Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CPNP > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

(119 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What treatment is given to the immunocompromised person with chickenpox?

A

Oral acyclovir 20 mg per kilogram five times a day, given in the first 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a hallmark sign or symptom of scabies?

A

Linear or curved burrows or snake-like lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which measles infection is the German measles?

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a particular risk in young children with burns?

A

Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What skin condition typically follows a recent URI, is more common in females than males, and last three to eight weeks?

A

Pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What laboratory studies are elevated with atopic dermatitis?

A

Serum IgE and maybe eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What skin condition is defined as a benign hyperproliferative inflammatory skin disorder

A

Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What skin condition is characterized by a herald patch?

A

Pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe stage 3 of Lyme disease

A

Joint and periodicular pain, subacute encephalopathy, acro dermatitis chronicum atrophicancs (localized DIC of the extremities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What topical steroids are good for the treatment of psoriasis?

A

Betamethasone 0.05% or triamcinolone 0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria of Lyme disease?

A

Exposure to tick habitat within the last 30 days with erythema migrans or one late manifestation and laboratory confirmation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should not be placed on burns?

A

Lotion, paste, or ointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long is a child contagious with fifth disease?

A

The child is contagious until the fever is gone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Morphology: a large, raise lesion filled with serous fluid, blood, and pus; crosses multiple skin layers?

A

Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Morphology: a lesion raised above the surface and extending a bit below the epidermis?

A

Wheal Ex: uticaria, mosquito bites, PPD test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the distribution of chickenpox

A

Papules usually develop on trunk then spread to scalp and face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Three categories of burns?

A

First degree, second degree or partial thickness, and third degree or full thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Morphology: a small, flat discoloration?

A

Macule Ex: freckles or moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the typical symptom presentation of rubeola?

A

Fever, runny nose, cough, with Koplik’s spots Followed by outbreak of rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Morphology: a small, less than 1 cm lesion filled with serous fluid?

A

Vesicle Example: HSV, herpes zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Resolves spontaneously if left alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What viral skin infection is also known for causing peeling or loss of the nail?

A

Coxsackie virus or hand foot and mouth disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long must ticks feed in order to transmit Lyme disease?

A

24 to 36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is an acute, contagious disease caused by herpes virus, transmitted by direct contact with lesions or airborne

A

Varicella zoster virus or chickenpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Configuration: circular, beginning in the center and spreading to the periphery
Annular
26
What are Koplik's spots?
White dots in the back of the mouth near the molars characteristic of rubiola
27
If a diaper rash has erythema and papules what can be used?
1% hydrocortisone
28
What skin condition is a pruritic rash in a Christmas tree pattern?
Pityriasis rosea
29
What is the treatment for pinworms?
Pyrantel is OTC and mebendazole as a prescription
30
How long does the fifth disease rash last?
Up to 1 month
31
What form of tinea presents in erythematous rings?
Corporis
32
What is the systemic management of impetigo?
Augmentin or cephalexin
33
Morphology: and elevated, firm lesion greater than 1 cm; corsses multiple skin layers?
Nodule Example: fibroma
34
How long does a child with impetigo need to stay away from school?
48 hours after treatment
35
What viral infection affects the salivary glands causing parotitis?
Mumps
36
If not responsive to benzoyl peroxide what is the next topical treatment for mild acne?
Retinoic acid 0.025% to 0.1%
37
What age can you begin using the rule of nines?
9 years old
38
What is the primary treatment of tinea capitus?
Griseofulvin x6 weeks.
39
What is known to be an exacerbation of acne?
Steroids and anticonvulsants
40
Morphology: a small less than one centimeter, elevated, firm skin lesion?
Papule Ex: bug bite, wart
41
What distinguishes rubella from rubeola?
Rubella typically only lasts 3 days and is less intense
42
How does the rubeola or measles rash spread?
Cephalocaudal
43
What three systemic medications are used in the treatment of moderate acne?
Doxycycline 100 mg 2 times per day, erythromycin 1 g in 2 to 3 divided doses if caused by staph infection, and monocyclin 50-100 mg twice daily
44
What is the difference between a primary lesion and a secondary lesion?
Primary is first appearing, and secondary follows primary lesions related to scratches and/or infections
45
What is the management of scabies?
Permethrin 5% repeated weekly in order to kill newly hatched bugs as the permethrin can't kill the eggs
46
What skin condition is defined by red, sharply defined plaques with silvery scales?
Psoriasis
47
Morphology: serous fluid-filled vesicles greater than 1 cm?
Bulla Ex: Burns, blisters, contact dermatitis
48
What is the name of the skin disorder that causes honey crusting lesions?
Impetigo
49
How long are children with chickenpox infectious?
48 hours after outbreak and until lesions have all acrested over
50
What skin condition is sensitive to low humidity and often worsens in the winter when the air is dry?
Atopic dermatitis or eczema
51
Describe stage 1 of Lyme disease.
Erythema migraines: a flat or slightly race red lesion expands over several days but has central clearing
52
Describe the progression of the chickenpox bumps?
Start as erythematous macules, then papules develop overmacuels, then vesicles erupt
53
What causes roseola?
Herpes virus six
54
What rash starts as confined, bright red, flat blotches that progress into widespread sandpaper like papillae?
Scarlet fever
55
What form of tinea appears as solitary areas of hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation?
Versicolor
56
What is the typical age range of roseola?
6 months to 2 years
57
Describe stage 2 of Lyme disease
Headache, stiff joints, migratory pains, asymptote meningitis, peripheral neuropathy
58
When should syphilis be tested for when examining pityriasis rosea?
If the rash does not itch or if it's on Palmer services, genitalia, or mucus membranes
59
What is the colloquial name for the Coxsackie virus?
Hand foot and mouth disease
60
Morphology: a scaly, elevated lesion?
Plaque Ex: psoriasis
61
Morphology: a firm elevated lump? (Included in this classification is a nodule?
Tumor
62
How would you describe the rash associated with the Coxsackie virus? On what body parts is it located?
It is a papulo vesicular rash located on the hands feet and inside of the mouth. (elevated with clear fluid)
63
Configuration: lesions that run together
Confluent
64
What is a common comorbidity with eczema?
Asthma or allergic rhinitis
65
Morphology: a flat discoloration that looks as though it was in a collection of multiple, tiny pigment changes; larger than a macule?
Patch Ex: Mongolian spot, cafe au Lait spot
66
What should be placed on burns initially?
Cool water
67
What is fifth disease?
Called erythema infectiosum, it is caused by human parvovirus b19
68
What infection causes scarlet fever
Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
69
What topicals are good for psoriasis on the scalp?
Tar or salicylic acid shampoo
70
What disease is associated with umbilicated lesions?
Molluscum contagiosum
71
What disease does Borrelia Burgdorfi cause?
Lyme disease
72
What form of tinea presents with severe itching?
Cruris and pedis
73
What lab test can confirm Lyme disease?
Detection of antibody to b. burgdorferi via ELISA screening, or a western blot assay
74
What is the management of pityriasis rosea?
None usually required but oral erythromycin can clear up the rash faster
75
Blackhead verse whitehead?
Blackheads are open comedones capped with black and massive skin debris Whiteheads are closed comedons, they are obstructed and upon opening me rupture causing low-grade local inflammatory reactions
76
What is the treatment of scarlet fever?
10 to 14 day course of amoxicillin
77
List the five different tineas.
Tinea capitus, tinea corporis, tinea versicolor, tinea cruris, tinea pedia
78
What distinguishes roseola from other viral infections?
High fever that abruptly stops when the rash develops
79
Configuration of colon scratch, streak, line, or stripe
Linear
80
Morphology: a small, less than 1 cm pest filled lesion?
Pustule Ex: acne and impetigo
81
What is scarlet fever most commonly a complication of?
Strep throat
82
What is Auspitz's sign?
Drops of blood underneath scales of psoriasis
83
What are two topical antibiotics used in the treatment of mild acne?
erythromycin or clindamycin
84
P what is a polymorphic skin disorder characterized by comedones, papules, pustules, and cysts?
Acne
85
Configuration: individual or distinct lesions that remain separate
Solitary or discrete
86
What two bacteria is impetigo caused by?
Graham positive strep or staph.
87
Configuration: annular lesions that have merged
Polycyclic
88
What is used to treat tinea versicolor?
Selenium sulfide shampoo or or al itraconazole
89
What skin infection has the slapped cheek appearance?
fifth's disease or erythema infectiosum
90
Morphology: ain't possible lesion greater than 1 cm, typically angry in appearance?
Abscess
91
What is the typical pharmacologic treatment of eczema?
Topical steroids such as hydrocortisone or fluocinonide 0.05% or triamcinolone 0.1%
92
What is the incubation phase of scabies?
4 to 6 weeks
93
What is the management of Lyme disease if the infection is confined to the skin?
Under the age of seven amoxicillin or cefuroxine axetil. Over the age of seven doxycycline
94
What season does impetigo occur?
Summer
95
What is the first line pharmacologic treatment of mild acne?
Benzoyl peroxide 2.5 to 10%
96
Configuration: linear cluster
Grouped
97
What are some pharmacologic agents that could be used in the treatment of molluscum contagiosum?
Tretinoin 0.025% or 0.1%, salicylic acid daily
98
Describe the roseola rash
Small pink, flat to raised bumps that moves from the trunk to the extremities
99
What are the major reservoir of Lyme disease?
Mice and deer ticks
100
What form of tinea is asymptomatic?
Capitus
101
What are two examples of keratolytics, and what do they do?
Benzoyl peroxide and retinoic acid inhibit bacterial growth and promote peeling of skin
102
What antibiotics are used in the treatment of acne?
Glenda, erythro, or tetracycline
103
Name a low potency, medium, potency, and high potency topical steroid.
.5% hydrocortisone, 1% hydrocortisone, triamcinolone or betamethasone
104
Where should medium and high potency steroids be avoided on the body?
Face, buttocks, groin, and axilla
105
What bacteria most often causes cellulitis?
Strep and staph
106
What kind of cellulitis requires hospitalization?
Periorbital cellulitis
107
What causes toxic shock syndrome?
Staph aureus or strep pyrogens otherwise known as group A strep
108
What is the rash associated with toxic shock syndrome?
Diffuse macular or sunburn like rash
109
What treats tuna versicolor?
Selenium shampoo or ketoconazole shampoo
110
What is the name for deep vesicles on hands or fingers caused by HSV?
Herpetic whitlow
111
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of HSV?
Viral culture
112
What treats lice?
Permethrin
113
What are the steps to mice removal?
wash hair without conditioner. That will dry. Apply permethrin. Leave for 10 minutes. Rinse. Do not wash hair for at least 24 hours. Use knit remover comb for 20 to 30 minutes. Cleans the environment.
114
What is the basic treatment for comadoma acne?
Topical characteristic
115
What is the treatment of mild popular pustular acne?
Topical characteristic and a topical antibiotic
116
What is the treatment for moderate popular acne?
Topical characteristic and an oral antibiotic
117
What is the treatment for severe populopustular acne?
Isotretinoin or accutane
118
What is the treatment for contact dermatitis?
Moisturizers maybe a mild hydrocortisone
119
What is the treatment of SJS and TEN?
IvG

CPNP (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions