Chapter 7 Skeletal System axial Flashcards

1
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system
is called
a) rheumatics.
b) podiatry.
c) orthopedics.
d) cardiology.
e) dermatology.

A

c) orthopedics.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body
d) Children have more bones than adults
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles

A

e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles

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3
Q

Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum

A

d) Carpals

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4
Q

Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsals
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle

A

e) Clavicle

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5
Q

Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of
the bones.

A

The human body contains five types of bones based on shape. Long bones have greater
length than width and consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities. Short bones are
somewhat cube-shaped because they are nearly equal in length and width. Flat bones are
generally thin and composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bones tissue enclosing a
layer of spongy bone tissue. Irregular bones have complex shapes and cannot be grouped into
any of the previous categories. Sesamoid bones develop in certain tendons where there is
considerable friction, tension and physical stress and are shaped similarly to a sesame seed.

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6
Q

Which of the following types of bone is the occipital bone?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone

A

c) Flat bone

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels
b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen
d) They help form joints
e) They can be depressions or projections

A

c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen

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8
Q

An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called
a
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.

A

b) foramen.

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9
Q

A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a
a) foramen.
b) condyle.
c) tuberosity.
d) head.
e) trochanter.

A

d) head.

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10
Q

A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a
a) crest.
b) trochanter.
c) sulcus.
d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

A

a) crest.

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11
Q

Bones in the following area protect the brain.
a) Cranium
b) Vertebral column
c) Sacrum
d) Facial
e) Rib cage

A

a) Cranium

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12
Q

Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull?
a) Maxilla
b) Nasal
c) Lacrimal
d) Mandible
e) Zygomatic

A

d) Mandible

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a) Parietal
b) Nasal
c) Maxillae
d) Zygomatic
e) Palatine

A

a) Parietal

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to bones of the skull?
a) Some skull bone cavities are covered with a mucous membrane
b) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible
c) The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures
d) The facial bones provide support for the entrance of the digestive system
e) Some bones of the skull contain sinus cavities

A

c) The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures

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15
Q

Which of the following cranial bones forms the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and
part of the cranial floor?
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Ethmoid

A

b) Temporal

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16
Q

Which of the following cranial bones contains the organs of hearing and balance, and
articulate with the mandible?
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Sphenoid

A

b) Temporal

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17
Q

Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with
every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital
b) Frontal
c) Ethmoid
d) Parietal
e) Sphenoid

A

e) Sphenoid

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18
Q

Which of the following is a cranial bone that is located anterior to the sphenoid and posterior
to the nasal bones and contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve?
a) Ethmoid
b) Frontal
c) Palatine
d) Maxilla
e) Temporal

A

a) Ethmoid

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19
Q

Which facial bone articulates with teeth?
a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine
c) Vomer
d) Maxillae
e) Nasal

A

d) Maxillae

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a) Vomer
b) Palatine
c) Lacrimal
d) Occipital
e) Mandible

A

d) Occipital

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21
Q

Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye. Include a description of the
portion of the orbit formed by each bone

A

Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones comprise the roof of the orbit. Parts of the
zygomatic and sphenoid bones form the lateral wall of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic
and palatine bones make up the floor of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and
sphenoid bones form the medial wall of the orbit.

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22
Q

Briefly describe the location of the four most prominent sutures of the skull including the
articulating bones.

A

The coronal suture unites the frontal bone and both parietal bones. The sagittal suture
unites the two parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull. The lambdoid suture unites the
two parietal bones to the occipital bone. The squamous sutures unite the parietal and temporal
bones on the lateral aspects of the skull

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23
Q

Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.

A

The fontanels are important in allowing flexibility during childbirth and allow brain
growth after birth.

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24
Q

Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.

A

The sinuses lighten the skull and contain a mucous membrane lining that helps moisten
and clean inspired air. The sinus also aid in enhancing the quality of the voice by acting as
resonating chambers

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25
Briefly describe the six fontanels of the infant skull including their location, shape and time of closure.
The unpaired anterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the frontal bone. It is roughly diamond shaped and is the largest fontanel. It usually closes 18–24 months after birth. The unpaired posterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone. It is smaller than the anterior fontanel and closes about 2 months after birth. The paired anterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones and are smaller in shape. They close about 3 months after birth. The paired posterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the parietal, occipital and temporal bones and are irregularly shaped. They begin to close 1 to 2 months after birth, but closure is not complete until 12 months.
26
Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium
d) Hyoid
27
The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the of the temporal bone. a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line
b) styloid process
28
Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes b) Cardiac arrest c) Gun shot d) Strangulation e) Choking
d) Strangulation
29
List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.
There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck region. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae posterior to the thoracic cavity. The five lumbar vertebrae support the lower back. There is one sacrum consisting of five fused sacral vertebrae. There is one coccyx (tail bone) consisting of four fused coccygeal vertebrae.
30
Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs. b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs. d) true ribs. e) separated ribs.
d) true ribs.
31
The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the a) spinous process of a thoracic vertebra. b) spinous process of a lumbar vertebra. c) transverse process of a thoracic vertebra. d) xiphoid process of the sternum. e) manubrium of the sternum
c) transverse process of a thoracic vertebra.
32
What is the function of the intervertebral discs? a) Compress the vertebral bones b) Help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Store calcium d) Act as a spinal fluid reservoir e) Provide muscle attachment
b) Help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column
33
The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves. b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.
a) thoracic and sacral curves.
34
What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas? a) primary projection b) occular process c) odontoid process d) cervical projection e) transverse process
c) odontoid process
35
Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans? a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12
b) L4
36
Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females b) Males c) Both genders d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender
a) Females
37
Inflammation of one or more costal cartilages can mimic chest pain associated with a heart attack. What is this condition called? a) Costochondritis b) Arthritis c) Cartilaginous distension d) Otitis e) Intercostal space distension
a) Costochondritis
38
Which condition is characterized by an increase or exaggeration of the lumbar curve of the vertebral column? a) Lumbar stenosis b) Scoliosis c) Kyphosis d) Lordosis e) Spina bifida
d) Lordosis
39
Which condition is also called "hunchback" due to an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column? a) Herniated disc b) Scoliosis c) Kyphosis d) Lordosis e) Spina bifida
c) Kyphosis
40
Which condition is characterized by a lateral bending of the vertebral column in the thoracic region? a) Herniated disc b) Scoliosis c) Kyphosis d) Lordosis e) Spina bifida
b) Scoliosis
41
Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column? a) Herniated disc b) Scoliosis c) Kyphosis d) Lordosis e) Spina bifida
a) Herniated disc
42
Which of the following bones houses a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity? a) Maxilla b) Sphenoid c) Nasal d) Ethmoid e) Lacrimal
e) Lacrimal
43
Which bone forms the zygomatic arch with the zygomatic bone? a) Temporal b) Sphenoid c) Mandible d) Frontal e) Parietal
a) Temporal
44
Which are the three components of the nasal septum? a) Inferior nasal concha, vomer and lacrimal bone b) Vomer, superior nasal concha, and septal cartilage c) Inferior nasal concha, septal cartilage, perpendicular plate of ethmoid d) Vomer, septal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of ethmoid e) Vomer, septal cartilage, and crista galli of ethmoid
d) Vomer, septal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of ethmoid
45
The sella turcica is a bony depression found in which cranial bone? a) Sphenoid b) Frontal c) Temporal d) Ethmoid e) Occipital
a) Sphenoid
46
The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in which cranial bone? a) Ethmoid b) Sphenoid c) Lacrimal d) Temporal e) Parietal
b) Sphenoid
47
If cerebrospinal fluid was in the nasal cavity, this would indicate damage to the [dropdown 1] bone. If cerebrospinal fluid was found in the ear, this would indicate damage to the [dropdown 2] bone. Dropdown choices: ethmoid frontal nasal sphenoid temporal Answer 1: ethmoid Answer 2: sphenoid
Answer 1: ethmoid Answer 2: sphenoid
48
Craniosyntosis occurs when bones in an infant skull fuse too early causing a misshapen head. What bones would be involved in craniosyntosis? Select all that apply. a) Frontal b) Mandible c) Maxillae d) Nasal e) Occipital f) Palatine g) Parietal h) Temporal j) Sphenoid k) Vomer l) Zygomatic
Answer 1: a Answer 2: e Answer 3: g Answer 4: h Answer 5: j
49
The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae during development. There are 7 cervical vertebrae which contain transverse foramen. There are 12 thoracic vertebrae with long spinous processes. The largest vertebral body is seen in the 5 lumber vertebrae. There are fused 4 sacrial vertebrae found between the hips and 4 coccyx.
50
Craniodiaphyseal dysplasia is a bone disorder that causes calcium to accumulate in the skull. These deposits of calcium decrease the foramina size in the skull. What would be an effect of smaller foramina? Select all that apply. a) Compression on cranial nerves may occur b) Compression on spinal nerves may occur c) Inadequate blood flow to structures in the skull d) Intracranial hypertension (high blood pressure) e) Brain displacement within the brain
Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Answer 3: d
51
Hyaline cartilage is associated with numerous structures in the skeletal system. Which bones and structures of the axial skeletal area associated with hyaline cartilage? Select all that apply. a) Costal cartilage b) Xiphoid process c) Septal cartilage d) Annulus fibrosus e) Laminae f) Epiphyseal plate
a) Costal cartilage b) Xiphoid process e) Laminae
52
Which bone borders the orbit and the cranial cavity? Select all that apply. a) Sphenoid b) Occipital c) Parietal d) Temporal e) Ethmoid f) Lacrimal g) Frontal h) Zygomatic j) Maxilla
a) Sphenoid e) Ethmoid g) Frontal
53
In infants, hydrocephalus, water on the brain, causes bulging and swelling in the head. The head appears larger than expected. What structure in the axial skeletal system will bulge? a) Sinuses b) Intervertebral discs c) Fontanels d) Sutures e) Foramen
c) Fontanels
54
The lateral walls of your nasal cavity are formed by 1) ethmoid 2) sphenoid 3) maxillae 4) inferior nasal conchae 5) palatine bones 6) lacrimal bones 7) temporal bones a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5 e) 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1) ethmoid 2) sphenoid 3) maxillae 4) inferior nasal conchae 5) palatine bones
55
A vertebra with no vertebral body, transverse foramina and a potential bifid process would describe a) sacral vertebrae. b) coccyx vertebrae. c) cervical vertebrae. d) lumbar vertebrae. e) thoracic vertebrae.
b) coccyx vertebrae.
56
The suture articulates with the most bones in the skull. a) Coronal b) Frontal c) Sagittal d) Squamous e) Lambdoid
e) Lambdoid
57
When viewed from the front of the body, the thoracic and sacral curves are and the cervical and lumbar curves are . a) concave, convex b) convex, concave c) anterior, posterior d) posterior, anterior
a) concave, convex
58
These vertebrae are long, laterally flattened, and directed inferiorly. a) Thoracic b) Cervical c) Sacral d) Lumbar
a) Thoracic
59
Which of the following is NOT an identifiable feature of the thoracic vertebrae? a) Costal facets b) Articulation with ribs c) Short, thin spinous processes d) Movement limited by rib attachment
c) Short, thin spinous processes
60
) The thorax refers to a) the skeletal part of the chest region. b) the entire chest region. c) the ribs and their costal cartilages. d) the sternum and clavicle.
b) the entire chest region
61
Incorrect placement of the hands during CPR might fracture the a) sternal angle. b) the suprasternal notch. c) the manubrium. d) the xiphoid process.
d) the xiphoid process.
62