional organizations and licensing boards.

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17
Q

A hospital hires a group of new nurses, some of whom are hesitant about joining the nurses’ union. What rights do these nurses have regarding union membership? (SATA)

A. They can choose whether or not to join the union.

B. They can still receive union-negotiated benefits even if they do not join.

C. They can be fired for refusing to join the union.

D. They must pay union dues if they work in a unionized hospital with a closed-shop agreement.

E. They can negotiate their own individual contract separate from the union agreement.

A

A. They can choose whether or not to join the union.
B. They can still receive union-negotiated benefits even if they do not join.
D. They must pay union dues if they work in a unionized hospital with a closed-shop agreement.

Rationale: Nurses have the right to decide whether to join a union. Even non-union members benefit from collective bargaining agreements. Some hospitals have closed-shop agreements requiring all employees to pay union dues. However, nurses cannot be fired for refusing to join, and individual contract negotiation is generally not permitted within a unionized setting.

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18
Q

A nurse is concerned about a workplace safety issue and wants to file a grievance. The nurse’s hospital is unionized. What is the first action the nurse should take?

A. Contact the hospital’s legal team for representation
B. File a formal complaint with the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB)
C. Discuss the concern with the union representative
D. Refuse to work until the issue is resolved

A

C. Discuss the concern with the union representative

Rationale: In a unionized hospital, nurses should first bring workplace concerns to their union representative, who can guide them through the grievance process. Filing a complaint with the NLRB or taking legal action comes later if necessary.

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19
Q

A hospital administrator is planning an orientation session for newly hired nurses in a unionized hospital. Which of the following topics should be included in the session?

A. The hospital’s policies on non-compete agreements
B. The benefits and contract rights associated with union membership
C. The legal process for terminating union membership immediately after hiring
D. The role of the hospital in selecting union representatives

A

B. The benefits and contract rights associated with union membership

Rationale: Newly hired nurses in a unionized hospital receive information on union benefits, contract terms, and their rights as employees. The hospital does not control union representation or require non-compete agreements in relation to union membership.

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20
Q

A newly hired nurse experiences repeated snide comments and is frequently ignored by senior nurses on the unit. This is an example of which type of workplace violence?

A. Vertical incivility
B. Horizontal incivility
C. Non-work-related violence
D. Constructive feedback

A

B. Horizontal incivility

Rationale: Horizontal incivility, also known as lateral violence, involves hostile or aggressive behaviors among colleagues at the same professional level, including bullying, verbal abuse, and exclusion.

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21
Q

A nurse manager is educating staff on recognizing workplace violence. Which of the following are considered examples of vertical violence? (SATA)

A. A charge nurse withholding important patient care information from a new nurse

B. A nurse manager yelling at a staff nurse in front of colleagues

C. Two staff nurses spreading false rumors about a coworker

D. A nursing assistant being repeatedly ignored by the registered nurse in charge

E. A senior nurse making sarcastic remarks about a new graduate nurse’s skills

A

A. A charge nurse withholding important patient care information from a new nurse
B. A nurse manager yelling at a staff nurse in front of colleagues
D. A nursing assistant being repeatedly ignored by the registered nurse in charge
E. A senior nurse making sarcastic remarks about a new graduate nurse’s skills

Rationale: Vertical violence occurs between individuals at different hierarchical levels, such as a nurse manager intimidating a staff nurse, a senior nurse belittling a junior nurse, or an RN ignoring or withholding information from a subordinate. Horizontal violence, on the other hand, occurs among colleagues of the same rank, such as coworkers spreading rumors.

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22
Q

A nurse manager witnesses a nurse making sarcastic remarks toward a new graduate nurse, stating, “You’ll never survive in this unit with skills like that.” What is the best initial response by the nurse manager?

A. Address the comment immediately and remind the nurse that lateral violence is unacceptable.
B. Ignore the behavior, as new nurses must develop resilience in the workplace.
C. Document the behavior and report it to human resources without speaking to the staff involved.
D. Ask the new nurse to work with a different preceptor to avoid further issues.

A

A. Address the comment immediately and remind the nurse that lateral violence is unacceptable.

Rationale: It is crucial for leadership to intervene immediately when workplace violence occurs. Addressing inappropriate behavior and setting expectations for a respectful work environment helps prevent ongoing incivility and supports a culture of safety.

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23
Q

A hospital is implementing strategies to prevent workplace violence. Which of the following interventions should be included? (SATA)

A. Establishing a zero-tolerance policy for workplace violence
B. Providing staff education on recognizing and reporting incivility
C. Encouraging staff to ignore minor incidents to avoid confrontation
D. Implementing a confidential reporting system for workplace violence incidents
E. Holding all staff accountable, regardless of position, for acts of incivility

A

A. Establishing a zero-tolerance policy for workplace violence
B. Providing staff education on recognizing and reporting incivility
D. Implementing a confidential reporting system for workplace violence incidents
E. Holding all staff accountable, regardless of position, for acts of incivility

Rationale: A zero-tolerance policy, staff education, a confidential reporting system, and ensuring accountability for all employees help create a safer and more professional work environment. Ignoring minor incidents allows the behavior to escalate.

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24
Q

A nurse reports to the manager that a physician often makes belittling remarks and intentionally ignores their patient care suggestions. This behavior is interfering with professional performance. What type of workplace violence does this scenario describe?

A. Horizontal incivility
B. Vertical incivility
C. Peer conflict
D. Constructive criticism

A

B. Vertical incivility

Rationale: Vertical incivility occurs between individuals at different hierarchical levels, such as when a physician exhibits hostile or dismissive behavior toward a nurse, which impacts professional performance.

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25
A nurse is experiencing persistent verbal abuse and threats from a coworker but is afraid to report it. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Confront the coworker privately and demand that the behavior stop. B. Document the incidents and report them to the nurse manager or human resources. C. Ignore the behavior to avoid escalating the situation. D. Request a transfer to a different unit to avoid further confrontation.
B. Document the incidents and report them to the nurse manager or human resources. Rationale: Workplace violence should be reported through the appropriate channels. Documentation provides evidence of the behavior, and reporting ensures the issue is addressed according to institutional policies.
26
A hospital administrator is reviewing workplace violence prevention strategies. Which action is most effective in preventing workplace bullying and incivility? A. Requiring all employees to sign a code of conduct agreement upon hiring B. Implementing a conflict resolution course only for new employees C. Allowing employees to address workplace violence issues informally among themselves D. Avoiding formal policies to encourage a more relaxed work culture
A. Requiring all employees to sign a code of conduct agreement upon hiring Rationale: A code of conduct sets clear expectations for professional behavior and holds employees accountable for workplace violence and incivility. While conflict resolution courses can be helpful, they should be available to all employees, not just new hires.
27
A nurse reports to the unit manager that a coworker has been making repeated inappropriate sexual remarks. The unit manager states, “That’s just how they joke around; don’t take it so seriously.” What is the best action for the nurse to take next? A. Confront the coworker directly and demand that they stop. B. Accept the manager’s response and try to ignore the behavior. C. Document the incidents and report the harassment to human resources. D. Ask another coworker if they have experienced similar behavior.
C. Document the incidents and report the harassment to human resources. Rationale: Sexual harassment violates Title VII laws, and organizations are required to have reporting policies. If a supervisor dismisses concerns, the next step is to document the incidents and escalate the report to human resources.
28
A nurse educator is providing a training session on sexual harassment in the workplace. Which of the following behaviors constitute sexual harassment? (SATA) A. A staff member making repeated sexual jokes directed at a coworker B. A nurse receiving unwanted physical contact from a colleague C. A nurse being ignored by their manager after a disagreement over scheduling D. A patient making repeated sexually explicit comments toward a nurse E. A colleague asking another nurse on a date in a professional manner once
A. A staff member making repeated sexual jokes directed at a coworker B. A nurse receiving unwanted physical contact from a colleague D. A patient making repeated sexually explicit comments toward a nurse Rationale: Sexual harassment includes unwelcome sexual jokes, unwanted physical contact, and repeated sexually explicit comments. Ignoring someone after a disagreement is not sexual harassment, and asking a colleague on a date in a respectful, non-repetitive manner is not considered harassment.
29
A nurse manager is addressing a staff complaint regarding sexual harassment. Which of the following is the best approach to handling the situation? A. Conduct an immediate, confidential investigation following hospital policy. B. Wait until multiple employees report similar incidents before taking action. C. Discuss the concern with the accused employee before reporting it. D. Advise the employee to handle the situation personally before escalating the issue.
A. Conduct an immediate, confidential investigation following hospital policy. Rationale: Employers are required to take all sexual harassment complaints seriously and conduct investigations following institutional policies. Delaying action, dismissing concerns, or handling the issue informally can lead to legal liability.
30
A nurse overhears a coworker making repeated sexually suggestive comments to another nurse, who appears visibly uncomfortable but does not report the behavior. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Ignore the situation since the targeted nurse has not complained. B. Confront the coworker privately and warn them about their behavior. C. Report the incident to the nurse manager or human resources. D. Ask the targeted nurse if they plan to report the incident.
C. Report the incident to the nurse manager or human resources. Rationale: It is everyone’s responsibility to recognize and report sexual harassment. Even if the victim does not come forward, bystanders should report inappropriate behavior to ensure a safe workplace.
31
A hospital’s human resources department is revising its sexual harassment policy. Which of the following elements should be included in the policy? (SATA) A. A clear definition of sexual harassment B. A mandatory reporting system for all employees C. A confidentiality clause for those who report harassment D. A requirement for employees to handle minor incidents informally E. A policy prohibiting retaliation against employees who report harassment
A. A clear definition of sexual harassment B. A mandatory reporting system for all employees C. A confidentiality clause for those who report harassment E. A policy prohibiting retaliation against employees who report harassment Rationale: An effective sexual harassment policy includes a clear definition, a structured reporting system, confidentiality protections, and a non-retaliation policy. Handling issues informally is not appropriate, as it can deter employees from reporting serious concerns.
32
A nurse is caring for a patient who is becoming increasingly agitated. Which action by the nurse is most effective in preventing an escalation to violence? A. Firmly telling the patient to sit down and be quiet B. Moving in closer to show concern and authority C. Speaking calmly and acknowledging the patient’s frustration D. Turning away from the patient to call security immediately
C. Speaking calmly and acknowledging the patient’s frustration Rationale: Acknowledging the patient’s emotions with a calm and caring attitude helps de-escalate anger. Matching threats, giving orders, or physically intimidating the patient may escalate the situation.
33
A nurse is educating staff on strategies to prevent workplace violence. Which of the following should be included in the teaching? (SATA) A. Maintain a calm, caring attitude when interacting with aggressive individuals B. Avoid rapid movements or invading personal space C. Keep an open exit path at all times D. Speak in a louder tone to establish authority E. Evaluate the situation for potential violence before engaging
A. Maintain a calm, caring attitude when interacting with aggressive individuals B. Avoid rapid movements or invading personal space C. Keep an open exit path at all times E. Evaluate the situation for potential violence before engaging Rationale: Strategies to prevent workplace violence include staying calm, avoiding aggressive movements, ensuring an open exit path, and assessing for potential violence. Raising one’s voice can be perceived as aggressive and may escalate the situation.
34
A nurse enters a patient’s room and notices the patient is clenching their fists and breathing heavily. What is the best immediate action for the nurse? A. Stand directly in front of the patient to assert presence B. Move closer to provide physical reassurance C. Acknowledge the patient’s distress and maintain a calm demeanor D. Immediately leave the room without speaking
C. Acknowledge the patient’s distress and maintain a calm demeanor Rationale: Recognizing signs of agitation early and responding with a calm, caring attitude can help prevent escalation. Standing directly in front, moving closer, or abruptly leaving may increase tension.
35
A visitor in the emergency department is becoming aggressive and yelling at the receptionist. What should the charge nurse do first? A. Call hospital security to remove the visitor immediately B. Approach the visitor calmly and acknowledge their frustration C. Give the visitor direct orders to stop yelling D. Walk away to avoid escalating the situation
B. Approach the visitor calmly and acknowledge their frustration Rationale: Acknowledging emotions and responding with a calm demeanor can help de-escalate a situation before it becomes violent. Immediately calling security or giving orders may provoke further aggression.
36
A nurse is preparing to care for a patient with a history of violent behavior. Which actions should the nurse take to promote safety? (SATA) A. Always ensure an open path for exiting the room B. Avoid being alone with the patient whenever possible C. Use a firm tone to establish control over the situation D. Be alert and vigilant throughout the encounter E. Avoid any behavior that may be perceived as aggressive
A. Always ensure an open path for exiting the room B. Avoid being alone with the patient whenever possible D. Be alert and vigilant throughout the encounter E. Avoid any behavior that may be perceived as aggressive Rationale: Safety measures include maintaining an exit route, avoiding isolation with potentially violent individuals, staying alert, and avoiding aggressive body language. A firm tone can sometimes escalate aggression rather than diffuse it.
37
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of aggression. The patient suddenly becomes verbally abusive and threatens to hit the nurse. What is the priority nursing action? A. Step back, assess the situation, and ensure a clear exit path B. Give the patient firm commands to stop their behavior C. Attempt to physically restrain the patient before they act D. Ignore the behavior and continue providing care
A. Step back, assess the situation, and ensure a clear exit path Rationale: The priority is to maintain safety by ensuring an exit route and assessing the risk of violence. Engaging in commands, physical restraint, or ignoring the behavior could escalate the situation.
38
Which of the following statements by a nurse demonstrates appropriate de-escalation techniques when dealing with an aggressive patient? A. “You need to stop this behavior right now, or I will call security.” B. “I see that you’re frustrated. Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.” C. “I don’t have time for this; you need to calm down immediately.” D. “If you don’t stop yelling, I won’t be able to help you.”
B. “I see that you’re frustrated. Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.” Rationale: Acknowledging the patient’s emotions and offering to listen helps diffuse anger. Threatening security, being dismissive, or setting conditional help can escalate aggression.
39
A nurse is training new staff on assessing for potential workplace violence. Which of the following behaviors may indicate an increased risk for violence? (SATA) A. Clenched fists or a rigid posture B. Sudden changes in speech volume C. Avoiding eye contact and speaking softly D. Pacing or restlessness E. Ignoring healthcare staff when addressed
A. Clenched fists or a rigid posture B. Sudden changes in speech volume D. Pacing or restlessness Rationale: Signs of potential violence include clenched fists, tense posture, sudden loud speech, and restlessness. Avoiding eye contact or speaking softly is not necessarily an indicator of aggression.
40
During a patient encounter, a nurse notices the patient blocking the only exit in the room while becoming verbally aggressive. What is the priority nursing action? A. Attempt to physically move the patient away from the door B. Yell for security and attempt to leave the room immediately C. Call for help while maintaining a calm demeanor D. Continue to engage with the patient without showing concern
C. Call for help while maintaining a calm demeanor Rationale: The priority is to seek assistance while maintaining a non-threatening approach. Physical intervention or yelling could escalate violence, and ignoring the situation puts the nurse at risk.
41
A nurse manager notices increasing tension between two staff nurses regarding patient assignments. What is the best initial action by the nurse manager? A. Reassign one of the nurses to a different unit to eliminate the conflict B. Meet with both nurses separately to hear their concerns C. Gather both nurses for an open discussion about the conflict D. Ignore the issue and allow them to resolve it independently
C. Gather both nurses for an open discussion about the conflict Rationale: Open and honest communication is essential in conflict resolution. Facilitating a discussion helps determine the cause of the conflict and promotes collaboration.
42
A nurse manager is addressing workplace conflict among staff. Which of the following actions should be taken to manage the conflict effectively? (SATA) A. Determine the basis of the conflict B. Encourage assertive dialogue between the involved parties C. Avoid addressing the issue until it escalates further D. Analyze the source of the conflict, such as shift issues or personal disputes E. Implement a collaborative strategy to resolve the conflict
A. Determine the basis of the conflict B. Encourage assertive dialogue between the involved parties D. Analyze the source of the conflict, such as shift issues or personal disputes E. Implement a collaborative strategy to resolve the conflict Rationale: Effective conflict management involves identifying the root cause, promoting open communication, analyzing contributing factors, and implementing collaboration. Ignoring the issue allows it to worsen.
43
A charge nurse witnesses a conflict between two staff members over differences in work expectations. What is the priority intervention? A. Address the conflict in a private, neutral setting B. Immediately discipline both staff members C. Allow them to work through the issue without intervention D. Take sides with the nurse who is more experienced
A. Address the conflict in a private, neutral setting Rationale: Addressing conflict in a neutral, private setting helps de-escalate tension and facilitates open dialogue. Public discipline or favoritism can worsen the situation.
44
A new nurse reports feeling targeted by a senior nurse who frequently belittles their decisions. What should the nurse manager do first? A. Speak privately with the senior nurse to gather information B. Immediately reassign the new nurse to avoid further issues C. Ask other staff if they have witnessed similar behaviors D. Document the complaint and take no further action
A. Speak privately with the senior nurse to gather information Rationale: Gathering information from all parties involved helps determine the root of the conflict before taking further action. Avoiding the issue or making assumptions may not resolve the problem.
45
A nurse manager is evaluating a conflict resolution strategy. Which of the following indicate that the conflict has been effectively managed? (SATA) A. The involved staff members demonstrate improved communication B. One nurse decides to transfer to another unit to avoid further issues C. The same conflict does not recur between the same individuals D. The workplace environment remains professional and cooperative E. The issue remains unresolved, but the staff are avoiding each other
A. The involved staff members demonstrate improved communication C. The same conflict does not recur between the same individuals D. The workplace environment remains professional and cooperative Rationale: Effective conflict resolution leads to improved communication, prevention of recurrence, and a professional work environment. Avoidance or resignation suggests the conflict remains unresolved.
46
A nurse manager is assisting two nurses in resolving an ongoing scheduling dispute. Which conflict resolution strategy is most effective? A. Encouraging both nurses to express their concerns openly B. Assigning schedule changes without discussing with the staff C. Directing one nurse to make sacrifices for the other D. Ignoring the issue to prevent further disagreements
A. Encouraging both nurses to express their concerns openly Rationale: Open communication is key to conflict resolution. It allows both parties to understand each other’s concerns and work toward a fair solution.
47
A nurse complains that their colleague is intentionally withholding important patient information during shift handoff. What is the best approach for the nurse manager to take? A. Confront the accused nurse in front of the team to address the behavior B. Schedule a meeting with both nurses to discuss the issue C. Document the complaint and monitor for further occurrences without intervention D. Reassign the reporting nurse to a different shift
B. Schedule a meeting with both nurses to discuss the issue Rationale: Addressing the issue directly with both nurses allows for clarification and conflict resolution through open discussion. Public confrontation or avoiding the issue may escalate tensions.
48
A nurse manager is mediating a conflict between a nurse and a physician. Which conflict resolution techniques should the manager use? (SATA) A. Encourage both parties to listen actively to each other’s concerns B. Identify the root cause of the conflict C. Take the physician’s side to maintain professional hierarchy D. Guide both individuals toward a collaborative solution E. Evaluate whether the resolution was effective
A. Encourage both parties to listen actively to each other’s concerns B. Identify the root cause of the conflict D. Guide both individuals toward a collaborative solution E. Evaluate whether the resolution was effective Rationale: Conflict resolution involves listening, identifying the issue, promoting collaboration, and evaluating the outcome. Taking sides undermines fairness and professionalism.
49
During a staff meeting, a nurse manager encourages team members to address workplace conflicts as they arise. What is the primary benefit of this approach? A. It prevents minor conflicts from escalating into workplace violence B. It eliminates all potential for disagreements among staff C. It allows nurses to avoid interacting with those they dislike D. It ensures that management does not have to intervene in conflicts
A. It prevents minor conflicts from escalating into workplace violence Rationale: Addressing conflicts early helps prevent escalation into serious issues such as workplace violence or hostility. It does not eliminate all disagreements but promotes resolution before conflicts worsen.
50
A nurse is involved in a conflict with a coworker and approaches the nurse manager for help. The manager listens actively and encourages the nurse to work collaboratively toward a resolution. Which leadership style is the nurse manager demonstrating? A. Autocratic B. Transformational C. Laissez-faire D. Authoritarian
B. Transformational Rationale: Transformational leadership focuses on collaboration, open communication, and problem-solving to create positive change within a team.
51
A charge nurse suspects that a colleague may be impaired while on duty. What is the priority action? A. Confront the nurse privately and ask if they have been using substances B. Report the suspected impairment to the nursing supervisor immediately C. Ignore the situation unless the nurse makes a critical error D. Encourage the nurse to take a break and rest before continuing work
B. Report the suspected impairment to the nursing supervisor immediately Rationale: Impaired practice poses a significant risk to patient safety. The appropriate action is to report suspicions to the nursing supervisor so that the situation can be properly assessed and managed according to workplace policies.
52
A nurse manager is educating staff about recognizing signs of impaired practice in colleagues. Which of the following behaviors may indicate a nurse is impaired by drugs or alcohol? (SATA) A. Frequent unexplained absences from the unit B. Increased patient complaints about pain management C. Consistently high work performance and punctuality D. Slurred speech and unsteady gait E. Frequent medication errors or missing controlled substances
A. Frequent unexplained absences from the unit B. Increased patient complaints about pain management D. Slurred speech and unsteady gait E. Frequent medication errors or missing controlled substances Rationale: Signs of impairment include frequent absences, poor patient care (e.g., inadequate pain management), physical symptoms such as slurred speech, and medication-related discrepancies. Consistently high performance is not an indication of impairment.
53
A nurse with a history of substance use disorder has successfully completed a rehabilitation program and is returning to work under a monitoring agreement. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse manager? A. Ensure the nurse is closely supervised and not allowed to administer medications B. Encourage staff to be supportive and report any concerns about the nurse’s behavior C. Require the nurse to work only night shifts to minimize patient interaction D. Allow the nurse to return without restrictions, treating them like any other staff member
B. Encourage staff to be supportive and report any concerns about the nurse’s behavior Rationale: A supportive work environment and ongoing monitoring are essential for nurses returning from substance use treatment. Staff should be encouraged to report concerns while maintaining professionalism and respect. Strict supervision or restrictions may be unnecessary unless mandated by policy.
54
A nurse manager notices that a staff nurse has been increasingly irritable with patients and colleagues, frequently absent on Mondays and Fridays, and has made multiple medication errors. What is the best initial action by the nurse manager? A. Confront the nurse directly and demand an explanation B. Report the behavior to human resources for disciplinary action C. Document the observations and report them to the appropriate supervisor D. Ignore the situation unless a patient is harmed
C. Document the observations and report them to the appropriate supervisor Rationale: Documenting objective observations and reporting them to the appropriate supervisor ensures proper investigation and intervention while maintaining due process and patient safety.
55
A nursing educator is teaching staff about recognizing signs of an impaired nurse. Which of the following behaviors may indicate impairment? (SATA) A. Wearing inappropriate or sloppy clothing B. Increased absenteeism, especially on Mondays and Fridays C. Frequent medication errors D. High energy levels and eagerness to take extra shifts E. Sudden changes in personality, such as irritability or mood swings
A. Wearing inappropriate or sloppy clothing B. Increased absenteeism, especially on Mondays and Fridays C. Frequent medication errors E. Sudden changes in personality, such as irritability or mood swings Rationale: Signs of impairment include unkempt appearance, increased absenteeism, medication errors, and personality changes. A high energy level and eagerness to work extra shifts are not typical signs of impairment.
56
A nurse is suspected of impaired practice due to frequent medication errors and a change in behavior. The nursing supervisor orders a drug test, which confirms substance use. What is the most appropriate next step? A. Immediately terminate the nurse’s employment B. Report the findings to the state board of nursing and follow workplace policy C. Allow the nurse to continue working under strict supervision D. Ignore the test results unless a patient harm event occurs
B. Report the findings to the state board of nursing and follow workplace policy Rationale: The nurse’s impairment must be reported to the appropriate regulatory body and managed according to institutional policy to ensure patient safety and provide the nurse with appropriate support or intervention.
57
Which behavior is most concerning and requires immediate intervention when assessing for an impaired nurse? A. Wearing wrinkled scrubs and looking tired during shifts B. Frequently volunteering to administer controlled substances C. Taking frequent bathroom breaks during a shift D. Calling in sick twice in one month
B. Frequently volunteering to administer controlled substances Rationale: Frequent administration of controlled substances may indicate diversion of medications, which is a key sign of substance use impairment.
58
A nurse who was reported for impaired practice is returning to work after completing a treatment program. Which interventions are appropriate to ensure a safe and supportive transition? (SATA) A. Assigning the nurse a mentor or supervisor for support B. Prohibiting the nurse from administering controlled substances indefinitely C. Encouraging open communication and monitoring for any concerning behavior D. Enforcing a structured return-to-work agreement per workplace policy E. Allowing the nurse to resume full responsibilities immediately with no monitoring
A. Assigning the nurse a mentor or supervisor for support C. Encouraging open communication and monitoring for any concerning behavior D. Enforcing a structured return-to-work agreement per workplace policy Rationale: A structured return-to-work plan, mentorship, and ongoing monitoring help support the nurse while ensuring patient safety. A complete restriction from administering medications may not be necessary unless mandated by policy.
59
Which of the following is a legal and ethical obligation of a nurse who suspects a colleague is impaired while on duty? A. Ignore the issue unless patient harm occurs B. Address the nurse privately and tell them to take a break C. Confront the nurse in front of other staff to discourage impairment D. Immediately report concerns to the appropriate supervisor
D. Immediately report concerns to the appropriate supervisor Rationale: Nurses have a legal and ethical duty to report impaired colleagues to protect patient safety and ensure appropriate intervention.
60
Which job performance issues might indicate an impaired nurse? (SATA) A. Increased medication errors B. Frequent unexplained absences from the unit C. Unsteady gait and slurred speech during shifts D. Refusing to take breaks during long shifts E. Multiple instances of improper reporting of time off
A. Increased medication errors B. Frequent unexplained absences from the unit C. Unsteady gait and slurred speech during shifts E. Multiple instances of improper reporting of time off Rationale: Impairment often manifests as medication errors, absenteeism, physical symptoms, and inconsistent attendance patterns. Refusing to take breaks is not necessarily a sign of impairment.
61
A nurse colleague confides that they are struggling with addiction but have not yet been reported. What is the most appropriate response? A. Encourage the nurse to self-report to the employer or state board of nursing B. Keep the information confidential unless the nurse makes an error C. Alert security to escort the nurse out of the building immediately D. Allow the nurse to work but monitor their behavior closely
A. Encourage the nurse to self-report to the employer or state board of nursing Rationale: Self-reporting allows the nurse to seek appropriate support and intervention while complying with legal and ethical obligations.
62
A hospital implements a policy requiring random drug testing for nurses. A nurse expresses concern about this policy. What is the best explanation for why this policy exists? A. “It ensures nurses are disciplined if they use substances outside of work.” B. “It is meant to identify impaired nurses before they make critical errors.” C. “It is a hospital rule, but it is unlikely that anyone will actually be tested.” D. “It is designed to remove all nurses with a history of substance use.”
B. “It is meant to identify impaired nurses before they make critical errors.” Rationale: Random drug testing is a proactive measure to identify and address impairment before patient safety is compromised.
63
A nurse who was previously reported for impaired practice has been compliant with their monitoring agreement. The nurse requests to administer controlled substances again. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse manager? A. Deny the request permanently, as impaired nurses should not handle controlled substances B. Allow the nurse to administer medications without restrictions C. Review the nurse’s monitoring agreement and consult with the professional assistance program before making a decision D. Immediately reinstate the nurse’s full medication administration privileges
C. Review the nurse’s monitoring agreement and consult with the professional assistance program before making a decision Rationale: Each case should be handled individually based on monitoring agreements and institutional policies. Consulting the appropriate resources ensures compliance and patient safety.
64
A nurse suspects that a colleague may be impaired while working. According to the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics, what is the nurse’s primary duty in this situation? A. Confront the colleague privately and suggest they seek help B. Report the suspicion to the immediate supervisor and follow institutional procedures C. Ignore the suspicion unless the colleague makes a serious error D. Continue monitoring the colleague until a serious incident occurs
B. Report the suspicion to the immediate supervisor and follow institutional procedures Rationale: The nurse’s primary duty is to protect patients by reporting the suspicion of impairment to the immediate supervisor and following the institution’s chain of command. This ensures patient safety and addresses the impaired individual’s need for help.
65
A nurse suspects that a colleague is impaired and not performing safely. What is the most appropriate action according to the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics? A. Report the situation directly to the state board of nursing without involving anyone else B. Inform the impaired nurse that they are under suspicion C. Notify the supervisor and follow the institution’s chain of command for reporting D. Wait for the nurse to admit their impairment before taking action
C. Notify the supervisor and follow the institution’s chain of command for reporting Rationale: The nurse should follow institutional procedures and the chain of command to ensure that the issue is handled appropriately and that patient safety is not compromised.
66
The nurse suspects that a coworker is impaired and may pose a risk to patient safety. Which of the following best describes the role of the nurse in this situation, as outlined by the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics? A. The nurse should prioritize protecting the impaired colleague’s reputation and avoid reporting the suspicion B. The nurse should only report the impaired colleague if a patient is harmed C. The nurse must confront the impaired colleague and encourage them to seek treatment D. The nurse must act to protect patients and ensure the impaired nurse gets the help they need
D. The nurse must act to protect patients and ensure the impaired nurse gets the help they need Rationale: The nurse’s primary responsibility is to protect patient safety, while also ensuring that the impaired nurse receives the assistance necessary to regain optimal function.
67
Which of the following actions should a nurse take if they suspect a colleague may be impaired, according to the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics? (SATA) A. Immediately report the colleague to the board of nursing B. Follow the institution’s procedures and chain of command for reporting C. Seek assistance from an advocacy program for impaired nurses D. Avoid making any assumptions and wait until the impaired nurse makes an error E. Notify the immediate supervisor of the suspicion
B. Follow the institution’s procedures and chain of command for reporting C. Seek assistance from an advocacy program for impaired nurses E. Notify the immediate supervisor of the suspicion Rationale: The nurse should follow institutional procedures, notify the supervisor, and utilize available advocacy programs for impaired nurses to ensure proper action is taken.
68
A nurse suspects that a coworker is impaired and may pose a risk to patient safety. According to the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics, which of the following is most likely to help the impaired nurse overcome their addiction? A. Reporting the impairment immediately to the supervisor B. Allowing the nurse to continue working but limiting patient care C. Providing information about the consequences of impairment without offering support D. Directing the nurse to a professional advocacy program for impaired nurses
D. Directing the nurse to a professional advocacy program for impaired nurses Rationale: A professional advocacy program for impaired nurses can provide the necessary support to help the nurse overcome addiction and return to safe practice.
69
What is the primary goal of Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs)? A. To provide long-term counseling for all personal issues B. To offer short-term assistance to help employees return to a more functional state C. To provide financial assistance to employees with personal issues D. To monitor employee behavior and performance
B. To offer short-term assistance to help employees return to a more functional state Rationale: EAPs aim to provide short-term counseling to help employees address personal issues that may affect work performance and assist them in returning to a more functional state.
70
Which of the following is true regarding Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs)? A. They are primarily focused on providing long-term psychiatric treatment B. Employees are required to disclose their personal issues to their employer C. EAPs protect the employee’s privacy through written HR protocols D. EAPs are available only to employees with drug or alcohol problems
C. EAPs protect the employee’s privacy through written HR protocols Rationale: EAPs are confidential and designed to protect the privacy of the employee, allowing them to receive counseling without fear of disclosure to their employer.
71
A nurse has been exhibiting performance issues, and a manager suspects personal problems may be affecting work. The nurse is offered an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) referral. What is the most appropriate action by the manager? A. Ignore the issue and monitor the nurse’s behavior further B. Encourage the nurse to self-refer to the EAP for counseling C. Require the nurse to disclose personal issues to HR D. Assign the nurse to a different unit without offering any support
B. Encourage the nurse to self-refer to the EAP for counseling Rationale: Encouraging self-referral to an EAP is the best course of action, as it allows the nurse to seek counseling confidentially while addressing personal issues that may affect their work.
72
Which of the following best describes the nature of counseling offered through Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs)? A. Counseling is long-term, typically lasting several months to a year B. Counseling is mandated by the employer for all employees every year C. Counseling is only available for substance abuse-related issues D. Counseling is confidential and short-term, focused on addressing specific personal or work-related issues
D. Counseling is confidential and short-term, focused on addressing specific personal or work-related issues Rationale: EAPs offer confidential, short-term counseling to help employees address specific issues affecting their work performance or personal life.
73
Which of the following is a common reason that an employee might be referred to an Employee Assistance Program (EAP)? A. Lack of work performance due to personal or professional issues B. General dissatisfaction with the employer’s policies C. Desire for a promotion or salary increase D. Issues related to job duties and role responsibilities
A. Lack of work performance due to personal or professional issues Rationale: Employees are often referred to EAPs when their work performance is affected by personal or professional problems, such as family issues, stress, or substance abuse.
74
Which of the following are true statements about Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs)? (SATA) A. They provide long-term treatment for chronic mental health disorders B. They offer confidential counseling to employees struggling with personal or work-related issues C. Employees can self-refer or be referred by their manager for counseling D. EAPs focus solely on substance abuse issues E. EAPs protect employees’ privacy with written protocols
B. They offer confidential counseling to employees struggling with personal or work-related issues C. Employees can self-refer or be referred by their manager for counseling E. EAPs protect employees’ privacy with written protocols Rationale: EAPs are confidential, short-term counseling services that can be accessed through self-referral or manager referral. They aim to address personal or professional issues that affect work performance, and they protect the employee’s privacy.
75
Which of the following is most likely to trigger a manager’s referral to an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) for an employee? A. A minor performance issue that is easily corrected B. Frequent absenteeism or a pattern of behavioral changes C. A request for a raise or promotion D. An employee’s complaint about coworkers
B. Frequent absenteeism or a pattern of behavioral changes Rationale: Managers often refer employees to EAPs when there are consistent signs of personal or behavioral issues, such as absenteeism or changes in behavior, that are impacting work performance.
76
What is a key benefit of Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs) for employees? A. Employees can access legal services without the employer knowing B. Employees can obtain financial assistance to cover counseling costs C. Employees can receive short-term, confidential counseling to address personal or work-related issues D. Employees can use EAPs to secure job promotions
C. Employees can receive short-term, confidential counseling to address personal or work-related issues Rationale: The key benefit of EAPs is that they offer confidential, short-term counseling to help employees manage personal or work-related issues that may affect job performance.
77
An employee has been referred to an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) due to a suspected drug or alcohol problem. Which of the following is most likely to occur if the employee utilizes the EAP? A. The employee will be terminated for their behavior B. The employee will receive long-term rehabilitation and assistance C. The employee will receive short-term counseling and help with regaining functionality at work D. The employee will be required to share their treatment plan with HR
C. The employee will receive short-term counseling and help with regaining functionality at work Rationale: EAPs offer short-term counseling services and help employees address issues like substance abuse to return to a more functional state at work.
78
Several laws have been implemented to ensure that there are equal employment opportunities for all individuals regardless of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, age, or disability. As a nurse you should: A. Be aware of the different acts to protect employees B. Not need to be involved with this C. Be aware that human resources takes care of this issue D. Know that once the nurse is hired, you can ask questions about race, religion
A. Be aware of the different acts to protect employees
79
The list of strategies for conflict resolution according to Huber (2013) includes avoiding, withholding, and commending. As a new nurse you may be in a situation of conflict. What would you do? A. Inform my preceptor B. Inform the nurse manager C. Inform human resources D. Keep it to yourself to prevent further conflict
B. Inform the nurse manager
80
You have overheard an individual speak for themselves in a way that you can hear, this concern is called: A. Confronting B. Collaborating C. Problem solving D. Competing
A. Confronting
81
You have witnessed another nurse using an assertive strategy in which one individual’s needs are satisfied at another’s expense, this is called competing. What would you do as a new nurse still on probation? A. Do not discuss this with anyone B. Mention this behavior to your preceptor C. Wait and see if it happens again before doing anything D. Tell the human resource director because it is a human resource issue
C. Wait and see if it happens again before doing anything
82
You have been assigned to work the 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. shift. There is a culture on this shift of not working as a team and having issues with assignments. In managing conflict, what is the first step? A. Determine the cause of the conflict B. Determine who is right and who is wrong C. Determine the punishment for the people in conflict D. Determine who was the aggressive person
A. Determine the cause of the conflict
83
You have witnessed a nurse that seems to have anger issues. You are the charge nurse and have asked this nurse to come into the nurse managers’ office. Which of the following does not maintain behavior that helps diffuse anger? A. Do not match threats B. Avoid any behavior that may be interpreted as aggressive C. Yell louder at the individual who is shouting at you D. Do not give orders
C. Yell louder at the individual who is shouting at you
84
Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for violence in the health care setting? A. Isolated work with patients during exams and treatments B. Unlimited public access C. Overcrowded waiting rooms D. Security guard appointed to walk employee to car
D. Security guard appointed to walk employee to car
85
You have witnessed workplace violence, a nurse and a patient care technician speaking loudly near a patient room. Which agency regulates violent acts (including physical assaults and threats of assaults) directed toward persons at work or on duty? A. U.S. Department of Justice B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D. American Nurses Association (ANA)
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
86
As a nurse you should be aware of the different agencies that monitor cases of intentional employment discrimination. Which agency has an act in place to protect the employee? A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 B. Title I and Title V Act of 1990 C. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 D. The Equal Pay Act (EPA) of 1963
A. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
87
Once you have evaluated the unit you were assigned to as a new nurse, the unit seems to have issues of horizontal violence. Which of the following is not an act of horizontal violence? A. A nursing assistant tells the nurse she should not bother her or she will hurt her B. Two nurses are speaking loudly and one nurse pulls the arm of the individual C. One nursing assistant tells her coworker, another nursing assistant, that she will hurt her when the shift is over D. Two employees are speaking to each other about the assignment and speak with the charge nurse about it
D. Two employees are speaking to each other about the assignment and speak with the charge nurse about it