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1

Which of these statements is true for Lightning Connect?
A. No external data is imported into your Salesforce org.
B. External data is read in real time when you request it.
C. It can be used with any data source that supports OData 2.0.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

2

Which of these is NOT an appropriate use case for Lightning Connect?
A. You want to integrate external data without writing custom code.
B. The external data is changing frequently.
C. You need to set up workflows and triggers for the external data.
D. You only need real-time access to a small fraction of the external data.

C. You need to set up workflows and triggers for the external data.

3

In which of these scenarios is ETL a better choice than Lightning Connect?
A. You need the external data to follow the sharing rules defined for your organization.
B. You want to generate reports and charts from the external data.
C. All of the above.

C. All of the above.

4

Which of these is NOT true about external objects?
A. They integrate with Salesforce APIs, Apex, Visualforce, and Chatter.
B. They can be related to other objects.
C. You can use them in formula fields.
D. They are automatically viewable in the Salesforce1 mobile app

C. You can use them in formula fields.

5

Which of the following statements is true about external callouts:
A. SOAP callouts use XML and may use a WSDL for code generation.
B. HTTP callouts typically use JSON but can use XML as well.
C. HTTP callouts are generally easier to work with than SOAP callouts.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

6

SOAP Web Services are commonly used for:
A. Simple, light weight services that are typically stateless.
B. Public APIs that use HTTP and JSON.
C. Enterprise apps that require a formal exchange format or stateful operations.
D. No one uses SOAP any longer... it's a four-letter word.

C. Enterprise apps that require a formal exchange format or stateful operations.

7

Which of the following can you create safely in a production organization?
A. Apex Classes
B. Triggers
C. Custom Apex Controllers for Visualforce Pages
D. Reports and Dashboards

D. Reports and Dashboards

8

What is application lifecycle management?
A. It's the circle of life, and it moves us all.
B. A resource management process.
C. A process for maintaining apps.
D. A process of managing the lifecycle of an app, from initial planning, to development, and final release.

D. A process of managing the lifecycle of an app, from initial planning, to development, and final release.

9

What are the elements of a governance framework?
A. Center of excellence, release management, and design standards
B. A development team and a release schedule
C. A group of managers and experts
D. Development guidelines

A. Center of excellence, release management, and design standards

10

When is it advisable to use a Full sandbox?
A. For training users on new features
B. Staging before final deployment
C. Performance and load testing
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

11

What are some of the features and advantages of sandbox templates?
A. Using sandbox templates increases the amount of data copied.
B. Sandbox templates are used to import external data.
C. Sandbox templates are available in all editions.
D. Sandbox templates allow you to decide which objects to include in sandbox. By limiting the amount of data copied, the sandbox copy process can be faster.

D. Sandbox templates allow you to decide which objects to include in sandbox. By limiting the amount of data copied, the sandbox copy process can be faster.

12

You have a team of developers who don't need access to production but just need access to sandbox for developing apps. How do you manage their accounts?
A. Create developer users as inactive users in production, then activate those users in sandbox.
B. If developers are also production users, you still need to create their accounts in sandbox.
C. De-activate developer users in sandbox.
D. Import users from a .csv file.

A. Create developer users as inactive users in production, then activate those users in sandbox.

13

Before you can deploy to production, you should:
A. Use profiles to lock users out of the system
B. Test your changes first in a test sandbox environment.
C. Give training documents and release notes to end users
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

14

Which of the following are good ways to track changes in production?
A. Diff the metadata
B. Use a change log request form
C. Check the setup audit trail every week
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

15

Ideally, who should be in charge of logging all changes in production?
A. Product manager
B. Administrator
C. QA Engineer
D. Developer

B. Administrator

16

A metadata type is:
A. A data type.
B. A representation of configurations and customizations in Salesforce and is in XML format.
C. A representation of custom objects only.
D. JSON representation of settings.

B. A representation of configurations and customizations in Salesforce and is in XML format.

17

What is a good way to track changes to customizations and settings that aren’t represented as metadata types?
A. Hire an intern to track the changes.
B. Use the SOAP API
C. A change request form and the setup audit trail.
D. Have everyone write the changes on a whiteboard using different colored markers so you know who did what.

C. A change request form and the setup audit trail.

18

Choose the best answer based on the following scenario: Salesforce has been upgraded on sandbox instances but not yet on production instances. As a result, your sandbox is now running a newer version than your production organization.
A. You won’t be able to deploy from sandbox to production until the production org has been upgraded to the same API version
B. You can opt out of the Salesforce release
C. You can use Change Sets, which bypass version limitations
D. You can change the API version number in the package.xml file to the same as the production organization, and then no new features will be included in the deployment

D. You can change the API version number in the package.xml file to the same as the production organization, and then no new features will be included in the deployment

19

Which tool doesn’t require a local file system for deploying metadata?
A. Force.com IDE
B. Workbench
C. Change Sets
D. Force.com Migration Tool

C. Change Sets

20

What is the recommended tool for scriptable deployments to sandbox and Developer Edition orgs?
A. Force.com Migration Tool
B. Force.com IDE
C. Change Sets
D. All of the above

A. Force.com Migration Tool

21

Managed packages can be used in which scenarios?
A. For a one-time setup.
B. For non-namespaced orgs.
C. For customizations that are upgradeable and that you distribute to multiple orgs.
D. For customizations that are not upgradeable.

C. For customizations that are upgradeable and that you distribute to multiple orgs.

22

How are metadata components specified in package.xml?
A. Each component is specified in the tag.
B. Each component is a JSON file.
C. Each component is specified in the tag.
D. Each component is specified in the tag and its type is in the tag.

D. Each component is specified in the tag and its type is in the tag.

23

How do you delete metadata components from an org?
A. Use change sets to delete a component.
B. Perform a deployment using a delete manifest file named destructiveChanges.xml.
C. Perform a deployment using package.xml and specify components with empty bodies.
D. You can’t delete components.
E. Very, very carefully. Only with supervision from a certified technical architect.

B. Perform a deployment using a delete manifest file named destructiveChanges.xml.

24

The Deployment Status page shows the status and test results of what type of deployments?
A. All deployments including change sets.
B. Change sets only.
C. Deployments started from the Force.com Migration Tool and change sets.
D. Metadata API deployments.

A. All deployments including change sets.

25

When are you able to use the Quick Deploy feature?
A. For unsuccessful validations
B. For components not represented in the Metadata API
C. For recent validations whose tests have passed and met code coverage requirements.
D. After catching a deployment fish

C. For recent validations whose tests have passed and met code coverage requirements.

26

When is it advisable to use version control?
A. When you don't have a sandbox or when performing large-scale development.
B. When using change sets
C. If you have one developer
D. If you can’t find where the audit trail is stored

A. When you don't have a sandbox or when performing large-scale development.

27

Not all metadata is represented in the Metadata API. This means that:
A. Your source control system must have a means of storing non-XML data
B. Any functionality you create in sandbox that isn’t represented in the Metadata API, will need to manually re-created in every other environment
C. Developer Pro sandboxes contain all of your data
D. All of the above

B. Any functionality you create in sandbox that isn’t represented in the Metadata API, will need to manually re-created in every other environment

28

A continuous integration system allows you to:
A. Automate the creation of Change Sets
B. Automatically create a source control repository
C. Automate deployments and tests from source control to sandbox
D. Meet an actual guy named Jenkins

C. Automate deployments and tests from source control to sandbox

29

What event type corresponds to a user tapping an Account record in Salesforce1?
A. URI
B. UITracking
C. Login
D. API

B. UITracking

30

A user in your organization opens a Visualforce page. Where is this event stored?
A. In your organization’s documents.
B. In the API.
C. In an event log file.
D. It doesn’t get stored.

C. In an event log file.

31

Event monitoring can be used in which of the following scenarios:
A. Determining why certain pages are loading slowly or timing out.
B. Monitoring which IP addresses users are logging in from.
C. Identifying slow performance on Visualforce pages.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

32

You’re developing a new application for your organization. According to Salesforce best practices, what should you consider first?
A. The user interface.
B. How you’ll release the application.
C. The underlying API.
D. Overall user experience.

C. The underlying API.

33

What permissions do you need to use event monitoring?
A. Event Monitoring Enabled and API Enabled.
B. API Enabled and View Event Log Files.
C. View Event Log Files and Customize App.
D. API Enabled and Chatter.

B. API Enabled and View Event Log Files.

34

Where is the REST Explorer located in Workbench?
A. The REST Explorer isn’t part of Workbench.
B. On the Workbench home screen.
C. Under the 'queries' menu.
D. Under the 'utilities' menu.

D. Under the 'utilities' menu.

35

Which of the following REST queries returns only the log file of all your organization’s logout events?
A. /services/data/v34.0/query?q=SELECT+Id+,+EventType+,
+LogDate+,+LogFileLength+,+LogFile+FROM+
EventLogFile+WHERE+EventType+=+'ReportExport'
B. /services/data/v34.0/query?q=SELECT+Id+,+EventType+
,+LogDate+,+LogFileLength+,+LogFile+FROM+
EventLogFile+WHERE+EventType+=+'Logout'
C. /services/data/v34.0/query?q=SELECT+LogFile+FROM+
EventLogFile+WHERE+EventType+=+'Login'
D. /services/data/v34.0/query?q=SELECT+LogFile+FROM+
EventLogFile+WHERE+EventType+=+'Logout'

D. /services/data/v34.0/query?q=SELECT+LogFile+FROM+
EventLogFile+WHERE+EventType+=+'Logout'

36

What's the benefit of using the REST API over the SOAP API to query event log files?
A. REST queries execute more quickly.
B. REST queries automatically de-serialize the Base64 content into a link to the CSV file.
C. REST queries use more resources.
D. There is no benefit.

B. REST queries automatically de-serialize the Base64 content into a link to the CSV file.

37

Say you are interested in downloading a single event log file for a particular event type. What is the best way to do this task?
A. Download the cURL script.
B. Write a custom Python script.
C. Ask a developer to do it for you.
D. Use the Direct Download button in the browser application.

D. Use the Direct Download button in the browser application.

38

Event log files are downloaded in which format?
A. .csv
B. .doc
C. .pdf
D. .evt

A. .csv

39

What is the benefit of using a script to download your event log files?
A. Scripts are easier to understand than direct downloads.
B. Scripts help you automate your downloads.
C. Downloads from scripts finish more quickly than direct downloads.
D. There is no benefit to using scripts.

B. Scripts help you automate your downloads.

40

Who can help you automate your organization’s event log file downloads using scripts?
A. Your end users.
B. Your organization’s CEO.
C. An integration specialist.
D. Nobody can help you.

C. An integration specialist.

41

What is a key benefits of asynchronous processing?
A. Higher governor and execution limits
B. Unlimited number of external callouts
C. Override organization-wide sharing defaults
D. Enabling turbo mode for transactional processing

A. Higher governor and execution limits

42

Batch Apex is typically the best type of asynchronous processing when you want to:
A. Make a callout to a web service when a user updates a record.
B. Schedule a task to run on a weekly basis.
C. Update all records in your org.
D. Send a rickroll email to a contact.

C. Update all records in your org.

43

What type of jobs do not show up in the Apex Flex Queue.
A. Future Method Jobs
B. Batch Apex Jobs
C. Queueable Apex Jobs
D. Scheduled Apex Jobs

A. Future Method Jobs

44

Which statement is true regarding the Flex Queue.
A. You can submit up to 200 batch jobs for execution.
B. Jobs are processed first-in first-out.
C. Jobs can only be scheduled during Taco Tuesdays.
D. Jobs are executed depending upon user license.

B. Jobs are processed first-in first-out.

45

Which of the following descriptions about the Lightning Components framework is true?
A. It uses JavaScript on the client side and Apex on the server side.
B. It uses events to communicate data between components.
C. It uses a stateful client and stateless server architecture.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

46

How is the Lightning Component framework different from Visualforce?
A. The framework can be used to build mobile apps only.
B. The framework is client-side centric, while Visualforce relies on server calls.
C. They are both useful in building components, but Visualforce has a simpler markup.
D. None of the above.

B. The framework is client-side centric, while Visualforce relies on server calls.

47

What can you build with the Lightning Components framework?
A. A standalone app.
B. Components for the Salesforce1 app.
C. Custom components that override and extend the Salesforce1 app.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.