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Pathophysiology III > Chapter 20 > Flashcards

Chapter 20 Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
a.
Adenoma
b.
Lipoma
c.
Fibrosarcoma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
A

b.

Lipoma

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2
Q 
2.	What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
a.
Carcinomas
b.
Sarcomas
c.
Melanomas
d.
Fibromas
A

b.

Sarcomas

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3
Q 
3.	Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
a.
It is unencapsulated and invasive.
b.
It consists of undifferentiated cells.
c.
It exerts systemic effects.
d.
Cells appear relatively normal.
A

d.

Cells appear relatively normal.

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4
Q 
4.	Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
a.
Size of the tumor
b.
Number of metastases
c.
Degree of differentiation of the cells
d.
Number of lymph nodes involved
A

c.

Degree of differentiation of the cells

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5
Q
  1. A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
    a.
    persistent, unusual bleeding.
    b.
    a change in bowel habits.
    c.
    sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.
    d.
    a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion.
A

c.

sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.

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6
Q
  1. The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:
  2. obstruction of a tube or duct.
  3. anemia and weight loss.
  4. cell necrosis and ulceration.
  5. tumor markers in the circulation.
    a.
    1, 2
    b.
    1, 3
    c.
    2, 4
    d.
    3, 4
A

b.

1, 3

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
    a.
    The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
    b.
    Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
    c.
    The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
    d.
    The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
A

a.

The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells

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8
Q 
8.	Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
a.
Invasiveness
b.
Seeding
c.
Metastasis
d.
Systemic effect
A

c.

Metastasis

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9
Q
  1. One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
    a.
    identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.
    b.
    locate and identify the primary tumor.
    c.
    decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.
    d.
    determine the best treatment and prognosis.
A

d.

determine the best treatment and prognosis.

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10
Q 
10.	The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
a.
exposure to promoters causing dysplasia.
b.
development of defective genes.
c.
an irreversible change in the cell DNA.
d.
a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.
A

c.

an irreversible change in the cell DNA.

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11
Q
  1. What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
    a.
    A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor
    b.
    Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
    c.
    A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested
    d.
    A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity
A

b.

Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine

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12
Q 
12.	Radiation therapy destroys:
a.
all cells in the tumor at one time.
b.
the cells in the center of the tumor.
c.
primarily rapidly dividing cells.
d.
radioresistant cells.
A

c.

primarily rapidly dividing cells.

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13
Q 
13.	The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
a.
thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
b.
headache and lethargy.
c.
nausea and constipation.
d.
alopecia and weight loss.
A

a.

thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.

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14
Q
  1. Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
  2. reduce the adverse effects.
  3. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed.
  4. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle.
  5. totally block the mitotic stage.
    a.
    1, 3
    b.
    1, 4
    c.
    2, 3
    d.
    3, 4
A

a.

1, 3

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15
Q
  1. Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
    a.
    The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
    b.
    Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
    c.
    The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
    d.
    No effective treatment is available.
A

b.

Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.

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16
Q
  1. Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:
    a.
    colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
    b.
    hepatic cancer: CA125, AFP
    c.
    prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    d.
    testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome
A

a.

colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

17
Q
  1. Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:
    a.
    promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells.
    b.
    blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells.
    c.
    reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.
    d.
    transporting radioisotopes into the tumor.
A

c.

reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.

18
Q
  1. The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:
    a.
    the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.
    b.
    the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
    c.
    higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
    d.
    the patient is at high risk for infection.
A

d.

the patient is at high risk for infection.

19
Q 
19.	Malignant brain tumors:
a.
metastasize quickly to all parts of the body.
b.
spread first to lungs and bone.
c.
spread to other parts of CNS.
d.
do not metastasize anywhere at any time.
A

c.

spread to other parts of CNS.

20
Q 
20.	Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
a.
Alopecia
b.
Bone marrow depression
c.
Nausea and vomiting
d.
Weight loss
A

b.

Bone marrow depression

21
Q
  1. Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:
    a.
    glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy.
    b.
    the immune system is stimulated.
    c.
    skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased.
    d.
    inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.
A

d.

inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

22
Q 
22.	Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
a.
the gastrointestinal tract is irritated.
b.
the chemicals stimulate the emetic center.
c.
the drugs have an unpleasant odor.
d.
A and B
A

d.

A and B

23
Q 
23.	What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
a.
Epithelial cells
b.
Skeletal muscle cells
c.
Nerve tissue
d.
Collagen and fibrous tissue
A

a.

Epithelial cells

24
Q 
24.	Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
a.
chemotherapy cannot be used.
b.
signs and symptoms are absent.
c.
complications are evident.
d.
metastases occur.
A

b.

signs and symptoms are absent.

25
Q
  1. All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT:
    a.
    They are difficult to diagnose and treat.
    b.
    They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin.
    c.
    The number of skin cancer cases is increasing.
    d.
    Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer.
A

a.

They are difficult to diagnose and treat.

26
Q
  1. High risk factors for cancer include:
  2. human papilloma virus.
  3. chronic irritation and inflammation.
  4. repeated sun exposure.
  5. high family incidence.
    a.
    1, 3
    b.
    3, 4
    c.
    1, 2, 4
    d.
    1, 2, 3, 4
A

d.

1, 2, 3, 4

27
Q 
27.	The term apoptosis refers to:
a.
programmed cell death.
b.
abnormal or immature cells.
c.
degree of differentiation of cells.
d.
the development of new capillaries in a tumor.
A

a.

programmed cell death.

28
Q 
28.	The warning signs for cancer include:
a.
unusual bleeding.
b.
change in a wart or mole (e.g., color).
c.
a new solid lump, often painless.
d.
All the above
A

d.

All the above

29
Q 
29.	A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:
a.
seeding.
b.
mutation.
c.
staging.
d.
grading.
A

c.

staging.

30
Q 
30.	Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:
a.
often have systemic effects.
b.
contain cells showing increased mitosis and atypical rapid growth.
c.
are encapsulated and slow-growing.
d.
can metastasize or invade nearby tissue.
A

c.

are encapsulated and slow-growing.

31
Q 
31.	Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
a.
metastasize early in their development.
b.
create excessive pressure within the skull.
c.
cannot be removed.
d.
cause serious systemic effects.
A

b.

create excessive pressure within the skull.

32
Q 
32.	Drugs or agents that augment the natural immune response in the body to improve identification and removal of abnormal cells are called:
a.
biological response modifiers.
b.
angiogenesis stimulators.
c.
analgesic complements.
d.
targeted receptor modifiers.
A

a.

biological response modifiers.

33
Q 
33.	The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as:
a.
radiation therapy.
b.
thermolysis intervention.
c.
brachytherapy.
d.
radiofrequency ablation.
A

d.

radiofrequency ablation.

34
Q
  1. Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?
    a.
    Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases
    b.
    Location of tumor, size, type of cellular abnormality
    c.
    Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue
    d.
    Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumors, location/tissue affected
A

a.

Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases

35
Q 
35.	One of the general effects of a malignant cancer is cachexia, which is:
a.
severe bleeding.
b.
severe tissue wasting.
c.
severe fatigue.
d.
multiple opportunistic infections.
A

b.

severe tissue wasting.

Pathophysiology III (5 decks)

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