CON 3910_3920 Exam Flashcards

(149 cards)

1
Q

With respect to the requirements of law, executive orders, regulations, and all other applicable procedures, prior to signing a contract, what must a contracting officer do?
a. Document noncompliance
b. Ensure that each has been met
c. Obtain legal validation that each has been met
d. Ensure that all statutory requirements have been met and try to ensure all regulations orapplicable procedures have been followed

A

b. Ensure that each has been met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which is NOT a type of contracting officer?
a. Contracting officer
b. Administrative contracting officer
c. Terminating contracting officer
d. Executive contracting officer

A

d. Executive contracting officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many parts are there in the FAR?
a. 52
b. 53
c. 54
d. 51

A

b. 53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The DoD Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID) is 13 positions long. Position 9 identifies the type of instrument. If position 9 is a “D”, which of the following types of instruments is representative?

a. Indefinite-delivery contracts to include IDIQs and requirements contracts
b. Contracts of all types except indefinite-delivery contracts
c. Invitations for bids (IFBs)
d. Blanket purchase agreements (BPAs)

A

a. Indefinite-delivery contracts to include IDIQs and requirements contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which FAR part sets forth the basic policies and general information about the FederalAcquisition Regulations System?
a. FAR part 1
b. FAR part 2
c. FAR part 52
d. FAR part 53

A

a. FAR part 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A contractor failed to deliver a commercial item within the time specified by the contract. As thegovernment contracting officer, you plan to terminate the contract. What type of terminationwould you proceed with?
a. Termination for Convenience
b. Termination for Default
c. Termination for Cause
d. Termination for Late Deliveries – Commercial/Noncommercial

A

c. Termination for Cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements best conveys the convention at FAR 1.108(b), delegation of authority?
a. Authority is not delegable
b. Each authority is delegable down to no lower than one level above the contracting officer
c. No authority is delegable unless specifically stated otherwise
d. Each authority is delegable unless specifically stated otherwise

A

d. Each authority is delegable unless specifically stated otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Joan stated that she was working on selecting solicitation provisions. What is true about the contract?
a. It is ready for closeout
b. It was recently awarded
c. It is nearing completion
d. It has not been awarded

A

d. It has not been awarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID)?
a. A unique number identifying a contract
b. A unique number identifying a policy to a contract clause
c. A unique number identifying a funding document
d. A unique number identifying each solicitation, contract, agreement, or order and related procurement instrument

A

d. A unique number identifying each solicitation, contract, agreement, or order and relatedprocurement instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A program manager asked John whether a contract clause is only used in the contract or if it applies to the solicitation as well. John correctly answered by replying with which of the following statements?
a. A contract clause only applies after contract award
b. A contract clause applies unless superseded by a solicitation provision
c. A contract clause is a term or condition used in contracts, or in both solicitations and contracts, that applies after contract award or both before and after award
d. A contract clause is a term or condition used in contracts and solicitations unless the resulting contract is for a commercial item

A

c. A contract clause is a term or condition used in contracts, or in both solicitations andcontracts, that applies after contract award or both before and after award

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the DFARS Procedures Guidance and Information(PGI)?
a. The DFARS PGI applies to all federal agencies
b. The DFARS PGI is a companion resource to the DFARS
c. The DFARS PGI is not numbered similarly to the DFARS
d. The DFARS PGI is only used by DCMA and DCAA

A

b. The DFARS PGI is a companion resource to the DFARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Except when authorized otherwise, what is true about a government contract?
a. It need not be in writing
b. It must be in writing
c. It must be presented as a “hard copy” on paper
d. It must have oral confirmation

A

b. It must be in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should Simplified Acquisition Procedures (SAP) do?
a. Promote competition to the maximum extent practicable
b. Consider all quotations or offers, regardless of the time they are received, if they are themost reasonable
c. Promote the use of current vendors for time-saving purposes
d. Equally consider all businesses, large or small

A

a. Promote competition to the maximum extent practicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type(s) of contracts can be awarded when acquiring commercial items of supply?
a. Only firm-fixed-price contracts or fixed-price contracts with economic price adjustment
b. Any contract type that does not have an incentive
c. Any fixed-price contract type
d. Any type or combination of types as determined necessary by the contracting officer

A

a. Only firm-fixed-price contracts or fixed-price contracts with economic price adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the use of a procedure that is inconsistent with the FAR?
a. Extraordinary action
b. Exception
c. Deviation
d. Abnormal action

A

c. Deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Market research is conducted during which phase of the acquisition?
a. When requirements are being developed
b. All phases of the acquisition
c. After award to ensure that a contractor’s product or service is sufficient
d. During negotiations to ensure that a contractor’s proposal is fair and reasonable

A

b. All phases of the acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the tool (form) used by DoD to apply a structured profit/fee?
a. DD Form 1202, Guidelines for Profit Method
b. DD Form 1701, Structured Analogy Method
c. DD Form 1547, Weighted Guidelines Method
d. DD Form 1861, Weighted Profit Analogy

A

c. DD Form 1547, Weighted Guidelines Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When using invitations for bids (IFBs), what type(s) of contracts can be awarded?
a. Any contract type that does not have an incentive
b .Any fixed-price contract type
c .Any type or combination of types as determined necessary by the contracting officer
d. Only firm-fixed-price contracts or fixed-price contracts with economic price adjustment

A

d. Only firm-fixed-price contracts or fixed-price contracts with economic price adjustmen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is accurate about unilateral modifications?
a. They are only signed by a government contracting officer, not the contractor
b. They can be signed by the contract specialist
c. They are used to definitize contracts with price changes
d. They are used to add scope to a contract

A

a. They are only signed by a government contracting officer, not the contractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the government’s policy on contract modifications?
a. It is preferred that program managers sign modifications in lieu of the contracting officer
b. Any contract specialist can direct a contractor to perform work before the execution of thecontract modification
c. A contracting officer representative is authorized to execute contract modifications on behalf of the government
d. Only contracting officers acting within the scope of their authority are authorized to execute contract modifications on behalf of the government

A

d. Only contracting officers acting within the scope of their authority are authorized to execute contract modifications on behalf of the government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Your customer comes to you anticipating a new requirement, one that has not been purchased recently. You’d like to refer them to the FAR part dealing specifically with market research.Which FAR part do you refer them to?
a. FAR part 7
b. FAR part 8
c. FAR part 9
d. FAR part 10

A

d. FAR part 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following would represent, or potentially represent, an organizational conflict of interest (OCI)?
a. A contractor (contractor X) is hired to develop and produce a particular product for the government that currently does not exist. In developing the product, the contractor uses its own proprietary methods.
b. A contractor (contractor X) is hired to fill an order of 50 widgets. In filling the order, the contractor supplies its own proprietary product.
c. An engineering support contractor (contractor A) is hired to assist in the development of government specifications for a new requirement. Contractor A writes the specifications in such a way as to require the government’s use of contractor A’s proprietary processes even though there are other solutions.
d. An engineering support contractor (contractor A) is hired to develop specifications for a new requirement. Contractor A writes the specifications and does not later submit a proposal in response to an RFP for the new requirement.

A

c. An engineering support contractor (contractor A) is hired to assist in the development of government specifications for a new requirement. Contractor A writes the specifications in such a way as to require the government’s use of contractor A’s proprietary processes even though there are other solutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When can a time-and-materials (T&M) contract be used?
a. A T&M contract is best used on construction projects that require extensive materials
b. A T&M contract shall be used only when DCAA has conducted an audit of the labor and material for the acquisition
c. A T&M contract may be used only when it is not possible at the time of placing the contract to estimate accurately the extent or duration of the work or to anticipate costs
d. A T&M contract shall only be used on personal service contracts

A

c. A T&M contract may be used only when it is not possible at the time of placing the contract to estimate accurately the extent or duration of the work or to anticipate costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Of the following types of contracts, which shall not be used in government contracting?
a. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
b. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost
c. Cost-plus-award-fee
d. Cost-reimbursement

A

b. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the general guidance provided by the FAR for contractor bid or proposal information? a. It may not be disclosed to anyone unless they are authorized to receive it b. It may only be disclosed to those authorized to receive it and their supervisors c. It may be disclosed to anyone with the appropriate security clearance level d. It may not be disclosed to anyone outside the agency
a. It may not be disclosed to anyone unless they are authorized to receive it
26
What underlying principle should the contracting officer follow to avoid organizational conflictsof interest? a. Prevent sole source follow-on acquisitions b. Prevent contractor teaming arrangements c. Prevent the use of proprietary information in award considerations d. Prevent unfair competitive advantage
d. Prevent unfair competitive advantage
27
What is included with terms that address specific types of exchanges with offerors after receiptof proposals? a. Communications, discussions, and clarifications b. Discussions, explanations, and communications c. Clarifications, discussions, and explanations d. Conversations, clarifications, and discussions
a. Communications, discussions, and clarifications
28
You are reviewing a contract that utilizes the uniform contract format. In Section J you see an exhibit. How will the exhibit be displayed? a. With one or two numeric characters (e.g., Exhibit 1) b. With one or two alpha characters (e.g., Exhibit AA) c. With one alpha and one numeric character (e.g., Exhibit A1) d. Utilizing only Roman numerals (e.g., Exhibit XI)
b. With one or two alpha characters (e.g., Exhibit AA)
29
With limited exceptions as authorized by agency regulations, what does the FAR say about government employees soliciting and accepting gifts from contractors? Government employees: a. May solicit and accept gifts if in accordance with commercial business practices b. May solicit and accept gifts in overseas countries where bribery is legal c. May not solicit or accept gifts d. May not solicit gifts, but may accept gifts if their performance exceeded standards
c. May not solicit or accept gifts
30
With few exceptions, which one of the following statements is true regarding awarding contracts to U.S. government employees? a. A contracting officer shall not knowingly award a contract to a government employee unless the purchase amount is less than the micro-purchase threshold b. A government employee can receive a government contract c. A government employee can receive a government contract as long as they haveincorporated d. A contracting officer shall not knowingly award a contract to a government employee
d. A contracting officer shall not knowingly award a contract to a government employee
31
Which section of the uniform contract format (UCF) exists to include negotiated, meaningful special contract requirements that are not included in Section I, Contract clauses, or in other sections of the UCF? a. Section B b. Section J c. Section G d. Section H
d. Section H
32
In a Determination and Findings, what is true about the findings? a. They are a conclusion b. They are support for the determination c. They are not included in the contract file d. They are not required
b. They are support for the determination
33
Which event is meant to aid both the government and contractor personnel to achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements, and identify and resolve potentialproblems after contract award? a. Site visit b. Pre-solicitation conference c. Industry day d. Post award orientation conference
d. Postaward orientation conference
34
Who is the individual designated and authorized in writing by the contracting officer to perform specific technical or administrative functions? a. Contracting officer's representative b. Contract specialist c. Government property administrator d. Quality assurance representative
a. Contracting officer's representative
35
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Acquisition Teams? a. The Acquisition Team includes only representatives of the technical, supply, and procurement communities and the customers they serve b. Due to privity of contract, only prime contractors (and not subcontractors) are part of the Acquisition Team c. The Acquisition Team includes representatives of the technical, supply, and procurement communities, the customers they serve, and the contractors who provide the products and services d. The Acquisition Team’s activities conclude after contract award
c. The Acquisition Team includes representatives of the technical, supply, and procurement communities, the customers they serve, and the contractors who provide the products and services
36
Which of the following reflects market research policy? Market research: a. Satisfies the contracting officer’s fair and reasonable price determination b. Begins once the requirements documents have been developed and are ready for solicitation c. Ends at contract award d. Aids in determining if sources capable of satisfying the agency’s requirements exist
d. Aids in determining if sources capable of satisfying the agency’s requirements exist
37
Which statement is NOT conducive toward forming a cohesive team? a. The government should foster a cooperative working relationship with contractors consistent with its overriding responsibility to the taxpayers b. The contracts office and the program office should be synchronized as it relates to the end goal c. The government should foster an "arm’s length" approach for an effective relationship d. Good communication is important in building a cohesive team
c. The government should foster an "arm’s length" approach for an effective relationship
38
Where in the FAR can you find guidance on how to establish, maintain, and dispose of government contract files? a. FAR part 4 b. FAR part 5 c. FAR part 6 d. FAR part 7
a. FAR part 4
39
Which statement is true regarding the authority of a contracting officer's representative (COR)? a. It shall be commensurate with all of the same authority granted to the contracting officer b. It shall be designated in writing, with a copy given to the contractor and contract administration office c. It shall be given verbally by the contracting officer only on a case-by-case basis d. It shall be granted by the program office once the COR has been designated by thecontracting officer
b. It shall be designated in writing, with a copy given to the contractor and contract administration office
40
Which term means the total cost to the government of acquiring, operating, supporting, and (if applicable) disposing of the items being acquired? a. Total costs of ownership b. Life cycle costs c. True program costs d. Total costs of management
b. Life cycle costs
41
It is the government’s policy that before executing a contract, the contracting officer must do what? a. Obtain written assurance from the responsible fiscal authority that adequate funds are available b. Obtain written assurance from the paying office that adequate funds are available c. Confirm that the Appropriations Bill has passed d. Obtain written assurance from the head of the contracting office that adequate funds are available
a. Obtain written assurance from the responsible fiscal authority that adequate funds are available
42
What would be the preferred way to acquire an item in government contracting? a. Purchase the requirement as a noncommercial item b. Purchase the requirement as a commercial item c. Purchase the item as an other transactional authority acquisition d. Purchase the item as a developmental item
b. Purchase the requirement as a commercial item
43
In briefing prenegotiation objectives for approval, what should contracting officers ensure regarding their briefing slides? a. They are read by the briefer b. They are filled with text c. They are extremely colorful d. They are simple and concise
d. They are simple and concise
44
Government contract types are grouped into two broad categories. This includes fixed-price contracts and what other contract category? a. Variable-cost contracts b. Cost-reimbursement contracts c. Cost contracts d. Undefinitized contracts
b. Cost-reimbursement contracts
45
When should acquisition planning begin? a. When a purchase request is received b. When a statement of work is received c. As soon as the agency need is identified d. Within 30 days of receipt of the purchase request
c. As soon as the agency need is identified
46
Which of the following is an accounting or financial term when addressing contractual funding issues? a. Physical b. Fiscal c. Fiduciary
b. Fiscal
47
How are incentive contracts designed to obtain specific acquisition objectives? a. By motivating contractor efforts that might not otherwise be emphasized b. By ensuring contractors meet minimum requirements c. By allowing the government to meet funding objectives d. By addressing fluctuations in market conditions
a. By motivating contractor efforts that might not otherwise be emphasized
48
Contracting officers shall provide property to contractors only when what is clearly demonstrated? a. The overall benefit to the acquisition significantly outweighs the increased cost of administration b. The contractor requests the use of government property c. Government property is available d. The contractor is unwilling to supply its own resources
a. The overall benefit to the acquisition significantly outweighs the increased cost ofadministration
49
The contracting officer shall take which of the following actions to encourage small business participation in acquisitions? a. Encourage small businesses to subcontract to large businesses b. Bundle or consolidate acquisitions c. Abbreviate delivery schedules to decrease the likelihood of large businesses proposing d. Divide acquisitions into reasonably small lots to permit offers on quantities less than the total requirement
d. Divide acquisitions into reasonably small lots to permit offers on quantities less than thetotal requirement
50
Which of the following is an exception to obtaining certified cost or pricing data? a. Adequate price competition b. Sole source acquisition c. Subcontractor contracts d. Noncommercial item
a. Adequate price competition
51
To the maximum extent practicable, acquisition officials shall state requirements of supplies or services in terms of functions to be performed, performance required, or: a. Essential physical characteristics b. Commerciality c. Requiring activity preference d. Availability
a. Essential physical characteristics
52
Provisions and clauses should be incorporated by reference in solicitations and contracts: a. Unless they are used with more than one alternate, then full text is required b. To the maximum practical extent, rather than being incorporated in full text c. Unless they contain a blank within the text that the contracting officer must fill in prior toaward d. Unless the uniform contract format (UCF) applies
b. To the maximum practical extent, rather than being incorporated in full text
53
Which offerors receive an amendment on a solicitation that has yet to close? a. All parties in the competitive range b. None. Solicitations are modified, not amended. c. All parties receiving the solicitation d. None. Solicitations can't be amended until they have closed.
c. All parties receiving the solicitation
54
What is the purpose of exchanging information with industry before receipt of proposals? a. Always obtain the lowest price for government requirements b. Find a sole source contractor to meet the government’s requirements c. Negotiate the best deal in response to the government’s requirements d. Improve the understanding of government requirements and industry capabilities
d. Improve the understanding of government requirements and industry capabilities
55
When using FAR part 12 procedures, the technical evaluation would normally include examination of such things as product literature, product samples (if requested), technical features, and: a. Management plans b. Manufacturing plans c. Quality assurance plans d. Warranty provisions
d. Warranty provisions
56
Which statement is true regarding how agencies shall conduct market research? a. In the same manner for all acquisitions for consistency purposes b. Only if unsure of adequate competition c. Appropriate to the circumstances d. Until release of the solicitation
c. Appropriate to the circumstances
57
Which of the following is the correct title of a solicitation for negotiated procedures? a. Invitation for Proposals b. Request for Proposals c. Request for Cost Proposals d. Request for Information
b. Request for Proposals
58
At what dollar value must a contracting officer synopsize a proposed contract action in thegovernmentwide point of entry (GPE)? a. Expected to exceed $25,000 b. Expected to be between $15,000 and $25,000 c. Only if exceeding $500,000 d. Only if exceeding $1,000,000
a. Expected to exceed $25,000
59
After release of the solicitation, who must be the focal point of any exchange with potential offerors? a. The program manager b. The technical evaluation lead c. The cost/price analyst d. The contracting officer
d. The contracting officer
60
What is an overarching principle for responding to questions from all potential offerors? a. Fairness b. Brevity c. Protest avoidance d. Narrowing of competition
a. Fairness
61
You have determined that FAR part 12 applies to your commercial item requirement. Which of the following contract types is appropriate when using FAR Part 12 procedures? a. Fixed-price incentive b. Firm-fixed price, level-of-effort c. Firm-fixed-price d. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
c. Firm-fixed-price
62
Whenever a contracting officer (CO) is required to publicize notice of proposed contract actions in the governmentwide point of entry (GPE), what must the CO do? a. Allow a different response time for each potential offeror in order to promote better competition b. Establish a common response time for all offerors from the date of publication c. Include the independent government estimate for the requirement d. Include the most current budget for the resulting contract
b. Establish a common response time for all offerors from the date of publication
63
One day after publicizing and releasing a solicitation, the contracting officer realizes that the contract line items need to be reorganized. What must the contracting officer do? a. Leave the solicitation as is and plan to modify the contract after award b. Wait to see if offerors have issues with the current contract line-item structure c. Amend the solicitation, changing the contract line items d. Publicize an advisory letter with the new contract line-item structure
c. Amend the solicitation, changing the contract line items
64
Which FAR part is the best source of information regarding competition requirements? a. FAR part 6 b. FAR part 8 c. FAR part 13 d. FAR part 15
a. FAR part 6
65
You are a DoD contracting officer and have used simplified acquisition procedures under FAR part 13 to award a commercial purchase order for supplies. Given only this information, which form is most appropriate to use should you need to modify your purchase order? a. Standard Form 30, Amendment of Solicitation/Modification of Contract b. Standard Form 1449, Solicitation/Contract/Order for Commercial Items c. Standard Form 33, Solicitation, Offer and Award d. DD Form 1155, Order for Supplies or Services
a. Standard Form 30, Amendment of Solicitation/Modification of Contract
66
A contractor is developing their pricing strategy in a competitive environment. Knowing the required effort will result in follow-on contracts, the contractor submits an offer below anticipated costs with the plan to recover any losses by increasing the price on follow-on efforts. What is this pricing strategy referred to as? a. Unbalanced pricing b. Buying-in c. Defective pricing d. Marginal value pricing
b. Buying-in
67
You’re administering a large dollar non-commercial weapons contract. The contracting officer asks to see the Contract Data Requirements List (CDRL) in Exhibit B. Which uniform contract format (UCF) section in your contract would you refer to? a. Section A b. Section C c. Section I d. Section J
d. Section J
68
In evaluating a solicitation, which section of the uniform contract format (UCF) would contain information to the offeror regarding the evaluation factors and subfactors the government will use to evaluate the offeror’s proposal? a. Section A b. Section I c. Section L d. Section M
d. Section M
69
You are a proposal manager for a large defense contractor, leading your company's effort to win a contract. In order to determine the page limit for your proposal, which section in the request for proposal should you review? a. Section H – Special contract requirements b. Section I – Contract clauses c. Section L – Instructions, conditions, and notices to offerors or respondents d. Section M – Evaluation factors for award
c. Section L – Instructions, conditions, and notices to offerors or respondents
70
Which of the following is specifically set up to help firms view current government business opportunities? a. The governmentwide point of entry (GPE) b. The local office of the Small Business Administration (SBA) c. The Chamber of Commerce d. GSA Advantage
a. The governmentwide point of entry (GPE)
71
What is the objective of a source selection? a. To select the proposal with the lowest price b. To select the proposal with advancements in technology c. To select the proposal that represents the best value d. To select the proposal with the fewest rewrites
c. To select the proposal that represents the best value
72
It is the government’s pricing policy to purchase supplies and services at fair and reasonable prices from whom? a. Responsive sources b. Responsible sources c. Sources that offer the lowest possible price d. The smallest set of sources
b. Responsible sources
73
When a potential contractor is developing a proposal where cost analysis will be performed, the potential contractor will need to ensure it has excluded what type of costs from the proposal? a. Undefinitized b. Fee bearing c. Indirect to the acquisition d. Expressly unallowable
d. Expressly unallowable
74
What are the two types of negotiated acquisitions? a. Sole source and competitive b. Sole source and single source c. Source selection and competitive d. Single source and face-to-face
a. Sole source and competitive
75
What type of contract should be used for an item that uses a very large amount of gold and other precious metals in the manufacturing process? a. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment b. Firm-fixed-price with performance-based payments c. Cost-plus-award fee d. Time-and-materials
a. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment
76
Which of the following best describes the purpose of proposal analysis? a. To ensure the price is fair and reasonable b. To validate the Government requirement is met c. To determine if the proposal follows commercial practices d. To evaluate the specifications of the product or service
a. To ensure the price is fair and reasonable
77
When a contractor submits a Certificate of Current Cost or Pricing data, what does it certify? a. All contractor data “sweeps" have been accomplished b. Negotiations have been completed, and the parties have come to agreement c. The data submitted in support of a negotiations are current, accurate, and complete d. The data it submitted to support negotiations has been properly notarized
c. The data submitted in support of negotiations are current, accurate, and complete
78
Which acquisition situation would warrant an exception to the requirement for certified cost or pricing data? a. Sole source award b. Commercial item acquisition c. Major weapon system acquisition d. Small business award
b. Commercial item acquisition
79
Which type of solicitation may require the submission of certified cost or pricing data? a. Micropurchase request b. Invitation for bids c. Request for quotations d. Request for proposals
d. Request for proposals
80
Which contract type shifts cost risk from the government to the contractor? a. Labor-hour b. Fixed-price c. Time-and-materials d. Cost-reimbursement
b. Fixed-price
81
A proposal submission time and date of 2 p.m. on February 3, 2020, appeared on the cover page of a government solicitation. Based on the information provided at FAR 52.215-1, Instructions to Offerors – Competitive Acquisitions, which of the following proposals is late? a. The contractor provided its proposal at 2:15 p.m. on February 3, 2020 b. The contractor provided its proposal on January 25, 2020 c. The contractor sent a proposal electronically at 1:30 p.m. on February 2, 2020; however, the government did not receive the proposal until February 4, 2020, due to the government server being down for repairs. The contractor had proof of the server failure. d. The contractor physically delivered their proposal at 11 a.m. on Tuesday on February 4, 2020, due to the fact that at 1 p.m. on Friday, February 3, there was a bomb scare that shut down the government contracts office for the remainder of the day precluding physical delivery of their proposal
a. The contractor provided its proposal at 2:15 p.m. on February 3, 2020
82
When does a contracting officer have the broadest discretion in fashioning suitable evaluation procedures? When considering: a. Proposals b. Bids c. Unsolicited proposals d. Quotations
d. Quotations
83
Which of the following are limited exchanges between the government and offerors that may occur when award without discussions is contemplated? a. Negotiations b. Discussions c. Clarifications d. Communications
c. Clarifications
84
Negotiating positions should be developed through which of the following? a. Price or cost analysis b. The independent Government cost estimate (IGCE) c. Always using a should cost analysis d. Solely on the price analyst's judgment
a. Price or cost analysis
85
During discussions, the contracting officer: a. Should discuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal if alterations or explanations would enhance the proposal’s potential for award b. Must pursue obtaining what is best for the government value irrespective of the evaluation factors set forth in the solicitation c. May not negotiate with offerors for increased performance beyond mandatory minimums d. May favor one offeror over another during discussions
a. Should discuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal if alterations or explanations would enhance the proposal’s potential for award
86
In the FAR, the term discussions is synonymous with which of the following? a. Market research b. Exchanges c. Fact-findings d. Negotiations
d. Negotiations
87
Which of the following documents would the contracting officer use to document the purpose, description, and outcome of negotiations? a. Price Negotiation Memorandum b. Standard Form 1409, Abstract of Offers c. Certificate of Current Cost or Pricing Data d. Standard Form 30, Amendment of Solicitation/Modification of Contract
a. Price Negotiation Memorandum
88
Where in the FAR is contracting by negotiation covered? a. FAR part 12 b. FAR part 13 c. FAR part 14 d. FAR part 15
d. FAR part 15
89
Which statement is accurate regarding prenegotiation objectives? a. Document the elements of the negotiated agreement b. Establish the government’s initial negotiation position c. Establish the government’s final negotiation position d. Are unnecessary if submission of certified cost of pricing data is required
b. Establish the government’s initial negotiation position
90
When must the competitive range for competitive negotiations be established? a. Whenever the evaluation team has a question about the proposal b. When clarifications are complete c. Before initiating communications d. Prior to entering into discussions
d. Prior to entering into discussions
91
Which represents the correct order for the proposal evaluation process? a. Award the contract, evaluate initial proposals, determine the competitive range, negotiate, request final proposal revisions b. Determine the competitive range, evaluate initial proposals, negotiate, request final proposal revisions, award the contract c. Evaluate initial proposals, negotiate, determine the competitive range, request final proposal revisions, award the contract d. Evaluate initial proposals, determine the competitive range, negotiate, request final proposal revisions, award the contract
d. Evaluate initial proposals, determine the competitive range, negotiate, request final proposal revisions, award the contract
92
In a competitive source selection, does the FAR require you to have the exact same discussions with each offeror in the competitive range? a. No, you are only required to hold discussions with those that have an opportunity to improve their proposals b. No, discussions are tailored to each offeror’s proposal c. Yes, you must be consistent and ask the exact same question to each offeror d. Yes, unless the action is a competitive 8(a)
b. No, discussions are tailored to each offeror’s proposal
93
Acme Company did not make the competitive range in a source selection. When the contracting officer asks for final proposal revisions, the contracting officer: a. Will not contact Acme Company since it is no longer in the competition b. Will contact Acme Company since it can still submit a final proposal revision c. Has the option to either contact Acme Company and request a final proposal revision or not contact Acme Company d. Must advise Acme Company that it may not submit a final proposal revision
a. Will not contact Acme Company since it is no longer in the competition
94
A government contract specialist received several offers on a request for proposal (RFP) that was set aside for a small business. In order to avoid unnecessary work, what should be the first thing the contract specialist should ensure when reviewing each proposal? a. The pricing matrix is reasonable when compared to the Government estimate and other proposals. b. The proposal is from a small business. c. The offeror has addressed all of the evaluation factors listed in Section M. d. The offeror has included a bid bond in an amount sufficient to cover 20% of its offer price.
b. The proposal is from a small business.
95
Which of the following is correct regarding use of the tradeoff source selection process? a. The contracting officer must select the lowest priced proposal b. Evaluation factors that will affect contract award must be stated in the solicitation c. Exchanges between the Government and offerors are prohibited d. The contracting officer must select the highest technically rated proposal
b. Evaluation factors that will affect contract award must be stated in the solicitation
96
When holding discussions with offerors in a source selection, all the following must be discussed EXCEPT: a. Adverse past performance information to which the offeror has not yet had an opportunity to respond b. Deficiencies c. Price d. Significant weaknesses
c. Price
97
Which of the following is correct regarding the preaward debriefing of offerors excluded from the competitive range? a. The offeror must request the debriefing by written request to the contracting officer within 10 days after receipt of the notice of exclusion from the competition b. The offeror must request the debriefing by written request to the contracting officer within 3 days after receipt of the notice of exclusion from the competition c. The Government’s legal counsel should chair the debriefing session d. The offeror is not entitled to a debriefing until after award
b. The offeror must request the debriefing by written request to the contracting officer within 3 days after receipt of the notice of exclusion from the competition
98
The government has a requirement for computer equipment. The program office indicates that its users will have no need for performance capabilities beyond the minimum technical specifications stated in the purchase request. Which source selection process would be most appropriate in this situation? a. Tradeoff b. Lowest bidder c. Lowest price technically acceptable d. Lowest cost technically acceptable
c. Lowest price technically acceptable
99
What action is performed early in the acquisition cycle versus at or near contract award? a. The acquisition plan is drafted and approved according to agency policy b. The source selection decision is written c. The unsuccessful offer notification is given d. The postaward debriefings are conducted
a. The acquisition plan is drafted and approved according to agency policy
100
What is the preferred method to make a purchase at or below the micro-purchase threshold? a. Government-wide commercial purchase card b. Purchase order c. Blanket purchase agreement d. Standard Form (SF) 44
a. Government-wide commercial purchase card
101
The government team is ready to request final proposal revisions. As a result, we know that: a. Discussions have concluded b. The competitive range is to be determined next c. The final round of discussions is about to commence d. Discussions will commence next
a. Discussions have concluded
102
A protest can be filed for which of the following? a. Claim b. Bad performance rating c. Termination for default for failure to deliver d. Solicitation
d. Solicitation
103
Of the following, which is an acceptable venue to file a protest? a. Small claims court b. The agency c. County court d. U.S. District Court of Protest, Claims and Appeals
b. The agency
104
Two neighbors do not get along very well. One is a contracting officer, and the other works for an auto dealership, that has no contracts with the government. The auto dealership employee decided to file a protest to a contract that was just awarded, knowing it would add extra work to the contracting officer’s day. Can the contracting officer’s neighbor file a protest as an interested party? a. Yes. b. Yes, if he is a resident of the United States and has not had a felony conviction. c. No. d. No, because only business owners can file a protest, and his neighbor is an employee, not a business owner.
c. No.
105
Contractors are required to certify that a claim is made in good faith when submitting any claim exceeding: a. $100,000 b. $250,000 c. $500,000 d. $1,000,000
a. $100,000
106
Which is a proper protest venue? a. U.S. Court of Federal Claims b. U.S. Court of Appeals c. U.S. District Court d. Board of Contract Appeals
a. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
107
Upon notice that a protest has been filed with the Government Accountability Office (GAO), who must immediately begin compiling the information necessary for a report to the GAO? a. The agency legal advisor b. The program manager c. The head of the contracting activity d. The contracting officer
d. The contracting officer
108
Unless an exception exists, and in accordance with FAR part 15–Contracting by Negotiations, noncommercial contracts and solicitations will be awarded utilizing what contract format? a. The appropriate service (Army, Air Force, or Navy) format b. The major command’s contract format c. The format as designated by the head of the contracting activity (HCA) for the appropriate service d. The uniform contract format
d. The uniform contract format
109
Which is an essential element of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)? a. A voluntary election by both parties to participate in the ADR processs b. A voluntary disclosure by both parties of their cost estimates to complete the remaining work c. Each side being represented by attorneys certified as Federal procurement specialists d. At least one side represented by an individual who has the authority to resolve the issue
a. A voluntary election by both parties to participate in the ADR processs
110
What is the government's policy as it relates to controversies with a contractor during performance of the contract? a. Attempt to resolve conflict at the lowest possible level b. Attempt to resolve conflict at the contracting officer’s level c. Terminate the contract when the disagreements cannot be worked out d. Ensure the contractor knows and understands its rights
b. Attempt to resolve conflict at the contracting officer’s level
111
What FAR part covers protests? a. FAR part 31 b. FAR part 32 c. FAR part 33 d. FAR part 34
c. FAR part 33
112
A postaward orientation aids both government and contractor personnel to: a. Achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements and identify and resolve potential problems b. Discuss and further develop the Performance Work Statement c. Meet all stakeholders in person in order to brainstorm how to make the contract less costly d. Develop and understand the contractor's quality control plan
a. Achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements and identify and resolve potential problems
113
What agency does DoD typically delegate contract administrative responsibilities for supply contracts? a. Defense Contract Audit Agency b. Defense Contract Management Agency c. Defense Regulatory Agency d. Defense Logistics Agency
b. Defense Contract Management Agency
114
Can a contractor file a protest at any time it chooses? a. Yes b. No, it must protest within 152 days of contract award c. No, it only has 2 days from contract award to file a protest d. No, there are established timeframes within which a contractor must file its protest
d. No, there are established timeframes within which a contractor must file its protest
115
What will the government do when late in paying an otherwise acceptable invoice? a. Negotiate consideration b. Submit a claim c. NOT pay an interest penalty d. Pay an interest penalty
d. Pay an interest penalty
116
What is true about the acquisition team according to FAR 1.102-3? The team: a. Includes the contractor b. Does not include the contractor c. Includes the contractor for sole source buys only d. Includes the contractor for competitive buys only
a. Includes the contractor
117
You have a requirement for an online subscription to Engineering News Record. The site owner requires payment before they will provide the license code number to activate the annual subscription. Which payment form is required? a. An invoice payment b. A progress payment c. A commercial payment d. An advance payment
d. An advance payment
118
When acquiring commercial items, quality assurance is primarily the responsibility of: a. The contracting officer's representative (COR) b. The contracting officer c. The inspection and acceptance personnel at the receiving dock (government supply point) d. The contractor
d. The contractor
119
What is a purpose of a postaward orientation? a. Allow the contractor to change an unclear term or condition in the contract b. Start working on the first modification to the contract c. Achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements d. Allow the government to meet and establish privity with subcontractors
c. Achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements
120
In ensuring overall quality of items and services received under a contract, which of the following is the responsibility of the government? a. Designing, fabrication and inspection of all items b. Quality assurance surveillance c. Designing the contractor's inspection system d. Fabrication of subassemblies
b. Quality assurance surveillance
121
A contractor employee accidentally broke a test fixture that belongs to the government and is accountable to a government contract. Generally speaking, which statement is true? a. Contractors are held liable but only in cost-reimbursement contracts b. Contractors are not held liable for loss of government property c. The contractor will have to pay for the test fixture d. The government shall terminate the contract when any government property is intentionally destroyed
b. Contractors are not held liable for loss of government property
122
What is the government’s preferred remedy to nonconforming goods or services? a. Terminate the contract for default b. Unilaterally reduce the contract price by the value of the nonconforming goods or services c. Allow the contractor to repair or replace the nonconforming items, as long as the contract has not been closed out d. Allow the contractor to repair or replace the nonconforming items, as long as there is still time left within the required delivery schedule
d. Allow the contractor to repair or replace the nonconforming items, as long as there is still time left within the required delivery schedule
123
Quality assurance policies and procedures found in FAR part 46: a. Apply to both the government and contractor b. Apply only to subcontractors c. Guide the process of determining a competitive range d. Apply to contractors but not the government
a. Apply to both the government and contractor
124
With limited exceptions, when is a Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report required? a. When the contract requires certified cost or pricing data b. For all contracts/purchase orders c. For contracts exceeding one million dollars d. When the contract dollar value exceeds the simplified acquisition threshold
d. When the contract dollar value exceeds the simplified acquisition threshold
125
What are contractors responsible for? a. Appointing government contracting officer representatives b. Managing government quality control c. Tendering to the government for acceptance only those supplies or services that conform to contract quality requirements d. Prescribing government quality assurance
c. Tendering to the government for acceptance only those supplies or services that conform to contract quality requirements
126
Does the government have the right to inspect a product before it is accepted? a. No b. No, unless the item is a commercial product c. Yes, unless the item is a commercial product d. Yes, always
d. Yes, always
127
Quality assurance on contract actions valued below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is: a. Minimal, unless a special circumstance exists b. The same as above the SAT c. More stringent for commercial items d. Not necessary, as risk of loss is considered too low to justify the expense
a. Minimal, unless a special circumstance exists
128
In commercial contracting, what quality system is utilized? a. The government's b. The contractor's c. The Commercial Quality System (CQS) d. ISO 900 Series
b. The contractor's
129
According to the FAR, acceptance of supplies or services is the responsibility of whom? a. The project manager (or designated representative) b. The quality assurance representative (QAR) c. The contracting officer d. The plant clearance officer
c. The contracting officer
130
Which of the following statements regarding Small Business Subcontracting Plans is accurate? a. Required for contracts with large businesses, regardless of location b. Required for contracts with both large and small businesses, regardless of location c. Not required for contracts with large or small businesses, regardless of location d. Not required for contracts with large businesses performed overseas
d. Not required for contracts with large businesses performed overseas
131
When preparing a solicitation, the quality requirements essential to ensure the integrity of the supplies or services is developed by whom? a. The procurement contracting officer (PCO) b. The activity responsible for technical requirements c. The contractor’s quality control representative d. The administrative contracting officer (ACO)
b. The activity responsible for technical requirements
132
When does title for a completed product transfer to the government, assuming the product meets all contract requirements? a. Title transfer only applies to real estate transactions, not purchases of products b. When the government takes physical possession of the product c. On the last day of the month that the item was presented for inspection and acceptance d. Upon formal acceptance by the government
d. Upon formal acceptance by the government
133
Does the government’s policy to require prime contractors to incorporate, to the maximum extent practicable, commercial items or nondevelopmental items as components of items supplied to the agency, apply to subcontractors at all levels? a. No, it only applies to first-tier subcontracts b. No, it only applies to first- and second-tier subcontracts c. Yes d. The policy of flowing down this requirement no longer applies to DoD acquisitions
c. Yes
134
Which of the following modifications must be issued bilaterally? a. Making administrative changes b. Making a negotiated equitable adjustment caused by a change order c. Issuing a change order d. Issuing a termination notice
b. Making a negotiated equitable adjustment caused by a change order
135
Change orders issued under the changes clause of the contract use which form? a. SF 30 b. SF 33 c. SF 44 d. SF 1449
a. SF 30
136
Which of the following entities has privity with a first-tier subcontractor? a. The contracting officer b. The prime contractor c. The Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) d. The Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA)
b. The prime contractor
137
What are the two types of contract modifications? a. Supplemental and termination b. Supplemental and equitable adjustment c. Termination and unilateral d. Unilateral and bilateral
d. Unilateral and bilateral
138
Which FAR part is titled “Subcontracting Policies and Procedures”? a. FAR part 43 b. FAR part 44 c. FAR part 45 d. FAR part 46
b. FAR part 44
139
Which of the following contract modifications must be signed by both the contractor and the contracting officer? a. An administrative change b. A termination notice c. An agreement definitizing a letter contract d. Exercising an option within the scope of the contract
c. An agreement definitizing a letter contract
140
What entity can the contractor appeal to if they do not agree with the contracting officer’s final decision on a claim? a. The head of the agency b. The head of the contracting activity (HCA) c. The U.S. Court of Federal Claims d. The Government Accountability Office (GAO)
c. The U.S. Court of Federal Claims
141
The contracting officer is responsible for initiating contract closeout procedures after the contracting officer receives: a. A final audit from the inspector general b. A written request for contract closeout from the contractor c. Notice that the last item has been delivered d. Evidence of physical completion
d. Evidence of physical completion
142
You've received a claim on your contract. The contractor is required to certify its claim above what amount? a. $100,000 b. $10,000 c. $10 million d. $100 million
a. $100,000
143
When shall contracting officers negotiate equitable adjustments resulting from change orders? a. Within 30 days b. Within 90 days c. Within the shortest practicable time d. Within a time frame that is acceptable to the contractor
c. Within the shortest practicable time
144
Who may execute contract modifications on behalf of the government? a. Contracting officers b. Contract specialists c. Contracting officer's representatives (COR) d. Program managers
a. Contracting officers
145
What part of the FAR covers terminations? a. FAR Part 46 b. FAR Part 47 c. FAR Part 48 d. FAR Part 49
d. FAR Part 49
146
You are a contracting officer who has a $260,000 commercial contract. You decide you need to terminate the contract because the contractor has failed to perform. What is the name of this type of termination? a. For noncompliance b. For cause c. For default d. For failure
b. For cause
147
A contract is considered physically complete when the contractor has completed all the required deliveries and: a. All obligated funds on the contract have been expensed b. The contractor has submitted their final invoice c. The government has inspected all the items d. The government has accepted all the items
d. The government has accepted all the items
148
What office or entity is responsible for initiating administrative closeout of the contract after receiving evidence of physical completion? a. The contractor b. The government contract administration office c. The government user/requiring activity d. Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA)
b. The government contract administration office
149
Contract files for contracts using simplified acquisition procedures should be considered closed when the contracting officer receives evidence of two things. The first is receipt of the property or service. What is the second? a. Final acceptance b. Final inspection c. Final payment d. Final approval of the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report
c. Final payment