Chapter 7: Occupational Health & Safety Flashcards
(79 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following government agencies have occupational health and safety mandates that animal facilities must comply with?
- OSHA
- EPA
- NRC
- FDA
- APHIS
- OLAW
A
- OSHA
- EPA
- NRC
- OLAW
2
Q
What does the EPA regulate?
A
Environmental issues
3
Q
What does OSHA regulate?
A
Health and safety requirements
4
Q
What does OLAW regulate?
A
Occupational health and experimentation with hazardous materials
5
Q
What does NRC regulate?
A
Safe handling of radioactive isotopes
6
Q
What is a risk assessment?
A
A risk assessment includes knowing what hazards are present and determining the level of protection necessary to minimize the danger they pose
7
Q
Give two reasons why it is important to obtain a new employee’s health history
A
1- in order to identify any condition that could increase the employee’s risk
2- to provide a baseline to identify any subsequent changes in the employees health states
8
Q
Name five critical factors that help reduce the threat of injury or illness from various hazards in an animal facility:
A
1- proper equipment storage 2- clean floor 3- changing filters 4- disinfection of work surfaces 5- proper clothing and footwear
9
Q
Give 5 examples of activities that may represent ergonomic hazards in an animal facility
A
1- pulling 2- pushing 3- lifting 4- bending 5- carrying heavy loads
10
Q
Name 2 items often present in animal facilities that have the potential to cause severe frostbite
A
1- liquid nitrogen
2- dry ice
11
Q
The threshold limit value does not take ________________ into account.
A
The cumulative effect of exposure to many chemicals
12
Q
Where is the best place to monitor the environmental levels of waste anesthetic gases in an animal facility?
A
In the breathing zone of the most heavily exposed workers
13
Q
Which if the following items is not a component of the hazard communication standard for labels on safety data sheets? A- hazard pictographs B- hazard statements C- hazard number D- signal words
A
C- hazard number
14
Q
What additional guidelines and safety measures are included in the ABSL level as compared to the corresponding BSL level?
A
Animal waste handling and facility operation
15
Q
Name 3 vaccinations that may be recommended for personnel working with laboratory animals.
A
1- tetanus
2- rabies
3- hepatitis B
16
Q
What is the main difference between an isotope and a radioisotope?
A
Isotopes are stable (they do not decay), and radioisotopes decay and produce radiation
17
Q
Which statement best describes beta particles?
A- they consist of two protons
B- they are charged particles, either an electron or a positron
C- they are a type of electromagnetic radiation
D- they are stable particles
A
B- they are charged particles, either an electron or a positron
18
Q
Thick dense shielding must be used to protect a worker from which of the following types of radiation? A- alpha particles and gamma radiation B- beta particles and x-rays C- gamma radiation and x-rays D- alpha and beta particles
A
C- gamma radiation and x-rays
19
Q
What type of radiation does radium-223 produce
A
Alpha particle
20
Q
What type of radiation does iodine-125 produce
A
Gamma radiation
21
Q
What type of radiation does carbon-14 produce
A
Beta particles
22
Q
What type of radiation does fluorine-18 produce?
A
Beta particle
23
Q
What type of particle does phosphorus-32 produce?
A
Beta-particle
24
Q
What type of radiation does Tritium produce?
A
Beta particle
25
What type of radiation does Americium-241 produce?
Alpha particle
26
Why is it generally considered best to use powdered rather than powder-free medical exam gloves?
Because the manufacturing of powder-free gloves may weaken the material and lead to more frequent pin holes and tears
27
Which class of Biosafety cabinets offers the most protection to personnel?
Class III
28
What easy-to-recognize characteristic distinguishes a laminar flow workstation from a class I or II Biosafety cabinet?
All Biosafety cabinets have a front window. Laminar flow work stations do not have a front window
29
What type of waste is soiled bedding of breeding animals?
General waste
30
What type of waste is solved bedding of animals in ABSL-3 studies?
Hazardous waste
31
What type of waste is carcass of healthy animals?
General waste
32
What type of waste is hypodermic needles?
Hazardous waste
33
What type of waste is radioactive materials?
Hazardous waste
34
What type of waste is feed that fell on the floor?
General waste
35
What type of waste is used sharps container
Hazardous waste
36
True or False
| Hazardous waste includes contaminated items such as disposable instruments and supplies
True
37
True or False
Materials used in the processing of blood, blood derivatives, or body fluids of infected animals should be considered hazardous waste
True
38
True or False
| A used sharps container should be sealed to prevent leakage and disposed of as general waste
False
39
True or False
| Steam autoclaving is the method of choice for decontaminating small amounts of most infectious waste
True
40
True or False
| Some infectious waste can be disposed of ina sanitary landfill after incineration of autoclaving
True
41
True or False
There may be special institutional or local requirements which apply to the management and disposal of non-radioactive animal bedding which contains excreta
True
42
True or False
All non-radioactive disposable sharp items should be placed in prominently labeled, leak-resistant, puncture-resistant containers
True
43
True or False
| Disposal injection needles should always be recapped before disposal
False
44
True or False
| Chemical decontamination can be used for BSL-2 agents
True
45
True or False
| Dry radioactive waste can be sent to sanitary landfills
False
46
```
Work with moderate risk agents that are associated with human diseases of varying severity should be performed at what ABSL level?
A- 3
B- 1
C- 4
D- 2
```
D- 2
47
```
Which article of personal protective equipment would NOT be necessary when processing waste in an autoclave in a basic containment laboratory?
A- Sturdy shoes
B- A respirator
C- Face shield
D- Rubber Apron
```
B- A respirator
48
```
Which class of biosafety cabinets offers the most protection to personnel?
A- Class III
B- Class II
C- Class IV
D- Class I
```
A- Class III
49
```
Which type of radiation is electromagnetic radiation generated from radioactive decay?
A- Alpha particles
B- X-rays
C- Beta particles
D- Gamma radiation
```
D- Gamma radiation
50
```
Which article of PPE is most important to wear when mixing caustic detergents?
A- steel toed shoes
B- Eye protection
C- Lab coat
D- Hair cover
```
B- Eye protection
51
```
Heavy equipment, sharps, and animal bites are considered what type of hazard?
A- Allergenic
B- Zoonotic
C- Physical
D- Biological
```
C- Physical
52
What is Bremsstrahlung?
A- an alpha-emitting radioisotope
B- A type of breakdown product of alpha particles
C- AN X-ray produced by beta particles when decelerate
D- A subatomic particle that is positively charged
C- An X-ray produced by beta particles when they decelerate
53
What is the first step in developing an occupational health and safety program?
A- Choose a staff person who will be responsible for the program
B- Make a list of all existing safety equipment
C- Identify the types of hazards present in the facility
D- Decide on a budget
C- Identify the types of hazards present in the facility
54
```
Which type of ionizing radiation is best described as small particles that move at high speed and are moderately penetrating?
A- Gamma radiation
B- Beta particles
C- Alpha particles
D- X-rays
```
B- Beta particles
55
```
Which type of chemical responds strongly in the presence of water?
A- Toxic
B- Corrosive
C- Reactive
D- Ignitable
```
C- Reactive
56
```
Which of the following is used to represent an estimate of the reasonable level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without adverse effects?
A- Threshold Limit Value
B- Maximum exposure Limit
C- Maximum Allowable Limit
D- Safe Threshold Level
```
A- Threshold Limit Value
57
```
Which of the following describes carbon-14, tritium, and iodine-125?
A- Electromagnetic waves
B- Organic compounds
C- Atomic numbers
D - Radioisotopes
```
D- Radioisotopes
58
Which of the following helps to quickly identify that a laminar flow workstation is not a biological safety cabinet?
A- It operates under continuous negative pressure
B- There is no HEPA filter
C- The airflow is directed toward the rear of the cabinet
D- It lacks a front window
D- It lacks a front window
59
Establishing good containment safeguards for general waste helps prevent which issue from occurring?
A- Dispersal of pathogens and escape of radioactive material
B- Objectionable odors and formation of allergenic aerosols
C- Objectionable odors and escape of radioactive material
D- Accidents with sharps and dispersal of asbestos
B- Objectionable odors and formation of allergenic aerosols
60
What do the “N”, “R”, and “P” in the description of respirators refer to?
A- Air pressure under which it operates
B- The category of worker that is protected
C- The respirator’s filter resistance to oil in aerosol
D- The ability of the filter to remove particulate matter
C- The respirator’s filter resistance to oil in aerosol
61
```
Thick dense shielding must be used to protect a worker from which of the following types of radiation?
A- Gamma radiation and x-rays
B- Beta particles and x-rays
C- Alpha and beta particles
D- Alpha particles and gamma radiation
```
A- Gamma radiation and X-rays
62
Who has the primary responsibility of protecting an animal care technician from exposure to hazards in the animal facility?
A- The unit manager
B- The IACUC
C- The technician
D- Environmental health and safety personnel
C- The technician
63
```
Statistics show that about ______% of the people who work with laboratory animals develop allergic symptoms.
A- 63
B- 25
C- 16
D- 44
```
D- 44
64
What is the purpose of a radiation film badge?
A- To measure the level of radiation from each x-ray
B- To monitor exposure to radiation over time
C- To protect the wearer from gamma radiation
D- To indicate that the wearer works with ionizing radiation
B- To monitor exposure to radiation over time
65
```
Researchers who work with serum, blood, or tissues from humans or apes should receive which vaccine?
A- Typhoid
B- Measles
C- Influenza
D- Hepatitis B
```
D- Hepatitis B
66
What best describes beta particles?
A- They are stable particles
B- They consist of two protons
C- They are charged particles, either an electron or a positron
D- They are a type of electromagnetic radiation
C- They are charged particles, either an electron or a positron
67
```
What ABSL level should be used when working with an agent whose risk of transmission is unknown?
A- 1
B- 4
C- 2
D- 3
```
B- 4
68
```
For easy identification of different items in first-aid kits, a system based on _____ has been adopted.
A- Numbers
B- Symbols
C- Pictograms
D- Color
```
D- Color
69
```
For which type of waste is incineration the method of choice?
A- Infectious waste
B- Radioactive waste
C- Mixed waste
D- Sharps
```
A- Infectious waste
70
```
Which type of radiation is electromagnetic radiation generated non-radioactively?
A- Beta particles
B- Gamma radiation
C- X-rays
D- Alpha particles
```
C- X-rays
71
What determines the selection of a type of respirator?
A- The comfort of the user
B- The results of a pulmonary function test
C- The cost of the apparatus
D- The nature and degree of potential hazard
D- The nature and degree of potential hazard
72
What is the most essential component of an effective occupational health and safety program?
A- Proper use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
B- An adequate risk assessment
C- A well-designed facility
D- A comprehensive physical exam for every new employee
B- An adequate risk assessment
73
```
Which ABSL level relates to infectious agents that can cause serious or potentially lethal diseases when inhaled?
A- ABSL-4 only
B- ABSL-1 and higher
C- ABSL-3 and higher
D- ABSL 2 and higher
```
C- ABSL-3 and higher
74
```
What is the concern when disposing of bedding from healthy animals?
A- Cross-contamination
B- Radiation emission
C- Allergenic aerosols
D- Toxic substances
```
C- Allergenic aerosols
75
What protective item is required in facilities housing aquatic species?
A- Auto-locking doors
B- A class-III biosafety cabinet
C- A decontamination shower
D- GFCI (ground-fault circuit interrupter) outlets
D- GFCI (ground-fault circuit interrupter) outlets
76
Which of the following best describes zoonoses?
A- A disease of exotic animals often found in zoos
B- An infection that can be transmitted between animals and humans
C- A group of infectious agents that affect most animals
D- A type of animal restraint that uses a ring inserted in the cartilage of the nose
B- An infection that can be transmitted between animals and humans
77
```
Regularly scheduled testing for tuberculosis is necessary for all personnel who work with which species?
A- Nonhuman primates
B- Amphibians
C- Rodents
D- Sheep and goats
```
A- Nonhuman primates
78
What action must always be done before opening the door of an autoclave?
A- Prepare a fire extinguisher
B- Disconnect the autoclave from the electricity source
C- Clean the outside of the door with disinfectant
D- Check the pressure gauge
D- Check the pressure gauge
79
```
As a radioactive substance decays, the energy and particles that are emitted are referred to by which term?
A- Ionization
B- Half life
C- Radiation
D- Isotopes
```
C- Radiation
