Chapter 3 - Cell Biology Flashcards
Practice Test Questions (188 cards)
1
Q
The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the
A
cell
2
Q
All of the chemical reactions within a cell are known as cell
A. communication.
B. inheritance.
C. metabolism.
D. movement.
E. reproduction.
A
metabolism
3
Q
Cells produce and respond to chemical and electrical signals as a means of
A. synthesizing.
B. communicating.
C. metabolizing.
D. using energy.
E. reproducing.
A
communicating
4
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic function of a cell?
A. reproduction and inheritance
B. communication
C. movement
D. metabolism and energy use
E. synthesis
A
movement
5
Q
The lower limit of resolution of a light microscope is
A. 1.0m
B. 0.01m
C. 100m
D. 0.1m
E. 10m
A
D. 0.1m
6
Q
Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells?
A. binoculars
B. scanning electron microscope
C. transmission electron microscope
D. light microscope
E. a magnifying glass
A
light microscope
7
Q
Which of the following is NOT true of a transmission electron microscope (TEM)?
A. The electron beam is focused with electromagnets.
B. The specimen must be fixed in plastic.
C. The limit of resolution is about 0.1m.
D. Electrons are passed through the specimen.
E. Gives the clearest three-dimensional images.
A
Gives the clearest three-dimensional images
8
Q
In order to study in detail the anatomy of internal cell parts, it would be best to use
A. a transmission electron microscope (TEM).
B. a scanning electron microscope (SEM).
C. tissue cultures.
D. flashlights.
E. x-rays.
A
a transmission electron microscope (TEM)
9
Q
Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane?
A. cell metabolism
B. transport of products from the nucleus to the endoplasmic reticulum
C. recognition of bacterial cells by the immune system
D. digestion of unneeded cell organelles
E. detoxification
A
recognition of bacterial cells by the immune system
10
Q
The plasma membrane
A. is not permeable.
B. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell.
C. has a single layer of phospholipids.
D. is a rigid protein membrane.
E. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell.
A
regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell
11
Q
The environment outside the plasma membrane is most appropriately referred to as
A. intracellular.
B. extracellular.
C. multicellular.
D. centrocellular.
E. None of these choices are correct.
A
extracellular
12
Q
Glycolipids would contain both lipids and
A. amino acids.
B. electrolytes.
C. proteins.
D. cholesterol.
E. carbohydrates.
A
carbohydrates
13
Q
The main components of the plasma membrane are
A. lipids and ions.
B. ions, lipids, and proteins.
C. proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.
D. carbohydrates, ions, and lipids.
E. proteins and carbohydrates.
A
proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates
14
Q
The collection of carbohydrates, glycolipids, and glycoproteins of the plasma membrane is
called the
A. intercellular fluid.
B. phospholipid.
C. fluid mosaic.
D. glycocalyx.
E. extracellular membrane.
A
glycocalyx
15
Q
When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical
charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels
would be called
A. chemical-gated channels.
B. ligand-gated channels.
C. open-gated channels.
D. nongated ion channels.
E. voltage-gated channels.
A
voltage-gated channels
16
Q
Plasma membrane phospholipids
A. have tails that face the exterior of the membrane.
B. have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.
C. have polar (charged) tails.
D. are arranged in a single layer.
E. are 95% cholesterol.
A
have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails
17
Q
Plasma membrane phospholipids
A. have nonpolar fatty acid tails.
B. form a bilayer.
C. have polar phosphate heads.
D. create a selectively permeable barrier.
E. All of these choices are correct.
A
all of these are correct
18
Q
The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is/are
A. glycolipids.
B. triglycerides.
C. phospholipids.
D. saturated fats.
E. cholesterol.
A
cholesterol
19
Q
The predominant lipid in the cell membrane is a
A. triglyceride.
B. glycolipid.
C. phospholipid.
D. prostaglandin.
E. cholesterol.
A
phospholipid
20
Q
The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that
A. phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane.
B. proteins form a “liquid” sea in the membrane.
C. cholesterol forms the outermost layer of the membrane.
D. the membrane is neither rigid nor static in structure.
E. proteins are not a part of the membrane.
A
the membrane is neither rigid nor static in structure
21
Q
According to the most current model of the plasma membrane,
A. the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure.
B. cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane.
C. phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer.
D. proteins are free to move about within a double layer of phospholipids.
E. the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules.
A
proteins are free to move about within a double layer of phospholipids
22
Q
Membrane proteins that extend into the lipid bilayer are called
A. integral proteins.
B. lipoproteins.
C. peripheral proteins.
D. glycoproteins.
E. extrinsic proteins.
A
integral proteins
23
Q
Channel proteins
A. allow cells to recognize one another.
B. are binding sites for other molecules.
C. utilize the G protein complex to function.
D. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum.
E. provide a tunnel through which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell.
A
provide a tunnel through which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell
24
Q
Molecules that serve as chemical signals to open or close gated ion channels are
A. responders.
B. ligands.
C. isotopes.
D. communicators.
E. membrane potentials.
A
ligands
25
Cells that respond to ligands
A. are using electrical signals in cellular communication.
B. generally produce the ligands.
C. possess receptor sites for specific ligands.
D. are not functional.
E. have lysosomes that destroy the ligands.
possess receptor sites for specific ligands
26
Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to
_____ on another cell.
A. marker molecules
B. second messengers
C. channel proteins
D. receptor proteins
E. integrins
receptor proteins
27
Membrane-bound receptors
A. are small, lipid soluble molecules.
B. have no effect on the cell.
C. do not exhibit specificity.
D. have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
E. can interact with DNA in the nucleus.
have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane
28
Communication between cells is essential to coordinate the activity of the trillions of cells
that make up the human body. Which of the following is (are) directly involved in carrying
out communication between cells?
A. lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane
B. both receptor proteins of the plasma membrane and chemical signal molecules released by
cells
C. receptor proteins of the plasma membrane
D. mitochondria
E. chemical signal molecules released by cells
both receptor proteins of the plasma membrane and chemical signal molecules released by cells
29
What type of membrane proteins have an exposed site on the outer cell surface that can attach to a ligand?
A. marker molecules
B. receptor proteins
C. channel protein
D. carrier proteins
E. enzymes
receptor proteins
30
What type of membrane proteins are integral proteins that move ions or molecules across
plasma membrane?
A. carrier proteins
B. receptor proteins
C. enzymes
D. marker molecules
E. channel protein
carrier proteins
31
What type of membrane proteins form a passageway through the plasma membrane?
A. carrier proteins
B. receptor proteins
C. enzymes
D. channel protein
E. marker molecules
channel protein
32
What type of membrane proteins allow cells to identify one another?
A. enzymes
B. carrier proteins
C. channel protein
D. receptor proteins
E. marker molecules
marker molecules
33
33. What type of membrane proteins can catalyze chemical reactions on the inner or outer
surfaces of the plasma membrane?
A. channel protein
B. carrier proteins
C. receptor proteins
D. enzymes
E. marker molecules
enzymes
34
What type of attachment proteins attach cells to extracellular molecules?
A. ligands
B. adherins
C. cadherins
D. integrins
integrins
35
Which of the following is NOT a G-protein complex protein?
A. delta
B. gamma
C. alpha
D. beta
E. None of these choices are correct.
delta
36
Which of the following is NOT true of G-protein complex action?
A. Stimulates a cell by means of extracellular chemical signals.
B. Stimulates a cell by opening ion channels in the plasma membrane.
C. Acts as an intermediate between a receptor and other cellular proteins.
D. Stimulates a cell by activating enzymes associated with the plasma membrane.
E. Stimulates a cell by means of intracellular chemical signals.
Stimulates a cell by means of extracellular chemical signals.
37
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function?
A. peripheral proteins - penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other
B. nongated ion channels - are always closed
C. receptor proteins - attach to ligand molecules
D. channel proteins - are part of an intercellular communication system
E. marker molecules - are primarily steroids
receptor proteins - attach to ligand molecules
38
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function?
A. cell identity molecules - are primarily steroids
B. receptor proteins – move specific ions or molecules using ATP
C. carrier proteins – move bound ions or molecules from one side of the membrane to the other
D. channel proteins - catalyze chemical reactions inside the cell
E. peripheral proteins - penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other
carrier proteins - move bound ions or molecules from one side of the membrane to the other
39
Which type of transport proteins use cell energy to move molecules across the plasma
membrane?
A. cadherins
B. leak-ion channels
C. ATP-powered pumps
D. ligand-gated ion channels
ATP-powered pumps
40
A symporter will transport _____ across the cell membrane.
A. two different ions or molecules in opposite directions
B. two of the same ions or molecules in the same direction
C. two different ions or molecules in the same direction
D. two of the same ions or molecules in opposite directions
E. one specific ion or molecule
two different ions or molecules in the same direction
41
In _______, ions or molecules move in opposite directions.
A. uniport
B. ionport
C. antiport
D. symport
E. comport
antiport
42
In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______; and lipid-soluble
molecules diffuse through the ______ ______.
A. membrane channels; membrane channels
B. membrane channels; lipid bilayer
C. lipid bilayer; membrane channels
D. lipid bilayer; lipid bilayer
E. None of these choices is correct.
membrane channels; lipid bilayer
43
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means
A. substances need permission to pass through it.
B. ATP is always needed to move molecules across the plasma membrane.
C. substances need carrier molecules to pass through it.
D. only gases and water can pass through it.
E. only certain substances can pass through it.
only certain substances can pass through it
44
Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell
A. through vitamin membrane channels.
B. in vesicles.
C. by dissolving in the lipid bilayer.
D. by active transport.
E. by transport with carrier molecules.
by dissolving in the lipid bilayer
45
Which of the following statements concerning membrane transport across the plasma
membrane is true?
A. All molecules are moved across by active transport.
B. Water cannot move through the membrane.
C. Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer.
D. Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions.
E. Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules.
Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer
46
A group of cells was treated with a proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme. Which of the
following processes would be least affected by this treatment?
A. use of carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion
B. sodium-potassium exchange pump
C. secondary active transport
D. diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane
E. diffusion of sodium through sodium membrane channels
diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane
47
The aroma of cookies baking in the kitchen reaches you in the living room. The
distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of
A. osmosis.
B. filtration.
C. diffusion.
D. dialysis.
E. active transport.
diffusion
48
In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region
A. outside the cell to a region inside the cell.
B. inside the cell to a region outside the cell.
C. of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.
D. of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
E. None of these choices are correct.
of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
49
Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion?
A. an increase in the viscosity of the solvent
B. an increase in the temperature
C. an increase in the molecular weight of the diffusing particles
D. an increase in the distance the molecules have to travel
E. All of these choices are correct.
an increase in temperature
50
The movement of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of less
concentration is called
A. endocytosis.
B. osmosis.
C. diffusion.
D. facilitated diffusion.
E. active transport.
diffusion
51
Salt was added to a beaker of distilled water (the water was not stirred). A sample taken
from the bottom of the beaker was found to be 20% salt. At the same time, a sample taken
from the top of the beaker was found to be 2% salt. After 24 hours
A. the difference in the percentage of salt between the top and bottom samples would
increase.
B. the percentage of salt in top and bottom samples would be approximately equal.
C. the samples would still be 2% and 20% respectively.
D. the salt would float to the top.
E. None of these choices are correct.
the percentage of salt in top and bottom samples would be approximately equal.
52
The movement of oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs into the bloodstream is an example
of
A. osmosis.
B. active transport.
C. bulk transport.
D. facilitated diffusion.
E. diffusion.
diffusion
53
Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane.
A. sugar
B. sodium
C. oxygen
D. urea
E. water
water
54
Solution A contains 5 grams of sugar per liter while solution B contains 2 grams of sugar
per liter. The solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If the solvent in
both solutions is water, predict in which direction most of the water molecules will move.
A. move by simple diffusion from solution A to solution B
B. move by osmosis from solution B to solution A
C. move by active transport from solution B to solution A
D. move by filtration from solution A to solution B
E. There will be no movement of water.
move by osmosis from solution B to solution A
55
The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater the
A. osmotic pressure of the solution.
B. rate of facilitated diffusion.
C. tendency for water to diffuse from the solution.
D. number of carrier molecules present.
E. amount of solvent.
osmotic pressure of the solution
56
A red blood cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution
A. loses water.
B. gains water.
C. floats.
D. ruptures.
E. neither gains nor loses water
loses water
57
If 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0.5% saline solution
A. will not affect the cell.
B. is hypotonic to the cell.
C. will cause crenation of the cell.
D. will shrink the cell.
E. is hypertonic to the cell.
is hypotonic to the cell
58
If a 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a solution of 3.5% NaCl would
be
A. hypertonic to the cell.
B. isotonic to the cell.
C. hypotonic to the cell.
D. catatonic to the cell.
E. All of these choices are correct.
hypertonic to the cell
59
A person suffered burns over a large part of his body. Evaporation of fluid from the
surface of burned areas occurs. As a result of the evaporation process, cells will tend to
A. first swell and then resume their original shape.
B. rupture.
C. swell.
D. remain unchanged.
E. shrink.
shrink
60
A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather. After the
race, he drank large volumes of water. As a result of the water intake, his body cells will
A. shrink.
B. swell.
C. crenate.
D. shrivel.
E. not change.
swell
61
The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called
A. facilitated diffusion.
B. active transport.
C. diffusion.
D. osmosis.
E. endocytosis.
osmosis
62
____________ pressure is the force required to prevent the movement of water by
osmosis across a semipermeable membrane.
A. Filtration
B. Hydrolic
C. Hydration
D. Osmotic
E. Fluid
osmotic
63
Which of the following would increase the rate of mediated transport?
A. change the shape of the binding site on the carrier molecule
B. increase the number of competitive molecules
C. remove the binding site on the carrier molecule
D. fill all binding sites on carrier molecules
E. increase the number of available carrier molecules
increase the number of available carrier molecules
64
A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but
does NOT require ATP. The process is probably
A. active transport.
B. osmosis.
C. phagocytosis.
D. pinocytosis.
E. facilitated diffusion
facilitated diffusion
65
Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion?
(1) movement is against a concentration gradient
(2) movement is with a concentration gradient
(3) involves a carrier molecule
(4) involves cotransport
(5) involves counter transport
(6) exhibits competition and saturation
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
B. 2, 3, 5, 6
C. 2, 3, 4, 6
D. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
E. 2, 3, 6
2, 3, 6
66
Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion?
A. increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule to the saturation point
B. decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule
C. increase the concentration of the competitive molecules
D. increased ATP synthesis
E. None of these choices is correct.
increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule to the saturation point
67
Active transport
A. requires ATP.
B. involves vesicle formation.
C. does not require metabolic energy (ATP).
D. can move substances along their concentration gradient.
E. follows osmotic pressure gradients.
requires ATP
68
Which of the following is NOT consistent with active transport?
A. uses cell energy
B. movement is against a concentration gradient
C. movement is with a concentration gradient
D. exhibits competition and saturation
E. involves a carrier
movement is with a concentration gradient
69
Which transport process requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy?
A. diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
C. osmosis
D. active transport
E. endocytosis
facilitated diffusion
70
The movement of molecules against their concentration gradient is called
A. facilitated diffusion.
B. active transport.
C. diffusion.
D. endocytosis.
E. osmosis.
active transport
71
Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following processes would be
affected?
A. active transport
B. filtration
C. facilitated diffusion
D. osmosis
E. simple diffusion
active transport
72
The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane
A. osmotically moves sodium into cells.
B. actively transports potassium into cells.
C. actively transports water out of cells.
D. moves chlorine out of cells.
E. actively transports sodium into cells.
actively transports potassium into cells
73
Which of the following events occurs in the secondary active transport of glucose?
A. Na+ ions and glucose are cotransported by the same carrier molecule.
B. The Na+ -K+ pump maintains a Na+ concentration gradient inside the cell.
C. Energy comes from diffusion of Na+ down their concentration gradient.
D. Glucose is moved against its concentration gradient into the cell.
E. All of these choices are correct.
all of these choices are correct
74
Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called
A. pinocytosis.
B. biocytosis.
C. exocytosis.
D. calmly regulated diffusion.
E. phagocytosis.
phagocytosis
75
Pinocytosis
A. forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported.
B. does not require ATP.
C. is a form of exocytosis.
D. involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles.
E. does not require the formation of vesicles.
involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles
76
Endocytosis
A. is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy.
B. moves material out of the cell.
C. ends cell functions.
D. is movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane.
E. is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation.
the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation
77
White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of
A. macrocytosis.
B. phagocytosis.
C. exocytosis.
D. pinocytosis.
E. prestocytosis.
phagocytosis
78
All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell EXCEPT
A. diffusion.
B. phagocytosis.
C. active transport.
D. osmosis.
E. exocytosis.
phagocytosis
79
Arrange the following events of exocytosis in the correct sequence:
(1) vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane
(2) secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane
(3) vesicle contents are expelled from cell
(4) secretions accumulate within secretory vesicles
A. 1, 4, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 4, 2, 1, 3
E. 3, 1, 4, 2
4, 2, 1, 3
80
Receptor-mediated endocytosis
A. moves materials out of the cell.
B. is a type of passive transport.
C. exhibits specificity.
D. does not need ATP; the receptors supply the energy.
E. occurs if oxygen is available.
exhibits specificity
81
The bulk uptake of material by the formation of a vesicle is called
A. osmosis.
B. facilitated diffusion.
C. diffusion.
D. active transport.
E. endocytosis.
endocytosis
82
Cytoplasm is found
A. in the nucleus.
B. outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane.
C. in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum.
D. on the cristae of the mitochondria.
E. between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane
83
The cytoplasm is made up of
A. organelles.
B. Both cytogel and organelles.
C. Both cytosol and organelles.
D. cytosol.
E. cytogel.
both cytosol and organelles
84
Which of the following cell organelles is CORRECTLY matched with its function?
A. ribosome - energy production
B. microtubules - cell support
C. mitochondria - protein synthesis
D. smooth ER - ATP production
E. nucleolus - contains the genetic material of the cell
microtubules - cell support
85
The cytoskeleton consists of
A. ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus.
B. microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes.
C. microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments.
D. actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments.
E. lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules.
microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments
86
Absence of a cytoskeleton might affect
A. cell shape.
B. the ability of the cell to generate energy.
C. membrane transport.
D. vesicle formation.
E. the number of channel proteins in the cell membrane.
cell shape
87
Microtubules
A. are a component of mitochondria.
B. are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton.
C. provide structure and support to the cytoplasm.
D. contain the protein myosin.
E. are solid, supporting rods of protein.
provide structure and support to the cytoplasm
88
Which of the following is NOT an example of a cytoplasmic inclusion?
A. lipid droplets
B. hemoglobin
C. actin filaments
D. melanin
E. lipochrome
actin filaments
89
Of the organelles listed, which one does NOT contain microtubules?
A. microvilli
B. flagella
C. centrioles
D. cilia
E. spindle fibers
microvilli
90
Organelles
A. are unspecialized portions of a cell.
B. are extracellular structures.
C. vary in number and type depending on cell function.
D. are structural, but not functional parts of the cell.
E. generally lack membranes.
vary in number and type depending on cell function
91
The "control center" of the cell is the
A. endoplasmic reticulum.
B. mitochondrion.
C. nucleus.
D. plasma membrane.
E. ribosome.
nucleus
92
Which of the following events occurs in the nucleus?
A. ATP synthesis
B. ribosomal proteins formed
C. chromatin condenses to form chromosomes
D. manufacture of phospholipids
E. None of these events occurs in the nucleus.
chromatin condenses to form chromosomes
93
Which of the following structures is found in the nucleus?
A. chromosome
B. flattened membrane sacs
C. cisternae
D. cristae
E. cytosol
chromosomes
94
What organelle contains the chromosomes?
A. centrioles
B. ribosomes
C. lysosomes
D. nucleus
E. mitochondria
nucleus
95
Which mature cells do not have a nucleus?
A. columnar cells of small intestines
B. columnar cells of upper respiratory tract
C. spermatozoa
D. macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)
E. red blood cells
red blood cells
96
The nucleus of a cell functions to
A. control and coordinate cellular activities.
B. produce ATP.
C. digest lipids.
D. synthesize proteins.
E. produce secretory vesicles.
control and coordinate cellular activities
97
In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped with proteins. This complex is called
A. chromatin.
B. DNA particles.
C. nucleoli.
D. a DNA wrap.
E. cytoplasmic organelles.
chromatin
98
What is the organelle where subunits of ribosomes are manufactured?
A. flagellum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. nucleolus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
E. peroxisomes
nucleolus
99
Nucleoli
A. are located in the cytoplasm.
B. are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus.
C. have a distinct membrane.
D. regulate movement of materials into the nucleus.
E. produce ribosomal subunits.
produce ribosomal subunits
100
Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function?
A. nuclear pores - allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
B. chromatin - fluid portion of the nucleus
C. chromosomes - contains RNA and histones
D. nuclear envelope - contains the nucleolar organizer
E. nucleolus - DNA synthesis
nuclear pores - allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm
101
contains genetic information of the cell
nucleus
102
If a toxic drug inhibited mRNA synthesis, which type of synthesis would be most directly affected?
protein synthesis
103
Ribosomes are organelles responsible for
protein synthesis
104
What type of cell has abundant ribosomes?
fibroblast (makes protein fibers)
105
Cells that lack ribosomes cannot
engage in protein synthesis
106
What organelles are the sites of protein synthesis?
ribosomes
107
Skeletal muscle cells need large numbers of _______ to make the many proteins they
contain.
ribosomes
108
The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and toxins is
the
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
109
Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
A. lysosomes hydrolytic - enzymes
B. mitochondria - cristae
C. Golgi apparatus - cisternae
D. cilia - basal bodies
E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum -chromatin
smooth endoplasmic reticulum - chromatin
110
Which of the following organelles may or may not have ribosomes attached?
A. nucleolus
B. peroxisomes
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. flagellum
E. Golgi apparatus
endoplasmic reticulum
111
Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called
rough ER
112
A cell that produces many proteins for secretion would have large numbers of
rough ER and Golgi apparatus
113
Arrange the following in correct sequence:
(1) protein moves through ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi apparatus
(2) vesicle pinches off from the Golgi apparatus and carries pr oduct to plasma membrane
(3) Golgi apparatus modifies protein and then packages them into vesicles
(4) protein made by ribosomes on rough ER
4132
114
If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's _____
could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department.
Golgi apparatus
115
What organelle packages materials for secretion from the cell?
Golgi apparatus
116
The function of the Golgi apparatus is
packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids
117
A toxic drug destroyed the Golgi apparatus. This would affect
packaging of glycoproteins and lipoproteins
118
What cell type would have many Golgi apparatus?
mucus cell (secretes mucus)
119
What type of cell would have an abundance of lysosomes?
white blood cell, a phagocyte
120
What type of cell would have an abundance of peroxisomes?
liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide
121
Which of the following organelles function in the destruction of nonfunctional organelles?
A. basal bodies
B. centrioles
C. mitochondria
D. endoplasmic reticulum
E. lysosomes
lysosomes
122
The intracellular digestive organelle of a cell is the
lysosome
123
What organelles are small vacuoles containing oxidative enzymes?
peroxisomes
124
White blood cells digest other cells and so would be expected to
have large numbers of lysosomes
125
Which of the following activities is associated with lysosomes?
destruction of nonfunctional organelles
126
What is a large, active phagocytic cell?
macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)
127
You are looking at a cell with the electron microscope and you notice the following characteristics: presence of many mitochondria and lysosomes; few, if any, Golgi apparatus; and many ribosomes. Which of the following is the most likely function of that cell?
A. DNA replication
B. absorption of nutrients
C. intracellular digestion
D. modification of protein
E. secretion of lipids
intracellular digestion
128
The sacs containing hydrolytic enzymes are called
lysosomes
129
A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in
detoxification activities
130
A cell that breaks down and recycles proteins would have large numbers of
proteosomes
131
What type of cell has abundant mitochondria?
cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)
132
T/F.
A mitochondrial disease is passed to offspring via the father.
False
133
A cell's ability to replenish ATP is reduced by a metabolic poison. Which organelle is being affected?
mitochondrion
134
Experimental manipulation to increase the energy output of the cell might include
increasing the number of mitochondria
135
Which of the following terms does NOT relate to the mitochondria?
A. ATP
B. cristae
C. self replicating
D. oute r and inner membranes
E. vitamin A storage
vitamin A storage
136
When a person trains for running long distances, which of the following organelles increase in his/ her muscles?
mitochondria
137
Mitochondria
A. contains DNA.
B. have inner and outer membranes.
C. have inner folds called cristae.
D. are the cell's power plants.
E. All of these choices are correct.
all of these choices are correct
138
What organelles produce most of the cell's energy?
A. nucleus
B. lysosomes
C. centrioles
D. mitochondria
E. ribosomes
mitochondria
139
A cell can meet increased energy demands by an increase in
the number of mitochondria
140
A cell uses centrioles in the process of
cell division
141
The organelles that are the source of the spindle fibers are the
centrioles
142
The centrioles are found in a zone of cytoplasm close to the nucleus called the
centrosome
143
What type of cells are covered with microvilli for increased absorption?
columnar cells of small intestines
144
At the base of each cilium is a structure called the
basal body
145
The shaft of a flagellum contains _____________ microtubule doublets around its periphery.
9
146
Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of
length and numbers
147
Which of the following cell organelles does not contain microtubules?
A. cilia
B. flagella
C. spindle fibers
D. centrioles
E. All of these choices contain microtubules.
all of these choices contain microtubules
148
increase the surface area of the cell
Microvilli
149
Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubules have extensions that increase their surface
area called
microvilli
150
Which of t he following is an organelle of locomotion?
A. nucleolus
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. peroxisomes
D. Golgi apparatus
E. flagellum
flagellum
151
What is the only human cell with a flagellum?
spermatozoa
152
Which of the following are ciliated cells?
A. red blood cells
B. macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)
C. spermatozoa
D. columnar cells of upper respiratory tract
E. columnar cells of small intestines
columnar cells of upper respiratory tract
153
The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA) is known as
transcription
154
Which of the following sequences is correct?
A. translation transcription protein synthesis
B. transcription protein synthesis translation
C. translation protein synthesis transcripti on
D. transcription translation protein synthesis
E. protein synthesis translation transcription
transcription translation protein synthesis
155
What molecule(s) cause(s) a portion of a DNA molecule to unwind for transcription?
RNA polymerase
156
synthesizes RNA from DNA
Transcription
157
requires the pairing of codons on mRNA with anticodons on tRNA
translation
158
A DNA base sequence is A T G C C G. The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA
transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be
U A C G G C.
159
is synthesized when ga portion of a DNA molecule is transcribed
Messenger RNA
160
Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. DNA
E. None of these choices are correct.
tRNA
161
The anticodon sequence GUA pairs wit h which of the following codons?
CAU
162
The structural RNA of ribosomes is a
ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
163
A mRNA containing introns is a
pre-mRNA
164
If the amino acid coding region of a mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in
length, this molecule will contain _____ codons.
600
165
Which of the following is NOT true of a gene?
A. It is all the triplets needed to make a functional RNA or protein.
B. It is a segment of a DNA molec ule.
C. Each chromosome contains one gene.
D. It is the functional unit of heredity.
E. All of these are true of a gene.
Each chromosome contains one gene
166
The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the
sequence of
amino acids in a protein
167
All triplets required to code for synthesis of a protein are a
gene
168
Three adjacent nucleotides in mRNA are called a
codon
169
Posttranscriptional processing is the modification of
pre-mRNA to form functional mRNA
170
Which of the following is NOT posttranslational processing?
removal of introns from pre-mRNA
171
Portions of pre mRNA that do NOT code for parts of a protein are called
A. introns.
B. start codons.
C. exons.
D. stop codons.
E. All of these except exons do not code for parts of a protein.
all of these except exons do not code for parts of a protein
172
A DNA nucleotide sequence that signals the beginning of a gene is called a
promoter
173
Determine the sequence of the following events in a cell after exposure of the cell to a
chemical signal.
(1) increased synthesis of a protein
(2) the chemical signal combined with a cytoplasmic receptor
(3) an inc rease in the nuclear concentration of the chemical
(4) an increase in mRNA synthesis
(5) genes are activated
23541
174
A protein that is converted to an active enzyme is a
proenzyme
175
Which of the following is NOT associated with interphase?
The centrioles dupli cate.
B. The cell grows.
C. The cell does nothing but rest.
D. The cell does what it is designed to do.
E. The DNA replicates.
the cell does nothing but rest
176
DNA replication occurs during
the S phase of interphase
177
DNA replication results in t wo new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules
has one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and none newly synthesized strand of nucleotides
178
In DNA replication,
the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand
179
The leading strand of DNA is formed as
a continuous strand, adding to the 3´ end.
180
Before cell division occurs, DNA in the nucleus is condensed to form
chromatin
181
What is:
two daughter cells with the same amount of DNA as the mother cell
Mitosis
182
A phase:
the chromosomes condense, shorten and thicken
Prophase
183
A phase:
chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell
Anaphase
184
In which part of the c ell cycle do chromosomes align along the equator?
metaphase
185
Cytokinesis is completed at the end of this phase.
telophase
186
The time between cell divisions is called
interphase
187
Chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear during
prophase
188
Chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell during
anaphase
