CKD part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is included in the nephritic spectrum

A
  • urine sediment with hematuria, +/- RBC casts
  • Proteinuria (< 3 g/d)
  • Nephritic - i for inflammation/immune, which is often involved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is included in the nephrotic syndrome

A
  • “Bland” urine sediment - no cells or casts (May see oval fat bodies)
  • Proteinuria (at least 300 mg/d, often > 3 g/d)
  • Nephrotic - o for protein
  • hypertriglyceridemia/hyperlipidemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are general findings of glomerulonephritis

A
  • decreased GFR
  • edema and HTN
  • smoky/coca cola colored urine (hematuria)
  • uremic s/s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

lab findings in glomerulonephritis

A
  • high serum Cr
  • hematuria and protein in urinalysis
  • RBC, WBC, RBC casts on urine sediment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

I skipped all of the causes because we learned these in AKI

A

sorry:(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is treatment for glomerulonephritis

A
  • management of HTN and volume overload
  • ACE/ARB for proteinuria
  • immunosuppressive agents (high dose corticosteroids or cytotoxic agents)
  • plasma exchange for goodpasture or pauci-immune glomerulonephritis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is postinfectious glomerulonephritis

A

glomerulonephritis due to bacteria or pathogens. usually GABHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what test helps make the definitive diagnosis for postinfectious glomerulonephritis

A

biopsy showing “humps” of immune complex deposits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the treatment for postinfectious glomerulonephritis

A
  • treat infection
  • supportive (antiHTN, diuretics, salt restriction)
  • NO steroids (doesnt show improvement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the MC primary glomerular disease worldwide

A

IgA nephritis (Berger’s Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the demographics MC in Berger’s disease

A

2-3x more common in males; MC in children and young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the MC symptom in berger’s disease

A

Episode of gross hematuria.
(often in onjunction with URI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is considered low risk bergers disease and how would you treat it?

A

no HTN, normal GFR, minimal proteinuria

tx: monitor yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is considered high risk bergers disease and how would you treat it?

A

proteinuria>1.0, decreased GFR, HTN

tx: ACE/ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the prognosis for bergers disease

A

33% spontaneous remission

20-40% progress to ESRD (especially if > 1 g/d proteinuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

systemic small-vessel vasculitis assicaited with IgA deposition in vessel walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the S/S of henoch schonlein purpura

A
  • palpable purpura in LE and buttocks
  • arthralgias
  • abdominal symptoms (nausea, colic, melena)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the treatment for henoch schonlein purpura

A

no tx only supportive care (hydration, rest, sleep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is prognosis for henoch scholein purpura

A

make full recovery over several weeks. may progress to CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is pictured

A

henoch scholein purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the MCC of nephrotic glomerular disease in US

A

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the general S/S of nephrotic syndrome

A

subnephrotic proteinuria - little to no s/s
nephrotic syndrome (peripheral edema, dyspnea, pleural effusions, ascites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does urinalysis show in nephrotic syndrom

A

proteinuria 300mg/d or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the urine sediment showing in nephrotic syndrome

A
  • If marked HLD - oval fat bodies
    “Grape clusters” (light microscopy) or “Maltese crosses” (polarized light)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what do serum labs show for nephrotic sydrome

A

hypoalbuminemia (<3)
hypoproteinemia (<6)
hyperlipidemia
elevated ESR
possible Vit D, zinc and copper deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the pathophysiology of hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Low protein → Low oncotic pressure → increased hepatic lipid production
  • Lower clearance of VLDL → hypertriglyceridemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for protein loss in nephrotic syndrome

A
  • if mild decrease intake
  • if severe (>10g/day) increase protein
  • ACE/ARB to lower urine protein excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the treatment for edema in nephrotic syndrome

A
  • dietary salt restriction
  • thiazides and loops are protein bound so larger doses would be needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the treatment for hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome

A

diet and exercise, lipid lowering drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the treatment for hypercoagulability in nephrotic syndrome

A

anticoagulation for 3-6 months minimum if evidence of thrombosis.

Continue if renal vein thrombosis, PE, or recurrent thromboemboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

at what protein level is hypercoagulability usually seen in nephrotic syndrome

A

serum albumin <2g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the MCC of proteinuric renal disease in children

A

minimal change disease in children (80%)

(this makes up 20-25% of proteinuric renal disease in adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are s/s of minimal change disease

A

full blown nephrotic syndrome:
- thromboembolic events
- hyperlipidemia
- protein malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is treatment for minimal change disease?

A

corticosteroids - specifically prednisone

for up to 8 weeks in children and 16 weeks in adults. taper off when done.

RARELY progresses to ESRD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the MCC of primary nephrotic syndrom ein adults

A

membranous nephropathy due to immune complex deposition

nephrotic syndrome could also be secondary to carcinoma, HBV, HCV, syphilis, endocarditis, autoimmune disease, NSAIDs, captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the s/s of membranous nephropathy

A

may be asymptomatic or may see edema and frothy urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is treatment for membranous nephropathy

A

ACE/ARB, immunosuppression, transplant.

50% progress to ESRD
30% spontaneous remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is amyloidosis

A

extracellular deposition of amyloid protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are s/s of amyloidosis

A
  • proteinuria, decreased GFR, nephrotic syndrome
  • enlarged kidneys
  • s/s of other chronic inflammatory disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the treatment for amyloidosis

A
  • manage underlying disease

treatment options are limited and 5 year survival rate is <20% :( sad day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the MCC of ESRD in the US

A

diabetic nephropathy!

20 year risk - 40% (higher risk in T2DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how does diabetic nephropathy present

A

developes about 10 years after DM onset
- early - hyperfiltration with increased GFR
- Later - microalbuminuria (30-300 mg/d)
- Progression - albuminuria 300+ mg/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the treatment for diabetic nephropathy

A
  • strict glycemic control
  • treat HTN to goal - ACE/ARB can be used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is tubulointerstitial disease?

A

disorder affecting renal tubules and interstitium (glomeruli and renal vessels not generally affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the main pathology of acute tubulointerstitial disease

A

acute interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the main pathologies of chronic tubulointerstitial disease

A

interstitial fibrosis
tubular atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the main cause of acute interstitial nephritis

A

70% due to medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the causes of chronic tubulointerstitial disease

A

Obstructive uropathy (1st MCC)
vesicouretal reflux (2nd MCC)
analgesic nephropathy (1g/day 3+ yrs)
Autoimmune interstitial nephritis
nephrocalcinosis

can also be:
renal ischemia
glomerular disease
but we dont really go into these i dont think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is obstructive uropathy

A

prolonged obstruction of the urinary tract leading to backflow of urine, movement of fluid into interstitium and then inflammation and fibrosis

this leads to damage and scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are causes of obstructive uropathy

A

enlarged prostate
renal calculi
cancer
retroperitoneal fibrosis or mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the s/s of obstructive uropathy

A

hydronephrosis
pain
bladder distension
HTN
Urine - oliguria, anuria or polyuria :/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is hydronephrosis

A

this picture was just good for my brain to make sense of it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what do UA and serum creatinine show in obstructive uropathy

A

UA - benign, may see hematuria or pyuria
serum Cr - elevated

54
Q

what is the preferred imaging of study for obstructive uropathy and what does it show

A

US - may show dilation of collecting system.

only use CT if suspected stone!

55
Q

how do you treat obstructive uropathy

A

relieve obstruction ASAP

if not removed quickly could lead to tubular damage and renal scarring

56
Q

what is vesicouretal reflux disease and who is it MC in

A

primarily occurs in children

incompetent or misplaced vesicouretal sphincter leads to retrograde flow of urine while voiding.

this causes inflammatory responses and scarring

57
Q

what is the presentation of vesicouretal reflux disease

A
  • frequent UTIs (esp in children)
  • may not be dx until later in life when HTN and proteinuria develope:(
58
Q

what do labs show in vesicouretal reflux disease

A
  • varying elevations in BUN/Cr
  • mild-mod proteinuria
59
Q

what imaging modalities can be used to assess vesicouretal reflux disesae

A
  • voiding cystourethrogram (dye instilled in bladder, pt pees while xray is taken)
  • US to assess for hydronephrosis and renal scarring
60
Q

what would a US show in vesicouretal reflux disease

A
  • hydronephrosis and renal scarring

Adults -
- asymmetric small kidneys
- irregular outlines
- thin cortices
- areas of compensatory hypertrophy

61
Q

how do you describe dilation of the kidneys

A

idk if we need to know this tbh

62
Q

how do you treat vesicouretal reflux disease

A
  • maintain sterile urine in children
  • surgical implantation of ureters (for children with persisten high grade reflux, NOT for adolescents or adults)
  • control of HTN with ACE/ARB
63
Q

what is analgesic nephropathy

A

tubulointerstitial inflammation and papillary necrosis in patients who ingest at least 1g/day of analgeics for 3+ years

64
Q

what is the highest associated analgesic with analgesic nephropathy? what are some other common analgesics?

A

phenacetin!

may also be caused by:
NSAIDS, aspirin, tylenol!

65
Q

why do analgesics cause papillary necrosis.

A

Analgesics can be concentrated up to 10x higher in renal papillae than in renal cortex

66
Q

what is seen in urine of analgesic nephropathy

A

hematuria
proteinuria
polyuria
pyuria
sloughed papillae!!

67
Q

what are image findings in analgesic nephropathy?

A

CT - small, scarred kidney with papillary calcifications
IVP - contrast will fill area of sloughed papillae, causing a “ring shadow” or “golfball on a tee” sign

NOTE: IVP rarely used d/t risk of constrast nephropathy

68
Q

how do you treat analgesic nephropathy

A

discontinue analgesics

69
Q

what is the cause of autoimmune interstitial nephritis

A

a combination of multiple autoimmune disorders as seen below!

70
Q

what are clinical findings of autoimmune interstitial nephritis

A
  • could be asymptomatic ¯_(ツ)_/¯
  • polyuria
  • volume depletion d/t salt wasting
  • hyperkalemia
  • hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
71
Q

what does immaging show in autoimmune interstitial nephritis.

A

small, scarred kidneys

72
Q

what is the treatment for autoimmune interstitial nephritis

A

control underlying cause

73
Q

what is nephrocalcinosis

A

deposition of calcium in renal parenchyma and tubules

74
Q

what isthe prognosis of neophrocalcinosis

A
  • Can cause AKI, CKD
  • May also have normal renal function
  • Most pts do not progress to ESRD
75
Q

what is the cause of nephrocalcinosis

A

increased in urinary excretion of calcium (MCC), phosphate and/or oxalate

76
Q

what is a risk factor for nephrocalcinosis

A

conditions that cause hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia or increased excretion of Ca, PO, or oxalate in urine
such as:
- hyperparathyroidism
- vit D therapy
- loops

77
Q

what are lab findings in nephrocalcinosis

A
  • hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
  • urine with sterile pyuria or hematuria
  • proteinuria
  • 24 hour urine may show increase Ca, PO or oxalate
78
Q

what are s/s of nephrocalcinosis

A

usually asymptomatic, often found incidentally

79
Q

what is the treatment for nephrocalcinosis

A

correct underlying metabolic disorder

80
Q

what makes up 65-70% of all renal masses

A

single or solitary renal cysts, generally found in the outer cortex or medulla.

81
Q

what is the management of a single or solitary renal cyst

A

if benign then routine follow up is acceptable.

refer to bosiak score for whether or not a cyst is benign!:)

82
Q

what could a cyst developing after onset of dialysis suggest

A

potential for adenocarcinoma

83
Q

what are the two types of cystic kidney disease and what causes them?

A
  • juvenile nephronophthisis (in children) - autosomal recessive gene
  • Adult medullary cystic kidney disease - autosomal dominant gene
84
Q

what is the result of jevenile NPH and adult MCKD

A

multiple small renal cysts at corticomedullary junction and in medulla.

85
Q

what are the s/s of medullary cystic kidney disease

A

polyuria, pallor, lethargy, renal salt wasting

later in disease:
HTN, hyperuricemia, growth restriction in juvenile NPH

86
Q

what ages does ESRD occur in juvenile NPH and in MCKD

A

Juvenile NPH - <20 years
MCKD - ages 20-70

87
Q

what is the treatment for medullary cystic kidney diseases

A
  • adequate salt and water intake
  • no therapy known to stop progression
  • allopurinol if hyperuricemic
  • does not recur in renal transplants.
88
Q

what is the cause of Autosomal Dominant polycystic kidney disease

A

mutation of genes ADPKD-1 or ADPKD-2 via autosomal dominant inheritance (90%) or spontaneous mutation (10%)

89
Q

what gene is more severe and more common in ADPKD

A

ADPKD-1 - 85% of patients.

ADPDK-2 15% of patients with slower progression and later onset in life.

90
Q

what are s/s of ADPKD

A
  • abdominal pain
  • flank pain
  • hx of UTI
  • hx of HTN in >50% of patients
  • family hx of PKD in 75%
  • enlarged palpable kidneys!
91
Q

what will labs show in ADPKD

A

hematuria and proteinuria

H&H is normal

92
Q

what confirms the diagnosis of ADPKD

A

US showing:
- Age < 30 - 2+ renal cysts
- Age 30-59 - 2+ cysts in each kidney
- Age 60 + - 4+ cysts in each kidney

93
Q

where else might cysts be seen in ADPKD

A
  • liver
  • spleen
94
Q

what is the cause of pain in ADPDK? how do you treat it

A

cause - infection, bleeeding, nephrolithiasis

tx - bed rest, analgesics, cyst decompression

95
Q

what is the cause of hematuria in ADPKD? How do you treat it?

A

Cause - MC due to rupture of cyst but could be Kidney stone, UTI

tx - bed rest, hydration, resolves in 1 week.

96
Q

what could recurrent hematuria in ADPKD mean

A

possible renal cell carcinoma

97
Q

How do you treat nephrolithiasis in ADPKD

A

pain control
hydration of 2-3L/day

98
Q

how do you treat HTN in ADPKD

A
  • ACE/ARB preferred
  • cyst decompression
99
Q

how does an infected cyst present in ADPKD and how do you treat it

A

presents with flank pain, fever and increased WBC
- cultures (blood and urine)
- TX with cystic penetration ABX
and continue with 2 weeks of IV ABX and long term oral ABX

100
Q

what are other complications that can occur with ADPKD

A
  • Cerebral aneurysms on circle of willis
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • aortic aneurysms
  • aortic valve disease
  • colonic diverticula
101
Q

How do you treat ADPKD Cyst growth

A
  • vasopressin receptor antagonists (slow progression)
  • ocreotide ( decreased cyst growth)
  • tolvaptan (slows renal decline)
102
Q

what drug class is tolvaptan

A

vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist

103
Q

when is tolvaptan recommended in ADPKD

A

in all patients 18+ with GFR of 25+ and 1+ risk marker which includes:
1. mayo class 1C, 1D, 1E
2. age <55 and eGFR <65
3. kidney length >16.5 cm in patient <50 y/o
4. PROPKD score of >6

104
Q

what may help and/or slow progression of ADPKD

A

avoidance of caffeine
tx of HTN and proteinuria

105
Q

How does tolvaptan aid in treatment of ADPKD

A

reduces urinary osmolality which impairs cyst growth

106
Q

what are SE of tolvaptan

A

thirst
polydipsia
polyuria
nocturia
hypernatremia!!
increased liver enzymes
BBW!!! - should be initiated and reinitiated only in a hospital where serum sodium can be CLOSELY monitored!

107
Q

what are CI for tolvaptan

A

liver disease
pts on strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
allergy

108
Q

How does Autosomal recessive PDK present

A
  • enlarged tubules with small cysts on collecting tubules only
  • impaired urine concentration
  • metabolic acidosis
  • HTN common
109
Q

what is the MCC of death in autosomal recessive PKD

A

pulmonary hypoplasia due to oligohydramnios (amniotic fluid abnormality)

110
Q

what age do people with autosomal recessive PKD tend to live until? what complications will they have?

A
  • 80% of surviving neonates live to 10 or longer

they will have complications such as:
- 1/3 with ESRD by 10
- portal HTN
- periportal fibrosis

111
Q

what is the diagnosis for autosomal recessive PKD

A

large echogenic kidneys with cysts visible after birth.

absence of renal cysts in either parent confirms or denies ARPKD

112
Q

what is treatment for ARPKD

A

manage HTN
dialysis
kidney transplant

113
Q

what is the MCC of renal artery stenosis? what is the only other cause we learned?

A

80-90% d/t atherosclerotic occlusive disease

10-15% - fibromuscular dysplasia

114
Q

when would you suspect fibromuscular dysplasia

A

unexplained HTN in woman <40

115
Q

what are risk factors for RAS

A

HTN
atherosclerosis
CKD
DM
Tobacco use

116
Q

what are the s/s of RAS

A

HTN
pulmonary edema
AKI after starting ACEI

may present with abdominal bruits!

117
Q

what labs are seen in RAS

A

elevated BUN/Cr if significant ischemia

118
Q

what does US reveal in RAS

A

asymmetric kidneys if unilateral or small hyperechoic kidneys if bilateral

119
Q

what would an MRA reveal in RAS

A

turbulent blood flow with false positive results

120
Q

what is the gold standard for RAS diagnosis

A

renal angiography

121
Q

How do you treat RAS

A
  • manage HTN
  • angioplasty (reduces HTN meds needed but doesnt slow disease)
  • surgical bypass (risky and not better than angioplasty)
122
Q

what is nephrosclerosis

A

hypertensive nephropathy leading to sclerosis of arteries and arterioles. also causes interstitial fibrosis and decreased glomerular tuft!

123
Q

what are risk factors for nephrosclerosis

A

African American race - 5x more common
Increased age, smoking, hypercholesterolemia
Longstanding uncontrolled HTN

124
Q

what is treatment for nephrosclerosis

A

management of HTN with mulitple anti-HTN

thiazides and ACE/ARB are MC

125
Q

what is cholesterol atheroembolic disease

A

emboli to kidneys usually d/t cholesterol crystals breaking free of vascular plaque and lodging in downstream microvessels

126
Q

when might you see cholesterol atheroembolic disease

A

vascular surgery
trauma
heparin use
thromoblytic use

127
Q

what are risk factors for cholesterol atheroembolic disease

A

male
DM
HTN
ischemic cardiac disease

128
Q

what are the s/s of cholesterol atherembolic disease

A

onset 1-14 days after inciting event
- worsening HTN and renal function with fever, abdominal pain and wt loss.

may also see livedo reticularis and localized gangrene!

129
Q

what labs are seen in cholesterol atheroembolic disease

A

increased Cr
eosinophilia
elevated ESR
low complement

130
Q

what is definitive diagnosis for cholesterol atheroembolic disease

A

kidney biopsy

131
Q

what is treatment for cholesterol atheroembolic disease

A

no specific effective therapy but can use:
- statins
- steroids (contraversial)
- supportive

132
Q

oh ma lort that was a lot good luck yall

A

byeeeeeeee