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Pathophysiology I > Class 8-9 - Immunology > Flashcards

Class 8-9 - Immunology Flashcards

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1
Q

List examples of innate immunity.

A

Skin, gastric juice, lymphatic system, specific markers (antigens) on cells

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2
Q

Acquired immunity is ___________

A

immunity developed after birth as a result of disease or vaccinations

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3
Q

Specific immunity is _____________

A

the immunity that distinguishes “self” versus “non-self” based on specific cellular markers

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4
Q

Humoral immunity is _________

A

liquid form of immune defense, represented by B lymphocytes and the immuno-globulins they produce

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5
Q

Cellular immunity is _________

A

the form of immune defense represented by T lymphocytes

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6
Q

Passive immunity is __________

A

Anti-bodies produced in another organism that are administered to a human

Ie. Maternal or antibody transfers

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7
Q

Define self-tolerance from perspective of immunology

A

the ability of a healthy immune system to distinguish between “self” and “non-self”

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8
Q

List major organs of the immune system

A

Spleen, thymus, tonsils and adenoids, lymph nodes, appendix, lymphatic vessels, bone marrow

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9
Q

Non-specific immunity is _________. List examples of non-specific immune cells

A

immune defense that does not require identification of “non-self” substances/organisms to eliminate them

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, macrophages, NK cells

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10
Q

The two major classes of lymphocytes are ________.

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes

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11
Q

B lymphocytes pertain to which type of immunity?

T lymphocytes pertain to which type of immunity?

A

humoral

cellular

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12
Q

The major immunoglobulin in the blood is ___

A

IgG

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13
Q

IgM is __________

A

the very first class of immuno-globulins produced upon the initial encounter with a specific foreign antigen

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14
Q

IgA is found in __________

A

body fluids such as tears, saliva, secretions of respiratory, genito-urinary and GI tracts

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15
Q

IgD is almost exclusively found in ________

A

inserted into membrane of B cells, where it regulates the cell’s activation

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16
Q

IgE is responsible for the symptoms of _______. It is usually attached to ________

A

allergy

basophils, eosinophils, mast cells

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17
Q

What type of lymphocyte regulates the immune system?

A

T-CD4

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18
Q

The difference between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells is _______

A

Cytotoxic T cells need to recognize a specific antigen

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19
Q

Mature B cells are known as _______. They function to ________

A

plasma cells

synthesize a particular antibody

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20
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity is ______
Type II Hypersensitivity is ______
Type III Hypersensitivity is ______
Type IV Hypersensitivity is ______

A

allergy, immediate hypersensitivity disorder

cytotoxic hypersensitivity, antibody-mediated disorder

Immune complex-mediated disorder

cell-mediated hypersensitivity disorders

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21
Q

Describe cytotoxic immune reactions

A

B cells and T-CD8 killers attack antigens on membranes of organs and tissue cells

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22
Q

In relation to blood types, blood crossing is _________ and matching is ___________

A

determining blood type

mixing donor and recipient blood to determine compatibility

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23
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis develops when ___________

A

mother and fetus have different blood types

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24
Q

Immune complex disease is __________

A

formation of immune complexes (clusters of iterlocking antigens and antibodies) that are trapped in and damage tissues such as KD, LU, skin, joints, blood vessels

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25
Serum sickness belongs to Type ___ hypersensitivity. It can be caused by ___________
III exposure to antibodies derived from animals, exposure to certain drugs Humoral B cells
26
Type IV hypersensitivity is caused by ___________. These reactions are also called ____________. Some examples are ____________.
immuno-competent cells (T-lymphocytes) delayed hypersensitivity reactions Ex: Leprosy, hashimoto, transplant rejection, PPD test
27
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions lead to ____________
inflammatory tissue damage and infiltration of cells, which are principally lymphocytes and macrophages
28
Define rheumatoid arthritis
a chronic relapsing disease characterized by general ill health, chronic synovial inflammation of joints and tendons in symmetric distribution and systemic signs and symptoms
29
Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as a type ___ hypersensitivity. It affects individuals with cell markers _____ on their membranes where connective tissues are being injured by Ig__
III DR-1, DR-4 G, M
30
The function of the spleen w/ respect to immunology is _______
synthesize antibodies, filter out antibody-coated bacteria and blood cells
31
The major role of lymph nodes is _______
synthesize antibodies, scavenging infectious agents
32
The sub-populations of T-lymphocytes are _______
T-CD4 - helper T cells T-CD8 Suppressors T-CD8 - cytotoxic T cells
33
Describe process of triggering allergic response
First exposure to allergen - B cells produce IgE antibodies that attach to mast cells in LU, sking, tongue, nasal lining, GI tract Subsequent exposure to allergen - IgE-primed mast cell releases chemicals that cause wheezing, sneezing, other allergic symptoms
34
Within pair of blood donor and recipient, whose erythrocytes will undergo hemolysis in case of incompatibility?
donor
35
A person with blood type AB will have what ABO antibodies? ABO antigens? Blood type AB is the universal ________
no antibodies A and B antigens recipient
36
A person with blood type O will have what ABO antibodies? ABO antigens? Blood type O is the universal _________
A and B antibodies no antigens donor
37
In an Rh-negative mother and her Rh+ fetus: what pregnancy is affected?
subsequent pregnancies after being sensitized during first pregnancy
38
Erythroblastosis fetalis is _______. What protective measures are available to avoid this condition?
destruction of erythroblasts in an fetus as a result of erythrocyte depletion RhoGAM immuno-globulin
39
When should RhoGram immuno-globulins be introduced into blood of Rh-negative mother?
28 weeks of pregnancy
40
A positive PPD test suggests __________
prior exposure to tuberculosis via infection or vaccine
41
Cytotoxic immune response is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II, T Cell response
42
Humoral reaction is which type of hypersensitivity disorder?
Type III, B cell response.
43
What joints are not affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
Hips and DIPS
44
Which disease is often seen with rheumatoid arthritis?
sjogrens : fatigue, dry eyes, dry mouth
45
What are the two causes of osteopenia?
osteoperosis and osteomalacia
46
What is osteomalacia? what happens to the bone?
demineralization of the bone due to vitamin D deficiency. Bones become softer and they break
47
What is osteoporosis?
Diminution of bone density
48
Rheumatoid arthritis affects what body tissue(s)?
bone, cartilage, tendons, joints
49
Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood serum (RF+) is an indicator for ________
rheumatoid arthritis | systemic sclerosis
50
What is rheumatoid factor (RF)?
the auto-antibody first found in rheumatoid arthritis. RF and IgG join to form immune complexes that contribute to the disease process
51
Sero-Negative Polyarthropathy indicates _______
no RF in blood serum (RF -)
52
Sero-positive Polyarthropathy indicates ________
RF + Rheumatoid Arthritis Systemic Sclerosis
53
Movement is recommended in rheumatoid arthritis (T/F)
True
54
Which phobia is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
kinesiophobia - fear of moving *this is a huge dis-service to themselves and lack of movement will disable themselves.
55
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is ________
a chronic auto-immune inflammatory illness, characterized by multi-system disorder including skin, joints, blood, kidney, lung, brain and other organs
56
Lupus patients develop _______ immunoglobulins that cause inflammation. Lupus erythematosus often produces a ________ rash on the face
anti-nuclear butterfly
57
Lupus erythematosus is thought to be triggered by ___________
environmental factors - sunlight, diet drugs hormonal influences - especially estrogenic influences
58
Clinical presentations of SLE include __________
arthralgia, arthritis, tenosynovitis, avascular necrosis, joint deformity (uncommon), edema, redness
59
What is Graves disease?
An autoimmune disorder that involves overactivity of the thyroid gland
60
How does Graves disease affect basal metabolic reactions?
Antibodies that mimic TSH occupy TSH binding sites on thyroid gland leading to hyperthyroidism
61
Hallmarks of Graves disease are _________
exophthalmos (bulging eyes), heat intolerance, increased energy, difficulty sleeping, diarrhea, anxiety, hunger, weight loss
62
Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) is an autoimmune disease of ______ tissue characterized by _________
connective excessive collagen deposition in the skin and internal organs such as lungs, GI tract, heart, kidneys, *mask like botox face
63
The limited symptoms of scleroderma are referred to by the acronym ________, which stands for _________
CREST ``` Calcinosis Raynaud's phenomenon Esophageal dysfunction Sclerodactyly Telangiectasias ```
64
Innate immunity is also known as ______. It is defined as ________.
natural immunity the immune defenses we are born with and coded for in our genes
65
Scleroderma can be a predisposition to ________ cancer as a result of what condition? Describe this condition.
esophageal cancer achalasia remodeling of the esophagus, narrows down, LES fails to relax (stays closed) "esophageal jerky"
66
Myasthenia gravis is a disorder in which normal communication between the nerve and muscle is interrupted at the _________
neuromuscular junction
66
What is the treatment for scleroderma?
biologics, anti-inflammatory, Viagra -- things that reduce/decrease sympathetic response
67
Scleroderma is aka as _______?
systemic sclerosis
68
In myasthenia gravis, the receptors for ________ at the muscle surface are destroyed or modulated by ________ that prevent the normal reaction from occurring.
acetylcholine (ACh) antibodies
69
What is the test used for myasthenia gravis? what is the + sign?
confrontation test eyes are tired, droopy (due to weak muscles)
70
Myasthenia gravis symptoms are often better at night (T/F )
False - it is worse at night, sleep makes it better (replenishes)
71
What are symptoms of myasthenia gravis? Provide examples
muscle weakening - swallowing difficulty, gagging, choking, paralysis, drooping head, difficulty climbing stairs, difficulty lifting objects, difficulty talking, difficulty chewing Vision problems (starts w/eyes)- double vision, difficulty maintaining steady gaze, eyelid drooping (ptosis)
72
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disease of ____________ manifested by pain and progressive _________ of the spine
the joints of the vertebral column and sacroiliac joints stiffening
73
Ankylosing spondyloarthritis is also know as?
Bechterew syndrome, Marie-Strumpell spondylitis, "Bamboo Spine"
74
Ankylosing spondyloarthritis is dominant in ________ (males/females). It is purely genetic (T/F)
males True
76
How is HIV virus transmitted?
sexually, needles (most common),
76
In females ankylosing spondylitis starts in the _____ and in males it starts in the ______.
neck and peripheral | sacral spine
77
List the conditions that can develop from ankylosing spondylitis
uveitis peripheral arthritis (wind-moving) circumstantial depression
78
Which type of HIV virus is more aggressive?
type I
80
What class of immunoglobulins represents humoral anamnestic "memory" response of the immune system?
IgG
80
Who has the highest burden of being vulnerable to HIV infection?
``` we are all vulnerable but some populations are more vulnerable: IV drug users (intravenous drug users), unprotected rectal intercourse, pregnant females (vertical transmission) ```
81
Which cancer is the most common in patients with AIDS?
lymphoma (often non-hodgkins - cancer of lymph glands)
82
List the disease stages of HIV infection
incubation acute/prodrome latent/carrier state AIDS
83
HIV virus contains what type of genetic material?
double stranded RNA
84
List opportunistic infections and cancers of AIDS
herpes simplex virus (ulcers/blisters in mouth/genitals) tuberculosis oral/vaginal thrush - candida/fungal infections herpes zoster (shingles) non-Hodgkin's lymphoma Kaposi's sarcoma (skin bruising)
85
HIV is most easily transmitted via _________
contaminated needles
86
HIV targets which cells?
T-CD4 helper, GI cells, neuroglia cells (dendrites), lymphocytes, macrophages *they are attracted to the sanitation dept
87
Cell mediated immunity is lost in AIDS (T/F)
TRUE | *it targets T-CD4 helper cells
88
What is RNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase?
Enzyme that allows virus to transcribe RNA into DNA and translate it into proteins normal mammal cells: DNA unwinds (double strands), then mRNA transcribes and delivers to ribosomes where translation into amino acid sequence occurs

Pathophysiology I (11 decks)

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