CSFA Flashcards
(235 cards)
1
Q
Thrombophlebitis relates to a blood clot located in?
A
Vein
2
Q
Which of the following is an intraarticular structure of the knee?
A
Anterior cruciate ligament
3
Q
______ is defined as accelerated respiration.
A
Tachypnea
4
Q
A ruptured alveolus may result in?
A
Pneumothorax
5
Q
What is the motor function and sensory domain of the radial nerve distribution?
A
Wrist extension; dorsal aspect of the forearm/hand
6
Q
Inflammation near or around the kidney is known as?
A
Paranephritis
7
Q
How many lobes are in the left lung?
A
Two
8
Q
What is an avulsion fracture?
A
Fracture where the tendon is pulled from bone; carries bone chip with it
9
Q
A disease involving the joints and nerves?
A
Neuroarthropathy
10
Q
Which nerve is located in the posterior aspect of the thigh?
A
Sciatic
11
Q
What is the first branch of the external carotid artery?
A
Superior thyroid artery
12
Q
Where do the intercostal veins drain directly into?
A
Azygous vein
13
Q
What are the osseous structures in the knee?
A
Patella
Distal Femoral Condyles
Proximal Medial Tibial Condyles
14
Q
When performing a Carotid Endarterectomy, which nerve runs parallel to the lateral aspect of the Common Carotid Artery?
A
Vagus Nerve (CN X)
15
Q
What gland secretes Epinephrine?
A
Adrenal gland
16
Q
What is not a symptom of shock?
A
Hypertension
17
Q
Which artery comes off the middle of an abdominal aortic aneurysm and runs to the left?
A
Inferior Mesenteric Artery
18
Q
What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?
A
Median nerve
19
Q
Cytology is the study of?
A
Cells
20
Q
Which of the following terms denotes low or decreased blood volume?
A
Hypovolemia
21
Q
Onset of cramping calf pain with exercise that improves while the patient stands quietly is indicative of?
A
Arterial inflow problems
22
Q
An embryonic germ cell that matures to a muscle cell is?
A
Myoblast
23
Q
Where are the cruciate ligaments located?
A
Knee
24
Q
What are Salter classifications?
A
Fractures in children involving the physis
25
What is the best definition of diaphysis?
Main shaft of a long bone
26
What is the proper definition of adduction?
Movement towards the body
27
In what tissue would a figure of eight stitch be used?
Fascia
28
What is the proper definition of inversion?
Foot insole faces midline
29
What water temperature range is best for preparing a plaster splint?
Room temperature
30
What is the proper definition of plantarflexion?
Foot down at the ankle joint
31
What is the correct term for an estimate of the patient's future progress?
Prognosis
32
In what stitch would a Connell stitch be used?
Intestine
33
What does it mean to "Potts" a vessel?
Place a vessel loop twice around a vessel
34
What complication is the most critical when positioning a patient for surgery?
Respiratory compromise
35
What is proper positioning of the legs in the lateral position?
Lower leg flexed, upper leg straight
36
Which knot is least likely to come untied?
Square knot
37
What is a mechanical method of hemostasis used during orthopedic procedures?
Bone wax
38
When a patient is placed on a fracture table, care must be given to pad the perineal post to avoid injury to what nerve?
Pudendal nerve
39
What layer of the abdominal wall is closed last?
Scarpa's fascia
40
Why would a patient enter the OR wearing elastic stockings?
To prevent thrombus formation
41
What is the proper definition for dorsiflexion?
Foot up at the ankle joint
42
What is the proper definition for pronation?
Rotate forearm so palm faces down
43
Prior to surgery for chronic Peripheral Vascular Disease, what diagnostic test will every patient receive?
Arteriogram
44
What needle gauge is most appropriate for local infiltration?
25g
45
Movement that shortens a body part, such as bending the leg is known as?
Flexion
46
What is the best description of "third spacing"?
Fluid accumulation in the interstitium of tissue
47
Retraction of fine structures during vascular surgery is accomplished by use of?
Vessel loops
48
Why would an external fixator be used over other treatments?
Better fixation of badly comminuted open fractures
49
Surgical opening in neck for insertion of a breathing tube is called?
Tracheostomy
50
In which age group do most rotator cuff tears start to occur?
50s
51
Which type of hemostatic agent is placed on each side of the sternum after a median sternotomy?
Bone wax
52
Which nerve is most commonly at risk because of hip injury or surgery?
Sciatic nerve
53
What are the disadvantages of external fixation?
Fracture through pin tracts
Refracture after removal of device
Cumbersome equipment
54
When a late night exploratory laparotomy is performed, what is most commonly misdiagnosed as appendicitis?
Ovarian cysts
55
A biliary-enteric fistula frequently connects the gallbladder with the?
Duodenum
56
When preparing the OR for orthopedic or spine surgery, what is the most important consideration for bed selection?
Imaging capabilities
57
Cervical rib resection is performed to relieve?
Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
58
Surgical crushing of a calculus or stone in the urinary tract is?
Lithotripsy
59
What is the term for an elective surgical procedure as a permanent method of sterilization?
Vasectomy
60
If saphenous vein will not be used during a CABG, what is the next preferred vessel?
Internal Mammary Artery
61
Cholecystitis is defined as?
Inflammation of the gallbladder
62
Which type of suture is not used in vascular surgery to suture vessels or grafts?
Chromic gut
63
Vertical-banded gastroplasty and Roux-en-Y are common procedures in which type of surgery?
Bariatric
64
Immediately following a total hip or hemi arthroplasty, what is used to prevent hip dislocation?
An abduction pillow
65
What is a SLAP lesion in orthopedic surgery?
Superior labral from anterior to posterior tear in the shoulder
66
As a CSA, which of the following procedures would you anticipate the use of chest tubes and a water seal drainage system?
Lobectomy
67
During an open inguinal herniorrhaphy, the spermatic cord is?
Retracted with a Penrose drain
68
During a low anterior colon resection, the anvil of the EEA stapler is inserted into which structure?
Sigmoid colon
69
When performing a radical cystectomy, what vessels can be ligated to control bleeding?
Both hypogastric arteries
70
Which procedure involves surgical removal of a plaque from inside an artery?
Endarterectomy
71
Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be verified by?
Radiography
72
What is a self-retaining retractor used for open procedures of the abdominal cavity?
Balfour retractor
73
A "sweetheart" retractor is also known as?
Harrington retractor
74
What is needed to complete the circuit on an electrosurgical unit when using a monopolar electrode?
A dispersive pad (grounding pad)
75
Which surgical instrument is used to determine the screw length during an ORIF?
Depth gauge
76
Which scissors are used for intravascular access during an Endarterectomy?
Potts scissors
77
Aeration is essential following which method of sterilization?
Ethylene oxide gas
78
Which retractor would be most useful in a posterolateral thoracotomy?
Davidson
79
The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called?
Electromyography (EMG)
80
What is the best method of preventing hypothermia in the OR?
Forced air warming blankets
81
What is the term for a legal wrong committed by one person involving injury to another person?
Tort
82
What instrument is used to approximate the ribs following a thoracotomy?
Bailey rib contractor
83
When should the CSA check overall integrity of laparoscopic instruments to ensure insulation failure does not occur?
Before usage
84
What is a Tru-Cut needle is used for?
To obtain a biopsy
85
A nasogastric (NG) tube is used for?
To drain the stomach
86
A critical component of a disaster plan that impacts the OR is?
Receiving area and triage of patients
87
Where is the Babcock clamp used most often?
Bowel
88
Which radiological technique is described as an x-ray beam that moves back and forth across the body to project cross-sectional images?
Computed Axial Tomography (CAT)
89
A small spring vascular clamp used for occluding peripheral vessels is a?
Bulldog clamps
90
Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures?
Intra-aortic balloon pump
91
Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
Ultrasound
92
What is the standard setting used in laparoscopic surgery for insufflation?
15mmHg
93
Which laser is used to vaporize a portion of the residual lens capsule after cataract surgery?
ND:YAG
94
After six (6) weeks, wounds have achieved what percent of their total tensile strength?
90%
95
What is the vertical dimension within objects are seen in focus?
Depth of field
96
In adults, where is the Medullary Cone of the spinal cord located?
L1-L2
97
What is diagnosed using the Anterior Drawer test?
ACL tear
98
_______ means microbes and infection are absent.
Sterile
99
What is the Grey-Turner sign?
Flank erythema
100
What defines the mechanical axis of the femur?
From the head of the femur to intercondylar notch of distal femur
101
Where is bile produced?
Liver
102
During which phase of colonization, does bacteria adjust to new environments?
Lag phase
103
What is a benign granular cell tumor of the muscle?
Myoblastoma
104
What is septicemia?
Presence of pathogens contaminating the blood
105
Where are the mallus, incus, and stapes located?
Middle ear
106
Which ligament is shortened with a Valgus knee?
LCL
107
During an allergic reaction, what is the greatest risk to the patient's airway?
Edema
108
What should be done if the surgical time-out is interrupted?
Start over with the time-out
109
During time-out, why are all personnel required to stop activity?
To effectively communicate patient identification issues or concerns
110
A patient in the preoperative holding area has a question about the surgical procedure, what should the CSA do?
Get the surgeon to speak with the patient
111
Who makes the medical decisions for a patient with a living will?
The patient
112
Define the legal rule of Liability:
Holds each individual responsible for his or her own acts
113
Which type of stapler is used to divide the Appendix from the Cecum during a laparoscopic appendectomy?
Intestinal linear anastomosis stapler
114
A tourniquet that displays an error message and fails to inflate should?
Be removed from service
115
The procedure for destroying pathogens at the end of the procedure is?
Terminal sterilization
116
Geobacillus stearothermophilus is the biological indicator used in which sterilizer?
Steam
117
The operative paperwork completed by the RN contains?
Sponge/sharp/instrument counts
Specimens
Medications given
118
In the event of a chemical spill in the OR, what is the most appropriate resource for exposure control and clean-up?
Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
119
The Latin phrase, "aeger primo" refers to?
Patient first
120
What is a contraindication for negative pressure wound therapy?
Untreated osteomyelitis
121
An example of "cold" sterilization utilizes which chemical?
Glutaraldehyde
122
What is used to confirm the surgical procedure during an intraoperative time-out?
Patient Surgical Consent
123
What does the doctrine of Respondeat Superior refer to?
Employer liability for employee's negligent conduct
124
A document which a person gives instructions about his or her medical care in the event that the individual cannot speak is?
Advanced directive
125
A surgical sponge left in a patient is an example of what legal doctrine?
Res ipsa loquitur
126
Language barriers with a patient can be stress-producing events. One way to help ease anxiety is by?
Use a gentle touch
127
What is the purpose of a pericardial window?
Cardiac tamponade
128
What artery may be detached and reanastomosed to the graft during an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection?
Renal artery
129
When performing a carotid endarterectomy, which artery is clamped first prior to the arteriotomy?
Internal Carotid Artery
130
During a carotid endarterectomy, the final occlusion clamp to be removed after anastomosis is on the?
Internal Carotid Artery
131
Where is the inguinal hernia contents reduced to?
Peritoneum
132
What is the best indication for endovascular abdominal aortic aneurysm repair (EVAAAR)?
A proximal infrarenal neck remnant of 1-2 cm.
133
During a posterolateral approach to the hip, what nerve is found superficially to the obturator and gemelli and should be protected?
Sciatic nerve
134
What is the most common reason to perform a Cesarean section?
Breech presentation
135
When a loop of jejunum is anastomosed end-to-side with the esophagus in a total gastrectomy, a jejunojejunostomy may be done to?
Prevent regurgitation esophagitis
136
During an ulnar nerve transposition, where is the nerve relocated to?
Anterior aspect of the medial epicondyle
137
Where is the needle placed for an intraarticular aspiration/injection of the knee?
Infrapatellar
138
In the event of dermoid cyst rupture, what irrigant is used to prevent chemical peritonitis caused by the sebaceous material?
Lactated ringers
139
Where is the insertion site for a chest tube?
Midaxillary, 5th intercostal space
140
At what canal does a vascular blockage require a femoral-popliteal bypass?
Adductor canal
141
On which aspect of the distal radius will the incision and approach be for an ORIF?
Volar
142
What drain is generally used for large open contaminated wounds, such as perirectal/perianal fistulas and subcutaneous abscess cavities?
Penrose drain
143
What is the name of the node identified during a cholecystectomy?
Calot
144
What is the most common complication of splinting and casting?
Skin breakdown
145
What is the primary reason an elastic bandage would be utilized on an extremity undergoing a skin graft?
Prevention of fluid accumulation at graft site
146
What gas is less soluble in blood and could persist long enough to cause a form of gas embolus?
Argon
147
What dressing is recommended for a total hip replacement?
Occlusive dressing
148
What stapler is most appropriate to use during a laparoscopic right hemi-colectomy to transect the ileum?
Endo-GIA
149
What stapler is most appropriate to use during an open lower anterior and rectal resection?
End-to-end anastomosis stapler (EEA)
150
What stapler is most appropriate to transect the bowel during an open right hemi-colectomy?
Linear stapler
151
What suture technique is used to secure a drain?
Purse string
152
While assisting on a knee arthroscopy, access to the medial meniscus can be achieved by using which manipulation?
Valgus
153
Where is the axillary roll placed?
2 inches below the axilla
154
What anatomical landmark separates the frontal and parietal lobes and is clinically important because its anterior convolution contains the center for ipsilateral motor control?
Fissure of Rolando
155
What drug is administered during a malignant hyperthermia event?
Dantrolene (2.5 mg/kg)
156
Winged scapula is a condition caused by injury to which nerve?
Long thoracic
157
What oral anticoagulant works as a direct thrombin inhibitor and does not require lab monitoring?
Pradaxa (Dabigatran)
158
What is the most appropriate diagnostic study to monitor a patient on Warfarin?
Prothrombin time
159
An autoimmune disease that causes diffuse, bilateral enlargement of the thyroid and hyperthyroidism?
Graves' disease
160
What class of chemotherapy agents is associated with cardiotoxicity and requires monitoring of cardiac function?
Anthracyclines
161
During induction of anesthesia, the administration of Propofol causes?
A hypnotic state and sedation to unconsciousness
162
What test is used to assess the adequacy of ulnar collateral circulation to the hand?
Allen's test
163
What padding material is most often used to protect bony prominences in cast applications?
Webril
164
CO2 laser beams are absorbed by?
Water
165
What study is typically used to determine Zenker's Diverticulum?
Barium swallow
166
What is the most effective barrier to stop laser energy from penetrating healthy tissue?
Moist padding of surrounding tissue
167
What is the primary purpose of a chest tube?
Re-establish negative pressure
168
Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through?
Biological indicators
169
What laser is used for retinal surgery?
Argon laser
170
When cardiac arrest occurs, how soon must resuscitative efforts occur?
3-5 minutes
171
Failing to observe or act in a situation that the individual should have known about and acted on is called?
Negligence
172
During an arterial embolectomy, which catheter can be used for clot removal?
Fogarty
173
Event-related sterility is concerned with?
Integrity
174
What size catheter is most appropriate following thoracotomy?
30 Fr.
175
How many days after surgery are skin staples removed?
5-7 days
176
Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires which instruments?
Alexander periosteotome
Doyen raspatory
Stile shears
177
After a mitral valve replacement, a patient coming off bypass shows sign of cardiac ischemia? What caused this?
Occlusion of the circumflex artery
178
Which tendon autograft is most commonly used when performing ACL reconstruction?
Patellar
179
When opening the aneurysmal sac during resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm , which artery is ligated?
Lumbar
180
When performing a culdoscopy, the Sims tenaculum should be placed on what aspect of the cervix to assist with visualization?
Posterior
181
Postoperatively, what is closely monitored immediately after a loop colostomy?
Ischemia
182
During a Nissen Fundoplication, medial traction on the stomach could cause avulsion to which structure?
Gastric arteries
183
When a flank approach is used for a nephrectomy, what muscles are involved?
Latissimus dorsi and internal oblique
184
During a tonsillectomy, what instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection?
Long Allis
185
Where does the fundus of the stomach receive its primary blood supply?
Short gastric arteries
186
Why is a Nissen Fundoplication performed?
Hiatal hernia repair
187
A skin graft that consists of the epidermis and half of the dermis is a?
Split thickness graft
188
A TURP is performed to treat?
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
189
What is the most common incision for a unilateral nephrectomy?
Flank (Lumbar) incision
190
What solution is used to identify diseased areas for a cold conization of the cervix?
Lugol's solution
191
Which muscle is used when performing a pedicle flap reconstruction mammoplasty?
Rectus abdominis
192
The most immediate threat to life in an abdominal trauma patient is?
Undetected bleeding
193
To create a tracheostomy, where is the incision performed?
Transverse incision just below the cricoid cartilage
194
Which incision is most often used for open appendectomies?
McBurney's incision
195
Greenfield filter insertion is indicative of what diagnosis?
Emboli formation
196
What procedure provides obliteration of the vagina by denuding and approximating the anterior and posterior walls of the vagina?
Colpocleisis
197
Where is a common donor site for autogenous bone graft?
Ilium
198
When would a tourniquet be contraindicated?
In cases where circulation to tissue is already compromised
199
Fulguration is utilized primarily in which surgery?
TUR and prostate operations
200
Where is a central venous catheter usually placed?
External Jugular Vein
201
When both direct and indirect hernias occur in the same inguinal area, the defect is called?
Pantaloon hernia
202
Which hernia presents through Hesselbach's triangle?
Direct hernia
203
What are the borders of Hesselbach's triangle?
Inguinal ligament
Rectus sheath
Inferior epigastric artery
204
Which fascia is entered when removing a portion of the kidney?
Gerota's fascia
205
What does a PSA level of 9.0mg/ml indicate?
High likelihood of prostate cancer
206
Increased seat belt usage has increased which type of injuries?
Clavicle fractures
Liver lacerations
207
People who are near the CO2 laser impact area can guard against corneal injuries by?
Wearing clear glass/plastic glasses with side guards
208
When might a T-tube drain be used?
Choledochotomy
209
When is a Heaney clamp most useful?
Hysterectomies (grabbing broad ligament)
210
What is the most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic gynecological surgery?
Robinson catheter
211
What instrument is used to make the final cut to remove the uterus during an abdominal hysterectomy?
Jorgensen scissors
212
Which laser emission is primarily absorbed in tissue by hemoglobin or melanin?
Argon
213
What suture is used for end-to-end anastomosis of the small intestine?
3-0 Silk
214
A patient entering the OR with rupture of esophageal varices may have what in place to control bleeding?
Sengstaken-Blakemore
215
What is nota complication of splinting and casting?
Bleeding
216
What incision provides optimal exposure of the abdominal cavity?
Vertical midline
217
What legal doctrine denotes a civil wrong committed against a person or property, excluding a breach of contract?
Tort
218
Which nerve innervates the Latissimus dorsi?
Thoracodorsal nerve
219
During dissection of the LIMA, what diluted solution should be used to dilate the artery and reduce muscle spasm?
Papaverine
220
What is the best method of managing blood loss during a traumatic liver/hepatic resection?
Pringle manuever
221
What method is used to expose and mobilize the duodenum?
Kocher manuever
222
Which arteries supply blood to the thyroid?
External carotid artery
Superior thyroid artery
223
When performing a total knee, the capsule is primarily entered?
Medially
224
What is the hemodynamic principle describing the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation?
Afterload
225
After injury to the leg, a patient is unable to extend the leg and has loss of sensation in the skin over the anteromedial aspect of the thigh. Which nerve has been injured?
Femoral nerve
226
The active chemical used for sterilization in a Steris unit is?
Peracetic acid
227
Distal portion of a Javid shunt used during carotid endarterectomy is inserted where?
Internal carotid artery
228
A patient is experiencing progressively worsening hypotension and tachycardia. Oxygen saturation is also starting to decrease. What should be given?
Blood products
229
The third ventricle empties into the fourth ventricle via what duct?
Aqueduct of Sylbius
230
What drug is used to treat bradycardia in combination with hypotension?
Atropine
231
What neurotransmitter do opioid medications block?
Substance P
232
What treatment is given to a patient on Coumadin with an INR of 3.0?
Factor IX
233
What is an advantage not provided by spinal anesthesia?
Sympathetic block and vasodilation
234
Where is spinal anesthetic administered?
Subarachnoid space
235
Dissociative anesthesia has which characteristics?
Analgesia
Immobility
Loss of consciousness
Amnesia
Reduced sensory perception
