Clinical Pathology Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common cause of mild chronic anemia?

A

chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two causes of regenerative anemia?

A

hemolysis and hemmorhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hypothyroidism can cause anemia?

A

yes- mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Decreased EPO can lead to anemia? Yes or no

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common cause of iron deficiency?

A

chronic mild blood loss- ie gastric ulcer, or parasite burden ie haemonchus. Iniatially regenerative—> non-regen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long is the pre-regen period? in domestic species

A

3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

acanthocytes are usually caused by…

A
  • shear injury
  • lipid metabolism- changes cholesterol content predisposing to shear injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How to differentiate between ekinocytes and acanthocyte>

A

acanthocyte is more irregular and long dendritic whereas ekinocytes more regular and short spikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

codocytes caused by

A

less cytoplasm (to plasma membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

schistocytes are always caused by…

A

shear injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

echinocytes are mostly caused by…

A
  • artefact (underfilling EDTA)
  • electrolyte imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

toxic changes seen in degenerate neutrophils

A
  • vacuolation
  • dolly bodies
  • basophilia (increased blueness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dolly bodies normal in cats?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the neutrophils are non-degenerate can there still be a bacterial cause?

A

Yes- as it is only the toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

toxic neutrophils are only in …

A

the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can degenerate neutrophils be found in the blood?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what stain for mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl Nielsson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3 cell types involved in cancer

A
  • round
  • epithelial
  • mesenchymal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

characteristics of epithelial type tumours

A
  • cluster
  • distinct cell borders
  • exfoliate well- so good cellular content
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Benign epithelial tumour may be called

A

adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Malignant epithelial tumour may be called

A

Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Types of round cell tumours

A
  • round cell
  • plasma cell
  • lymphoma
  • histiocytoma
    -TVT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

criteria of malignancy

A
  • prominent, multiple, macronucleoli
  • nuclear molding
  • increased mitotic figures
  • anisokaryosis
    -anisocytosis
  • hypercellularity
  • macrocytosis
  • pleomorphism
  • high N:C ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

only consider…. cells for cellularity

A

nucleated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What can cause thrombocytosis?
- inflammation - increase in EPO
26
globulins are produced by... (2)
- liver - lymphocytes (immunoglobulins)
27
globulins may increase during..
- inflammation - neoplasia - hemoconcentration
28
What is the acute phase protein in dogs?
C-reactive protein
29
What is the acute phase protein in cats?
Serum Amyloid A
30
What is the acute phase protein in cattle and horses?
fibrinogen
31
What makes albumin : globulin go up and down respectively
- inflammation (immunoglobulin goes up, albumin remains the same) - renal damage (globulin remains the same, albumin is lost)
32
function of urea
- detoxicifies ammonium through urea cycle
33
how can you assess renal function?
- creatinine - urea - SDMA
34
What is the earliest marker for GFR?
- SDMA
35
Azotemia is defined as an increase in what? (2)
- urea - creatinine
36
Azotemia is classified as (3)
- pre-renal - renal - post- renal
37
In pre-renal azotemia, what is happening to the GFR?
- should decrease leading to reduced clearance
38
in renal stage of azotemia, what has happened to the nephron?
- loss of functional capacity (65%- 75%) - drop in GFR
39
in renal type of azotemia, urine volume increased or decreased?
increased
40
what would be a high USG value for dogs indicating
>1.030
41
What may indicate post-renal azotemia?
- from clinical signs - decreased urine output indicating obstruction (anuria)
42
what would be a high USG value for cat indicating hypersthenuria
>1.040
43
USG value in post-renal azotemia?
variable
44
what would be a high USG value for horse/cow indicating hypersthenuria?
>1.025
45
GGT is induced by cholestasis or hypercellular injury?
cholestasis
46
ALP is induced by cholestasis or hypercellular injury?
cholestasis
47
indicators of cholestasis? (2 liver enzymes)
GGT ALP
48
Best enzyme for hepatocellular injury in SA?
ALT
49
Best enzyme for hepatocellular injury in LA?
SDH
50
Can AST be used in all spp?
Yes
51
Why is AST not specific?
also measure muscle damage (so always crosscheck with CK)
52
Only in dogs, GC increases which liver enzyme?
ALP
53
why is ALP higher in growing animals?
is also present in bones
54
What can assess liver FUNCTION? If liver compromised decreased production of (4)
these will decrease: - glucose - urea - albumin - cholesterol
55
What can assess liver FUNCTION? If liver compromised decreased removal of (3)
these will increase: - billirubin - ammonia - bile acids
56
types of jaundice (3)
- pre-hepatic - hepatic - post-hepatic
57
what can medetomidine do to glucose levels?
- increase
58
Causes of hyperglycemia?
- stress (catecholamine) - GC - post-prandial - diabetes mellitus - hyperthyroidism
59
In a fasting state, lipids are mainly synthesised by which organ?
- liver
60
T4 can cause hypo or hypercholesterolemia?
hypercholesterolemia
61
increased T4 increases or decreases fat deposits?
decreases
62
amylase is mostly produced by which organs?
- SI - pancreas - etc
63
amylase will increase with....
- damage to the pancreatic cells - decreased renal clearance
64
what is more specific for pancreatic damage- amylase or lipase?
amylase
65
sodium- mostly intra or extracellular?
extracellular
66
sodium can increase when...
dehydrated
67
Cl- follows ...
Na
68
renal insufficiency will cause K to increase or decrease?
increase (as excretion is compromised)
69
Do horses need vitamin D to absorb calcium?
no, this is why they excrete so much calcium
70
Name hormones controlling calcium concentration in blood
- PTH - vit D (NB not in horses) - calcitonin
71
Can addisons cause increase or decrease in calcium?
increase
72
primary hyeperparathyroidism- increase or decrease in calcium?
increase
73
renal insufficiency- increase or decrease in calcium?
decrease
74
Acute pancreatitis- Increase or decrease in calcium?
decrease
75
what generally causes a metabolic alkalosis?
loss of acid ie vomiting, ileus sequestration
76
ileus sequestration- metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?
metabolic alkalosis
77
metabolic acidosis can be caused by
- bicarb loss (ie diarrhoea, renal, saliva in cattle) - titrational metabolic acidosis
78
What breed is predisposed to lipoma?
Weimarer
79
what cells are part of the peritoneum?
mesothelial cells
80
if you suspect uroabdomen- how can you test the abdominal effusion?
- creatinine - potassium (needs to be 2 x higher than levels found in blood)
81
Coxiella Brunetti causes what zoonotic disease?
Q Fever
82
Q fever affect predominantly which system?
reproductive system
83
Ddx similar to q fever
- Toxoplasma Gondi - Lepto - Brucella Abortus/ bellatensis, Ovis - Neospora - Chlamydophila -BVD/ IBR - Bluetongue (however this is seasonal) - Campylobacter
84
How does Q fever spread?
- direct contact ie during lambing or calving - in contact with dust from any bodily fluid (milk, urine, contaminatedmanure, aborted material) - contacminated raw - vector transmission (ie tick bites??)
85
HACCP is about efficiency, health, or safety?
SAFETY
86
Ileus leading to HCl sequestration can lead to acidosis or alkalosis
alkalosis
87