Chapter 26 Infectious Diseases Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 26 Infectious Diseases Deck (80)
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1

1. According to Part G of the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resources Emergency Act, medical facilities are required to notify emergency responders of potentially infectious diseases involving patients they transported no longer than ___ hours from the time they have a suspect case.
A) 6
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48

Ans: D
Page: 1288
Type: General Knowledge

2

2. Which of the following examples provides the BEST description of indirect contact with a microorganism?
A) Becoming infected with West Nile virus from a mosquito bite
B) Touching a bloody stretcher railing with an open wound on your hand
C) Inhaling infected droplets from a person after he or she sneezes or coughs
D) Making brief physical contact with a person who has an infectious disease

Ans: B
Page: 1290
Type: General Knowledge


3

3. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining a person's risk of contracting an infectious disease following exposure?
A) The organism's mode of entry
B) The virulence of the organism
C) The age and sex of the patient
D) Host resistance of the individual

Ans: C
Page: 1295
Type: General Knowledge

4

4. Unlike bacteria, viruses:
A) can only multiply outside a host.
B) die when exposed to the environment.
C) can only be contracted by direct contact.
D) are larger and reproduce outside the cell.

Ans: B
Page: 1296
Type: General Knowledge

5

5. When a disease infects large numbers of people and spreads all over the world, it is considered a(n):
A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) outbreak.
D) pandemic.

Ans: D
Page: 1289
Type: General Knowledge

6

6. Virulence is defined as the:
A) severity of infection once an organism enters the body.
B) degree of difficulty that it takes to destroy an organism.
C) ability of an organism to invade and create disease in a host.
D) amount of time that it takes for an organism to infect the host.

Ans: C
Page: 1295
Type: General Knowledge

7

7. An individual's ability to fight off infection is called:
A) virulence.
B) immunity.
C) host resistance.
D) communicability.

Ans: C
Page: 1295
Type: General Knowledge

8

8. A person is exposed to the mumps virus, is asymptomatic for 16 days, and then becomes ill. The 16-day period is called the:
A) incubation period.
B) resistance period.
C) virulent period.
D) communicable period.

Ans: A
Page: 1295
Type: General Knowledge

9

9. In the context of a communicable disease, a ___________ is a place where organisms may live and multiply.
A) host
B) reservoir
C) carrier
D) contaminant

Ans: B
Page: 1296
Type: General Knowledge

10

10. A health care worker's fear of contracting a communicable disease is MOST often the result of:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) statistics published by the media.
C) a prior history of disease exposure.
D) a lack of proper education and training.

Ans: D
Page: 1289
Type: General Knowledge

11

11. After an employee who believes he or she has been exposed to an infectious disease notifies the designated infection control officer (DICO), the DICO should:
A) execute the postexposure plan within 24 to 36 hours.
B) determine whether an actual exposure occurred.
C) immediately refer the employee to a designated physician.
D) obtain the patient's consent to have his or her blood drawn.

Ans: B
Page: 1293
Type: General Knowledge

12

12. In contrast to body substance isolation precautions, standard precautions:
A) is a term used to describe infection control practices that reduce the risk of exposure to blood.
B) describe a universal approach in which all blood and bodily fluids are assumed to be infectious.
C) emphasize protection from moist body substances that may transmit bacterial or viral infections.
D) specify that sweat is an effective carrier of infectious diseases, even if the sweat makes contact with intact skin.

Ans: C
Page: 1294
Type: General Knowledge

13


13. Which of the following is NOT included in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's list of recommended immunizations and tests for health care providers?
A) Annual HIV testing
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) TB testing
D) Measles, mumps, and rubella

Ans: A
Page: 1294
Type: General Knowledge

14

14. Personal protective equipment:
A) serves as a secondary protective barrier beyond what your body provides.
B) is a standardized set of equipment that is used with every patient contact.
C) is the most effective means of preventing the spread of an infectious disease.
D) is required by the CDC when a paramedic draws blood or gives an injection.

Ans: A
Page: 1290
Type: General Knowledge

15

15. Which of the following medical procedures would pose the LEAST risk of exposure to an infectious disease?
A) Administering a subcutaneous injection
B) Covering a wound that is bleeding minimally
C) Delivering the baby of an HIV-negative mother
D) Assessing a patient's temperature by the oral route

Ans: D
Page: 1290
Type: General Knowledge

16

16. When washing your hands after a call, you should:
A) wash your hands for at least 10 seconds.
B) use an antimicrobial, alcohol-based foam or gel.
C) wash with cold water and let your hands air dry.
D) scrub your hands vigorously with an antibacterial gel.

Ans: B
Page: 1290
Type: General Knowledge

17

17. Most infectious disease exposures in health care providers occur due to:
A) indirect contact.
B) blood splatter.
C) sharps injuries.
D) inhaled droplets.

Ans: C
Page: 1292
Type: General Knowledge

18

18. Postexposure prophylaxis is available for all of the following diseases, EXCEPT:
A) HIV.
B) hepatitis C.
C) syphilis.
D) gonorrhea.

Ans: B
Page: 1292
Type: General Knowledge

19

19. Following a significant exposure, the source patient is routinely tested for all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) HIV.
B) HCV antibody.
C) HBV antigen.
D) HBV antibody.

Ans: D
Page: 1292-1293
Type: General Knowledge

20

20. According to the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resources Emergency Act, the medical facility must:
A) release the source patient's status to the designated infection control officer.
B) hold the source patient's laboratory results for 24 hours before releasing them.
C) avoid releasing the source patient's status to anyone due to HIPAA regulations.
D) release the source patient's HIV and hepatitis B status to the exposed employee.

Ans: A
Page: 1293
Type: General Knowledge

21

21. Work restriction guidelines enforced by OSHA require an employee to use sick time for an illness, unless:
A) the employee opted to take the hepatitis B vaccine.
B) a physician deems that the illness was unavoidable.
C) the illness is the result of an occupational exposure.
D) the illness occurred after the post-hire probation period.

Ans: C
Page: 1294
Type: General Knowledge

22

22. When obtaining the SAMPLE history of a person suspected of having an infectious disease, you should specifically inquire about:
A) the patient's HIV status.
B) a history of recent travel.
C) any prior hospitalizations.
D) the last sexual encounter.

Ans: B
Page: 1295
Type: General Knowledge

23

23. A common sign of the measles is:
A) petechiae.
B) a blotchy red rash.
C) severe diarrhea.
D) a purpuric rash.

Ans: B
Page: 1314
Type: General Knowledge

24

24. The onset of fever commonly occurs as early as ___ days following exposure to the measles.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7

Ans: D
Page: 1314
Type: General Knowledge

25

25. Rubella is characterized by:
A) a low-grade fever.
B) visual disturbances.
C) abdominal discomfort.
D) an isolated facial rash.

Ans: A
Page: 1314-1315
Type: General Knowledge

26

26. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, all children should be immunized against all of the following diseases, EXCEPT:
A) smallpox.
B) hepatitis B.
C) seasonal influenza.
D) Haemophilus influenzae type b.

Ans: A
Page: 1315
Type: General Knowledge

27

27. When disinfecting the ambulance after transporting a patient with rubella, you should:
A) use a 1:1 bleach and water mixture.
B) clean all surfaces with boiling water.
C) use standard disinfection procedures.
D) remove all equipment from the ambulance.

Ans: C
Page: 1315
Type: General Knowledge

28

28. Which of the following statements regarding the mumps is correct?
A) Mumps can cause sterility in males past the age of puberty.
B) Postexposure vaccination against the mumps is recommended.
C) Mumps presents with fever and swelling of the parotid glands.
D) A variety of bacteria have been identified as causing the mumps.

Ans: C
Page: 1315
Type: General Knowledge


29

29. Transmission of mumps occurs by direct contact with the ________ of an infected person.
A) tears
B) saliva
C) sweat
D) blood

Ans: B
Page: 1315
Type: General Knowledge

30

30. In older adults, shingles arises when the _________ virus resides in the ganglion of a nerve.
A) rubella
B) varicella
C) rubeola
D) herpes

Ans: B
Page: 1315-1316
Type: General Knowledge