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Anatomy and Physiology > Chapter 7 > Flashcards

Chapter 7 Flashcards

1
Q

The axial skeleton has ___ bones.

A

80

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2
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

the skull, the thoracic cage, and the vertebral column

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3
Q

The skull consist of

  • ___ cranial bones
  • ___ facial bones
  • ___ auditory ossicles
  • the _____ bone
A
  • 8 cranial bones
  • 14 facial bones
  • 6 auditory ossicles
  • the hyoid bone

(29 bones)

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4
Q

The thoracic cage consist of

A

24 ribs and the sternum

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5
Q

The vertebral column consists of

A

24 vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx

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6
Q

What are the functions of the axial skeleton?

A
  1. supports and protects organs in body cavities
  2. attaches to muscles of head, neck, and trunk
  3. perform respiratory movement
  4. stabilize or piston parts of appendicular skeleton that support the limbs
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7
Q

joints of the axial skeleton are _____ in movement but very strong

A

limited

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8
Q

suture that attaches frontal to parietal bone

A

coronal suture

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9
Q

suture that attaches temporal and parietal bone

A

squamous suture

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10
Q

suture that attaches parietal bone

A

sagittal suture

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11
Q

suture attaches occipital to parietal bone

A

lambdoid suture

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12
Q

Forms: the anterior portion of the cranium and roof of the orbits

Contains: frontal sinuses that secrete mucus that helps flush the nasal cavities

A

Frontal bones

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13
Q

what does the frontal bone contain?

A

frontal sinuses

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14
Q

The sphenoid is part of the _______ of the cranium.

A

floor

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15
Q

What are the features of the sphenoid?

A

the optic canals for optic nerves and sella turcica

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16
Q

Saddle shaped enclosure.

A

sella turcica

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17
Q

A depression within the sella turcica that holds the pituitary gland

A

hypophyseal fossa

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18
Q

What are the functions of the sphenoid?

A
  1. part of the floor of the cranium
  2. unites cranial and facial bones
  3. strengthens sides of the skull
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19
Q

What are the functions of the ethmoid?

A
  1. forms anteromedial floor of the cranium
  2. roof of the nasal cavity
  3. part of the nasal septum and medial orbital wall
  4. contains ethmoidal air cells
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20
Q

What are the 3 parts of the ethmoid?

A
  1. Cribriform plate
  2. Ethmoidal labyrinth
  3. The perpendicular plate
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21
Q

Part of the Ethmoid:
Floor of the cranium, roof of the nasal cavity, olfactory foramina permit passage of olfactory nerves for sense of smell.

A

Cribriform plate

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22
Q

Part of the Ethmoid:
superior nasal conchae
middle nasal conchae

A

Ethmoidal labyrinth

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23
Q

Part of the Ethmoid:

top part of the nasal septum

A

the perpendicular plate

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24
Q

Forms: part of the superior and lateral surface of the cranium

A

Parietal bones

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25
Q

Contributes to posterior, lateral , and inferior cranial surfaces.
Markings: external occipital protuberance, occipital condyles, foramen magnum, jugular foramen, and hypoglossal canals

A

Occipital bone

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26
Q

Occipital condyles articulate with

A

the 1st vertebrae of the neck

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27
Q

Foramen magnum

A

connects cranial and spinal cavities

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28
Q

Functions:

  1. Part of lateral walls of cranium and zygomatic arches
  2. Article with mandible
  3. Surround and protect the sense of organs of inner ear
  4. Attach muscles of jaw and head

Features: Zygomatic process, Mandibular fossa, external acoustic meatus, internal acoustic meatus, auditory ossicles

A

Temporal bones

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29
Q

Temporal bones articulate with the

A

mandible

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30
Q

Temporal bones surround and protect the

A

sense organs of inner ear

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31
Q

attachment for muscles. contains mastoid air cells connected to the middle ear

A

mastoid process

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32
Q

attachment for ligaments supporting the hyoid bone and tendons of several muscles

A

styloid process

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33
Q

Articulates with: temporal process of zygomatic bone

forms: zygomatic arch

A

Zygomatic process

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34
Q

Articulates with the mandible

A

mandibular fossa

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35
Q

How many auditory ossicles are in each ear?

A

3

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36
Q

What is the job of auiditory ossicles?

A

Transfer sound from tympanic membrane to inner ear

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37
Q

What are the functions of the nasal bone?

A
  1. Support the bridge of the nose

2. Connect to cartilages of the distal part of the nose

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38
Q

The smallest face bones, form part of the medial wall of the orbit (eye socket)

A

the lacrimal bones

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39
Q

What are the functions of the palatine bones?

A
  1. form the posterior portion of the hard plate

2. contribute to the floors of the orbits

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40
Q

What are the divisions of the palatine bones?

A

horizontal plate and perpendicular plate

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41
Q

What are the zygomatic bones?

A

cheek bones

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42
Q

maxialle support the ______ teeth.

A

upper

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43
Q

What are the features of the maxilla?

A
  1. alveolar processes
  2. Palatine processes
  3. maxillary sinsuses
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44
Q

maxillae feature that:

border the mouth and support the upper teeth

A

alveolar processes

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45
Q

maxillae feature that:

form the hard plate (roof of mouth)

A

palatine processes

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46
Q

maxialle feature that:

lighten bone

A

maxillary sinuses

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47
Q

What are the functions of the inferior nasal conchae?

A
  1. Create air turbulence in the nasal cavity
  2. Increase the epithelial surface
  3. Warm and humidify air
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48
Q

Forms the inferior portion of the bony nasal septum

A

Vomer

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49
Q

Only movable articulation with the skull

A

mandible

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50
Q

considered the “floating bone”

A

the hyoid bone

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51
Q

what are the functions of the hyoid bone?

A
  1. support the larynx
  2. greater horn
  3. lesser horn
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52
Q

the greater horn of the hyoid bone attaches muscles that move the _______.

A

tongue

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53
Q

the lesser horn is used for

A

attachment for hyoid and laryngeal ligaments

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54
Q

the lesser horn is connected to the _______ ________ of temporal bones by the stylohoid ligament

A

styloid processes

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55
Q

The eye sockets are called

A

orbits

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56
Q

Paranasal sinuses are air filled chambers connected to the

A

nasal cavities

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57
Q

In the infant skull, ______ is not complete at birth

A

fusion

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58
Q

The infant skull _ frontal bones and _ occipital bones.

A

2, 4

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59
Q

soft spot:

largest fontanelles. persists until about age 2. covers a major blood vessel, pulses as heart beats.

A

anterior

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60
Q

soft spot:

junction of squamous and coronal sutures

A

Sphenoidal

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61
Q

soft spot:

junction of squamous and lambdoid sutures

A

Mastoid

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62
Q

soft spot:

junction of lambdoid and sagittal sutures

A

Posterior

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63
Q

what is craniostenodid?

A

the premature closing 1 or more fontanelles

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64
Q

what is plagiocephaly?

A

suture are open. flat spots

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65
Q

The vertebral column provides

A

protection and support

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66
Q

How many bones does the vertebral column have?

A

26

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67
Q

The neck:

_ cervical vertrebrae

A

7

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68
Q

The upper back:

_ thoracic vertebrae

A

12

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69
Q

The thoracic vertebrae articulate with

A

1 or more ribs

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70
Q

the lower back:

_ lumbar vertebrae

A

5

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71
Q

what are the 2 primary curves?

A

thoracic curve and sacral curve

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72
Q

curve that accommodates the thoracic organs

A

thoracic curve

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73
Q

curve that accommodates

A

abdominopelvic organs

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74
Q

Primary curves are one that

A

are present during fetal development

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75
Q

Secondary curves appear

A

after birth

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76
Q

what are the two secondary curves

A
  1. cervical curve

2. lumbar curve

77
Q

curve that develops as an infant learns to lift its head. balances head not he neck

A

cervical curve

78
Q

curve that balances the wight of the trunk over the lower limps. ability to stand

A

lumbar curve

79
Q

Exagertated thoracic spine. Caused by poor posture, compression fractures

A

Kyphosis

80
Q

Lumbar curve curves inward. Caused by pregnant, weight gain, muscular

A

Lordosis

81
Q

Can cover thoracic or lumbar curve. “S” curve of the spine. Muscle imbalance. Underlying causes of cerebral palsy. Genetic

A

Scoliosis

82
Q

Function: transfer weight along the spine

A

vertebral body

83
Q

forms posterior and lateral margins of the vertebral foramen

A

vertebral arch

84
Q

What is the vertebral arch composed of?

A
  1. pedicles
  2. laminae
  3. spinous process
  4. transverse process
85
Q

pedicles- ?

A

the walls

86
Q

laminae- ?

A

the roof

87
Q

projects posteriorly from point of fusion of the laminae

A

spinous processes

88
Q

project laterally from where pedicles join the laminae. Sites of muscle attachments. May articulate with the ribs

A

Transverse processes

89
Q
  1. Extend superiorly and inferiorly to articulate with adjacent vertebrae

2 parts

A

Articular processes

90
Q

What are the 2 parts of the articular process?

A
  1. superior articular process

2. inferior articular process

91
Q

articulate with the inferior articular processes of a superior vertebrae

A

superior articular process

92
Q

articulate with the superior articular processes of an inferior vertebra

A

inferior articular process

93
Q

Spaces formed between successive pedicles. Allow passage of nerves and blood vessels

A

Intervertebral foramina

94
Q

The sacrum is __ fused vertebrae

A

5

95
Q

How are the vertebral regions named?

A

By a capital letter to designate the region and the relative portion of the vertebra within the region indicated by a subscript

96
Q

The thoracic cage consists of

A
  1. thoracic vertebrae
  2. ribs
  3. sternum
97
Q

The thoracic cage protects

A

the heart, lungs, thymus, and other thoracic cavity organs

98
Q

The sternal body attaches to costal cartilages of ribs

A

2-7

99
Q

How many pairs of ribs do we have?

A

12

100
Q

What are the two types of ribs

A

true and false

101
Q

Ribs 1-7 are called

A

true ribs

102
Q

Ribs 8-10

A

false ribs

103
Q

Ribs 11-12

A

floating ribs

104
Q

What does the movement of ribs look like?

A

Typical ribs act like a bucket handle held out to the side horizontality. Pushing down moves ribs inward. Pushing up moves ribs outward

105
Q

Protects vertebral arteries and veins serving the brain

A

Transverse foramen

106
Q

How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?

A

126

107
Q

The appendicular skeleton is made up of the

A

limbs and griddles

108
Q

The pectoral girdle is also called the

A

shoulder girdle

109
Q

The pectoral girdle consist if

A
  1. an s-shaped clavicle

2. a broad, flat scapula

110
Q

The clavicles are

A

S- shaped bones

111
Q

The clavicles originate at the

A

manubrium (sternal end)

112
Q

The clavicles articulate with the

A

acrominon (acromial end)

113
Q

Broad, flat triangles. Body has 3 sides.

A

Scapula

114
Q

What are the 3 sides of the body of the scapula?

A
  1. Superior border
  2. medial (vertebral) border
  3. Lateral ( axillary) border
115
Q

Anterior surface of the scapula is called

A

subscapular fossa

116
Q

The glenoid cavity articulates with ________.

A

humerus

117
Q

The glenoid cavity forms what joint?

A

glenohumeral joint

118
Q

What processes are in the scapula?

A
  1. Coracoid process

2. Acrominan process

119
Q

Which process in scapula?

Location: projects anterior and superior to glenoid cavity

A

Coracoid process

120
Q

Which process in the scapula?

Location: extends laterally , projects posterior and superior to the glenoid cavity. Continous with the scapular spine

A

Acromion process

121
Q

The acromminon process articulates with the

A

acrominon

122
Q

The acrominon process forms what joint

A

the acrominiovascular joint

123
Q

What are the posterior features of the spine

A
  1. Supraspinous fossa

2. Infraspinous fossa

124
Q

What are the parts of the upper limb?

A
  1. The humerous

2. The forearm

125
Q

What makes up the humorous?

A

2 epihsysis and a diaphysis

126
Q

The humorous is also called the what?

A

the brachium

127
Q

The proximal end of the humorous articulates with the

A

glenoid cavity

128
Q

Proximal end of the humorous, more rounded , on the medial side

A

the head of the humorous

129
Q

Rounded projection on lateral epiphyseal surface

A

Greater tubercle

130
Q

smaller projection on anterior medial surface of epiphysis

A

lesser tubercle

131
Q

a bulge in the shaft that attaches to the deltoid muscles

A

deltoid tuberosity

132
Q

shaft expands at distal ends to form

A

medial and lateral condyles

133
Q

The condyle of the humerus articulates with the _____ and _____

A

radius and ulna

134
Q

Articular regions of the the condyle:

articulates with the ulna

A

Trochlea

135
Q

Articular regions of the condyle:

Articulates with the radius

A

Capitulum

136
Q

The forearm is also called the

A

ante brachium

137
Q

The forearm contains two long bones

A

ulna and radius

138
Q

Shafts are connected by the

A

interosseous membrane

139
Q

radial notch on ulna articulates radial head

A

proximal radio-ulnar joint

140
Q

Lateral surface of head of ulna articulates with ulnar notch on distal end of radius

A

distal radio-ulnar joint

141
Q

Proximal end of the ulna, the point of the elbow, trochlear notch

A

the olecranon

142
Q

Articulates with the trochlea of humerus

A

trochlear notch

143
Q

inferior lip of trochlear notch

A

the coronoid process

144
Q

with forearm extended: Olecranon enters _________ _______ of the humerus

A

olecranon process

145
Q

With forearm flexed: ________ process enters fossa of the humerus.

A

coronoid

146
Q

lateral bone of the forearm

A

radius

147
Q

disc shaped proximal end of the radius, articulates with the capitulum of humerus

A

radial head

148
Q

attachment for biceps brachia muscle

A

radial tuberosity

149
Q

pointed projection on the postal end of the radius. helps stabilze the wrist joints

A

radial styloid process

150
Q

How many carpal bones are there?

A

8

151
Q

4 proximal carpal

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

152
Q

closest to styloid process of radius

A

scaphoid

153
Q

which carpal bone:

pea-shaped, anterior to the triquetrum

A

pisiform

154
Q

4 distal carpal bones

A

trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

155
Q

medial, distal carpal bone, prominent hook projects anteriorly

A

hamate

156
Q

How are metacarpals numbered?

A

1-5 starting with the thumb

157
Q

the pollex is also called the

A

thumb

158
Q

the pelvic griddle is made up of 2 hip bones also called ______ bones.

A

coxal

159
Q

Coxal bones made uo of 3 fused bones:

A
  1. illium
  2. ischium
  3. pubis
160
Q

fibrocartilage pad connecting the right and left pubic bones

A

pubic symphais

161
Q

The meeting point of the illium, ischium, pubis. location: under illium, in between ischium and pubis. Smooth cup shaped surface. Articulates with head of femur

A

The acetabulum

162
Q

Consist of iliac spines, greater sciatic notch, iliac crest and articular, surface

A

illium

163
Q

passage of sciatic nerve to lower limb

A

greater sciatic notch

164
Q

important ridge for muscle attachment

A

iliac crest

165
Q

the ischial tuberosity is the attachment for

A

hamstring muscles

166
Q

The pelvis includes

A

2 coral bones, sacrum, coccyx

167
Q

The sacroiliac joint is the the articulation between the

A

sacrum anf adjacent ilium

168
Q

longest and heaviest bone in the body

A

femur

169
Q

The parts of the femur

A

epiphysis, metaphysic, and diaphysis

170
Q

The femoral head articulates with the pelvis at the

A

acteabulm

171
Q

the femoral head attaches at the

A

fovea capitis

172
Q

The neck of the femur is the narrow area between

A

the head and shaft

173
Q

which trochanter:

large rough projections

A

greater trochanter

174
Q

which trochanter:

smaller projection extending posteriorly and medially

A

lesser trochanter

175
Q

The trochanters are separated by (anterior and posterior)

A

a: patellar surface
p: intercondylar fossa

176
Q

medial and lateral condyles are separated by

A

intercondylar fossa and patellar surface

177
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A

seasomid

178
Q

the patella is formed within the tendon of

A

quadriceps femoris

179
Q

the patella base attaches at the

A

quadriceps tendon

180
Q

The patella apex attaches at the

A

patellar ligament

181
Q

supports body weight, larger than fibula, medial to fibula

A

the tibia

182
Q

the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with

A

the medial and lateral condyles of the femur

183
Q

the tibial tuberosity attaches to the

A

patellar ligament

184
Q

medial projection at the ankle

A

medial malleolus

185
Q

the head of the fibula articulates with the

A

tibia

186
Q

distal tip that extends laterally to the ankle. provides lateral stability for ankle

A

lateral malleolus

187
Q

how many tarsal bones are there?

A

7

188
Q

carries weight from tibia

A

talus

189
Q

transfer weight from leg to ground and attaches at the achilles tendon.

A

calcaneus

Anatomy and Physiology (12 decks)

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