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Microbiology > Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbiology > Flashcards

Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Microbiology

A

the stud of microorganisms or microbes; which are often invisible to the naked eye; at least half of earths life is microbial; inhabit every region

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2
Q

Microbe encompasses…

A

cellular, living microorganisms (bacteria, archaea, fungi, protists, and helminths); nonliving/noncellular entities (viruses and prions (infectious proteins)); and microorganisms that are not microscopic (some fungi, helminths, and protists)

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3
Q

Bacteria

A

prokaryotic; unicellular, pathogenic and nonpathogenic

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4
Q

Archaea

A

prokaryotic; unicellular; nonpathogenic; most live in extreme environments

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5
Q

Protists

A

eukaryotic; unicellular and multicellular; pathogenic and non pathogenic; unicellular- amoebae; multicellular- algae

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6
Q

Fungi

A

Unicellular and multicellular; pathogenic and nonpathogenic
(unicellular example: yeast; multicellular example: mushrooms

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7
Q

Helminths

A

eukaryotic; Multicellular;* parasitic roundworms and flatworms

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8
Q

Viruses

A

not cells; nonliving ; Infect animal, plant, or bacterial cells; can have a D NA or RNA
genome; they are considered non-living because they can not live outside of a host and do not create their own energy (metabolism)

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9
Q

Prions

A

not cells; nonliving; infectious proteins; Not discovered until the 1980s; transmitted by transplant or
ingestion; some prion diseases are inherited

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10
Q

Prokaryotic Cells

A

evolved about 3.5 billion years ago; earliest life forms; include unicelluar bacteria and archaea; does not contain membrane bound organelles and a nucleus

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11
Q

Eukaryotic Cells

A

all multicellular organisms and a number of unicellular microorganisms (amebae, yeast); contain membrane bound organelles and a nucleus; endosymbiotic theory

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12
Q

Pathogens

A

microbes that cause disease; about 1400 are known to infect humans; < 1% of all microbes are pathogenic

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13
Q

Opportunistic Pathogens

A

cause disease only in a weakened host; like already having a disease and the opportunistic pathogen taking advantage of that

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14
Q

Golden Age of Microbiology

A

1850-1920; innovation of microscops; observations; new techniques to isolate and grow microbes

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15
Q

Edward Jenner

A

successfully vaccinates against small pox

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16
Q

Florence Nightingale

A

establishes formal aseptic practices in nursing

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17
Q

Joseph Lister

A

think listerine; publishes aseptic surgery techniques

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18
Q

Robert Koch

A

first to prove microbes cause disease

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19
Q

Julius Petri

A

makes first petri dish

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20
Q

Alexander Fleming

A

discovers penicillin

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21
Q

Robert Hooke

A

first to publish descriptions of cells (cork)

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22
Q

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek

A

refined earlier versions of the microscope and developed a better lens to focus on specimen; first to see bacteria

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23
Q

Spontaneous Generation

A

abiogenesis; life comes from nonliving items; like how they believed maggots just spontaneously came to be on meat

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24
Q

Biogenesis

A

life emerges from existing life (reproduction); the maggots were not sponateous and instead came from the flies that laid their eggs

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25
Q

Francesco Redi

A

tested spontaneous generation by leaving meat in an uncovered jar which resulted in maggots and then a meat in a sealed jar which resulted in no maggots on meat

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26
Q

Louis Pasteur

A

showed biogenesis is responsible for the propagation of life; pasteurization killed off yeast and prevented stored wine from turning sour (vinegar); developed first vaccine against anthrax and rabies; developed germ theory

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27
Q

Germ Theory of Disease

A

states that microbes cause infectious diseases; specifically infectious because some disease can be genetic, autoimmune, or cancer none of which are infectious

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28
Q

Endosymbiotic Theory

A

eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells in a sequential way

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29
Q

What famous experiment did Pastueur do to disprove spontaneous generation?

A

swan necked flask experiment

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30
Q

How did the S-Neck experiment leave no room for skeptics to say that it still could have been spontaneous generation?

A

the flask had an opening that allowed air into the container; this meant that “life force” was not blocked

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31
Q

Why did the shape of the s-necked flask matter so much?

A

it did not allow particles/microbes to enter to the broth; gravity, water, and air (or currents) are the only thing that can move microbes; the s-neck did not allow the microbes to move because they were stuck in the bottom part; there was no gravity to push them up, no air current or liquid

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32
Q

How do microbes move?

A

either passively (such as gravity) or actively (with a flagella, cilia, or amoeba motion); this means that they require a aqueous environemnt to do so in

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33
Q

Scenario 1 of Swan Neck Experiment

A

broth is heated and cooled in flask; nothing is done; microbes are trapped in the neck and the broth remains pure

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34
Q

Secanrio 2 of Swan Neck Experiment

A

broth heated and cooled; microbes are trapped in neck; but the flask is tilted to the liquid goes up the neck which allows the microbes to get in the liquid and the broth is contaminated

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35
Q

Scenario 3 of Swan Neck Experiment

A

broth heated and cooled; microbes stuck in flask; break the neck of the flask (take out the S part) and airborn microes enter thorugh gravity and the broth is contaminated

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36
Q

Turbid

A

growth of microbes in a broth; cloudy broth

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37
Q

How do bacteria reproduce?

A

binary fission

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38
Q

What did the swan neck lead to?

A

creation of the petri dish; it is the same concept; the cover of the petri dish is larger and when it sits on top creates the “swan neck” shape

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39
Q

Robert Koch

A

interested in what specific microbe causes a specific disease; developed staining techniques and media for the isolation and cultivation of bacteria; worked with anthrax and found it was caused by the bacteria bacillus anthracis; developed a technique to determine the specific etiological agent of an infectious disease

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40
Q

Koch’s Postulates of Disease

A

1) same organisms must be present in every case of the disease; 2) organism must be isolated from the diases host and grown as a pure culture (taking the microbe out of the host and cultivating it); 3) isolated organism should cause same disease when iinoculated into a susceptible host (the microbe is given to a healthy host and should present the same symptoms as the infected host); 4) organism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased animal (must be able to pull that same microbe out and determine that it was what caused the disease)

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41
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis

A

developed first aseptic techniques in the hospital setting; recommended handwashing to decrease mortality rates from childbed fever; father of handwashing

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42
Q

Joseph Lister

A

investigated processes for aseptic surgery; proved sterilizing instruments and sanitizing wounds with carbolic acid prevented pus formation

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43
Q

Florence Nightingale

A

established aseptic techniques in nursing; founder of modern nursing

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44
Q

What do aseptic processes prevent?

A

healthcare-acquired infections (HAIs) aka nosocomial infections and limited the spread of disease; types include hand washing, wearing gloves, sterilizing instruments, and decontaminating surfaces

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45
Q

Scientific Method

A

starts with a question that can be investigated; a hypothesis (proposed answer) is proposed; researches collect and analyze observations (data) and use them to formulate a conclusion; conclusion states whether the data supports or contradicts the hypothesis

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46
Q

Observation

A

any data collected using our senses or instrumentation

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47
Q

Conclusion

A

interprets observations; take a collection of observations to draw accurate conclusions

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48
Q

Law

A

a precise statement (or mathematical formula) that predicts a specific occurrence; predicts what happens

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49
Q

Theory

A

a hypothesis that has been proven through many studies with consistent, supporting conclusions; explain why and how something occurs

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50
Q

Taxonomy

A

the study of how organisms can be grouped by shared features

51
Q

Morphology

A

shape, size, arrangement and distinguishing physiological features; was used for early classification of bacteria

52
Q

Carl Linnaeus

A

father of taxonomy; established criteria for classifying organisms

53
Q

Taxonomic Hierarchy in Order

A

domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species; delightful king philip came over for great spaghetti

54
Q

3 Domains

A

domain is the broadest grouping of organisms; bacteria (unicellular, prokaryotic organisms; archaea (some live in extreme conditions, no known pathogens); Eukarya (unicellular and multicellular eukaryotic organisms)

55
Q

Old 5 Kingdom Classification

A

included animalia, plantae, fungi, protista, monera; monera includes both archaea and bacteria; but they are now their own kingdoms

56
Q

What are the 6 kingdoms?

A

archaea, bacteria, fungi, plantae, animalia, protists

57
Q

Kingdom Protista

A

miscelllaneous kingdom for organisms not categorized as plants, animals, or fungi; genetics now show that protists can not logically be lumped into a single kingdom

58
Q

Eukaryotic Species

A

group of similar organisms that can sexually reproduce together; interspecies hybrids are usually sterile

59
Q

Prokaryotic Species

A

cells that share physical characteristics and have at least 70% DNA similarity; at least 97% identical 16S rRNA sequence similarity (the protein that does transcription); asexual reproduction via binary fission produces clones

60
Q

Strain

A

smaller/below species; used to recognize genetic variants of the same species; mutations and gene transfer often lead to new strains; names typcially includes numbers/letters after the species name such as E. coli K-12

61
Q

What is the cornerstone reference for classifying bacteria?

A

bergeys manual of determinative bacteriology

62
Q

Binomial Nomenclature System

A

two name sys; genus is the first name; genus is always capitalized; species is the second name; species is always lowercased; scientific names are italicized (or under lined if hand written);

63
Q

Symbiotic Relationship

A

exists when two or more organisms are closely connected

64
Q

Parasitism

A

hurts the host

65
Q

Mutualism

A

helps the host

66
Q

Commensalism

A

no perceived benefit or cost to the host; but it can become parasitic if (for example) it was an opportunistic pathogen that was commensalist until the host got sick and then it became a pathogen

67
Q

Pathogens have a…

A

parasitic relationship with their host; the term parasite is commonly used to describe helminths (worms) and protozoans

68
Q

Human Microbiome Project

A

HMP; aims ot characterize all of the microbes in and on our bodies

69
Q

Human Microbiome

A

many parts of the human body teem with microbial life; there are at least as many microbial cells in and on us as there are human cells; our skin, nose, mouth, gut and genital/urinary tract harbor the most microbes

70
Q

Normal Microbiota

A

aka normal flora; includes bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotic microbes; functions- assist immune system, produce vitamins for us, help us digest foods, may even impact moods and brain function

71
Q

Where are the most and least amounts of microbes found in the body?

A

most- intestines (over 40,000 species ); least- stomach (25 species)

72
Q

What makes microbiota “normal”?

A

more so the location of the microbe instead of the actual species; our normal microbiota includes pathogens (but depending on the location they may not be harming); majority is harmless and helps “crowd out” pathogens

73
Q

How are normal microbiotas established?

A

babies are colonized by microbes during delivery and early interactions with their environment and caregivers; influenced by delivery (c section or vaginal_ and feeding (breast or formula); normal microbiota expands, develops and evolves throughout the early weeks of life to adulthood

74
Q

What is a disruption to normal microbiota?

A

when normal flora is disturbed we are put at risk for infection; can be disrupted with antibiotic therapy; kills resident bacteria and the pathogen; reduction of normal flora allows opportunistic pathogens to establish infections

75
Q

Transient Microbiota

A

temporary passengers that do not persist as stable residents of our bodies; picked up through a handshake or contact with environmental surfaces; can be removed through hygiene

76
Q

Biofilms

A

sticky communities made up of single or diverse microbial species; cells that seed a biofilm made adhesion factors to help them attach to a target surface; multiple layers; microbes are released as free growing planktonic cells; can develop on teeth, contact lenses, water filtering units, cutting boards, catheters

77
Q

Planktonic

A

single, free floating bacteria

78
Q

Most infectious diseases in humans are due to…

A

biofilm creating microbes; internal biofilms are not easily managed, more resistant to antibiotics, protected from immune system

79
Q

Bioremediation

A

harnesses the power of microbes to help clean up toxic waste; certain microbes can metabolize toxic substances into harmless intermediates; ex) hundreds of species can degrade petroleum oil spills into co2

80
Q

Growth Media

A

aka culture media; mixtures of nutrients that support growth in an artificial setting; agar added to solidify; can be a both, plate, slant, or deep

81
Q

Pure Culture

A

isolation of a single type of microbe from a diverse sample of specimen

82
Q

What are some aseptic culture techniques?

A

sterile media, sterile instruments, decontaminating surfaces, gloves and other protective clothing, use of heat source (bunsen burner/electruc sterilizer)

83
Q

Biological Safety Cabinet

A

an enclosed cabinet that minimizes the chances of contaminating the culture and protects the researchers; uses HEPA filtration

84
Q

Streak Plate Technique

A

helps to isolate colonies of a specific microbe to study; produces isolated pure colony forming units

85
Q

Colony

A

grouping of cells (clones) that developed from a single parent cellM

86
Q

Mixed Cultures

A

have more than one characterisically different colonies

87
Q

Stains

A

aka dyes; increase contrast so the sample is easier to see

88
Q

What do most staining techniques involve?

A

making a smear of the specimen; fixing the specimen by exposing it to heat (or chemical reagent); staining of the specimenq

89
Q

Basic Dyes

A

most commonly used; positively charged; attracted to the negatively charged cell surface; result: cell appears the color of the dye;, ex) methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin, malachite green

90
Q

Acidic Dyes

A

used in negative staining; negatively charged; repelled from negatively chraged cell surface; results in the stain of the background; ex) nigrosin, india ink

91
Q

Mordants

A

chemicals that may be required in certain staining procedures to interact witha dye making it less soluble this will “trap” it on or inside a treated specimen; ex) iodine, alum, tannic acid

92
Q

Simple Stains

A

use one dye; used to determine size, shape, cellular arrangment

93
Q

Flagella Staining

A

structural staining; mordants are added to coat the thin flagella and then a basic dye is applied

94
Q

Capsule Staining

A

structural stain; both basic dye (stains the cell) and acidic dye (stains the background) are used; capsule appears as a clear halo

95
Q

Bacterial Endospore Staining

A

specimen is heated to drive the dye (malachite green) into the spores; nonsporulating cells are stained with safranin

96
Q

Differential Staining

A

highlights differences in bacterial cell walls in order to discriminate between classes of cells; ex) gram stain and acid fast stain

97
Q

Gram Stain

A

classifies bacteria as either gram positive or gram negative

98
Q

Grame Positive Cells

A

will appear purple; contain a thick layer of peptidoglycan; no outer membrane

99
Q

Gram Negative Cells

A

will appear pink; contain a thin layer of peptidoglycan; contain an outer membrane rich in lipids

100
Q

Gram Stain Technique

A

crystal violet (primary stain) is added to a heat fixed bacterial smear; iodine (mordant) is added forming an insoluble crystal violet - iodine complex ; acetone-alcohol (decolorizing step) is used to rinse the sample ; safranin (counterstain) is added to the sample

101
Q

Results of Acetone-alcohol treatment on Gram Negative

A

dissolves the outer membrane; damaes the thin peptidoglycan layer (makes it porous); CV-I washes out

102
Q

Results of the Acetone-Alcohol treatment on gram postive

A

slightly dmamges the thick peptidoglycan; dehydration makes it less permeable (matrix collapses); CV-I retained

103
Q

Acid Fast Stain

A

distinguishes between cells with and without waxy cell walls

104
Q

Acid Fast Bacteria

A

contain waxy cell walls rich in mycolic acid; retain red-colored primary dye after exposure to an acid wash

105
Q

Non-Acid Fast Cells

A

red primary stain is washed away after exposure to an acid wash

106
Q

Ziehl Neelsen Method

A

acid fast staining method; carbol-fuchsin (primary dye) is added to a heat fixed smear; sample is steamed for several minutes to drive the red dye into the bacteria; acid-alcohol (decolorizing agent) is used to rinse the sample; methylene blue (counterstain) is added to the sample

107
Q

What does acid fast staining detect?

A

mycobacterium species and nocardia species

108
Q

Light Microscopy

A

uses visible light to illuminate the specimen; photons in a light wave interact with the specimen and are then channeled up to the viewers eyes thourgh a series of lenses; the compound light microscope is the most common type of optical microscope

109
Q

How is final magnification determined?

A

multiplying th emagnification of the ocular and objective lenses

110
Q

Condenser Lenses

A

sharpen light into a precise cone to illuminate the specimen

111
Q

Iris Diaphragm

A

controls amount of light aimed at the specimen to improve contrast

112
Q

Resolution

A

the ability to distinguish two distinct points as separate

113
Q

Oil Immersion

A

air has a lower refractive index than glass; light passes thorugh a slide then into the air above the slide where it scatters; light is not channeled through the objective lens; immersion oil focuses the light and keeps it from scattering; oil immersion has the same feractive index as glass

114
Q

Bright Field

A

darjer contrasting image on a bright background; compound light microscope; illuminates sample with solid cone of light; image formed based on how light is absorved; sample must be stain or have natural coloration

115
Q

Dark Field

A

Negative image, where the sample appears light on a darker
background; Modified condenser in a compoundl ight microscope
;Illuminates sample with hollow cone of light; image formed
based on how light is scattered as opposed to how light is absorbed, so staining is not necessary;
negative image made by dark field microscopy should not be confused with negative staining; visualizes unstained specimens (live or dead) and stained specimens

116
Q

Phase Contrast

A

negative image; where the sample apears light on a darker background; odified condesner in a compound light microscope; illuminates sample with hollow cone of light; a device in the microscope (i.e., a phase plate) interacts with light that
passes through the viewed sample— thereby enhancing image brightness, shading, and contrast; visualizes unstained specimens (live or dead) and stained specimens

117
Q

Electron Microscope

A

uses an electron beam; large; expensice; complex sample preparation; only black and white images; can magnify over 500,000; specimens are all dead; stains must be an electron dense substances like smium or gold

118
Q

Transmission Electron Microscopy

A

most common form of electron microscopy; 1 million times magnification and 1000 times better resolution; samples must be extensively pretreated; specimens cannot be thicker than 1/285th of a human hair; electron beam passes through specimen; hits a detector; generates 2D images of internal structures

119
Q

Scanning Electron Microscopy

A

electron beam scans over the specimen; detectors sense how the electrons interact with the surface of the specimen; generates a 3D image of the surface

120
Q

Fluorescence

A

occurs when a substnace absorbs energy (ultraviolet UV light) and then emits that energy as visible light

121
Q

Flurorochromes

A

flourescent dyes that can be used to stian samples so they will flouresce when illuminated by UV light microscoe

122
Q

Immunofluorescence

A

uses flourescent dyes linked ot antibodies that can recognize a specific target; can be used for identification of bacteria in blood cultues, virus identification in patient samples, and screening for bacteria in food processing plants

123
Q
A

Microbiology (9 decks)

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