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OBGYN microbiology > diagnostics > Flashcards

diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

clinical presentation and bx and cx that produces nothing because the bullae are sterile

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2
Q

media for chancroid isolation requires

A

growth supplements

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3
Q

cross like morphology in RBCs

A

babesiosis

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4
Q

dermatophyte dx that allows for early detections

A

dermatophyte test medium (DTM), will have results in 3 days based on phenol red color change (pH)

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5
Q

UTI- dipstick

A

leukocyte esterase and nitrites

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6
Q

can you gram stain gonorrhea

A

yes but the sensitivity is not great

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7
Q

RMSF gold standard dx

A

direct immunofluorescence w/ a R. rickettsii antigen (2 samples, 2-4 weeks apart)

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8
Q

dimorphic species that can grow as either a yeast or mold AND can grow in saturated salt solutions

A

hortaea werneckii (tinea nigra)

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9
Q

enlarged infected RBCs with surface invaginations and stipling

A

schuffners dots seen in plasmodium vivax

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10
Q

CAMP factor

A

S. agalactiae

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11
Q

more alkaline urine in UTI

A

proteus UTI

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12
Q

what can give a false positive for lyme

A

syphilis, mono, SLE, RA, oral spirochete infection

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13
Q

syphilis serologic dx consists of two tests, (1) screening and (2) confirmatory

A

(1) screening- nontreponemal tests (2) confirmatory- treponemal tests

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14
Q

phthirus pubis dx

A

visualize the louse

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15
Q

dermatophyte diagnostic tool that digests human tissues and leave fungal components intact

A

10% KOH prep (potassium hydroxide)

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16
Q

what does a candidiasis cx produce

A

hyphae, pseudo hyphae, and GERM TUBES

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17
Q

many infected erythrocytes with double or multiple ring stages

A

plasmodium falciparum

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18
Q

typically seen in upper UTIs and chronic UTIs

A

K capsular antigen produced by UPEC

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19
Q

UTI with low bacterial numbers in urine

A

S. saprophyticus

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20
Q

maurers clefts

A

plasmodium falciparum (these are not as obvious as the schuffners dots seen in p. vivax)

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21
Q

why would you get imaging with a suspected UTI

A

(1) kids (2) adults w/ recurrent infections (3) hematuria

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22
Q

gas gangrene

A

tissue bx and gram stain shows muscle necrosis, gram variable rods, and tissue destruction

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23
Q

what is good about the CLED/EMB paddles

A

they can tell you how many, so you can R/O normal flora

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24
Q

what do you see with a microscopic examination of malessezia furfur (tinea versicolor)

A

SPAGHETTI AND MEATBALLS (short unbranched hyphae and spherical cells)

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25
PID
clinical criteria + evidence of inflammation (fever, leukocytosis, elevated ESR)
26
crescent shaped gametocyte
plasmodium falciparum
27
carbuncles and furuncles
direct exam
28
malessezia furfur dx
microscopic exam of skin scraping is KOH
29
venous blood processes with giemsa stain
malaria
30
chancroid diagnosis requires
identification of Haemophilus ducreyi from genital ulcer or lymph node
31
struvite stones (made of magnesium ammonium phosphate)
proteus UTI
32
What if you have a high suspicion of EBV in a preteen but they were negative for heterophile antibodies... how do you dx?
screen for antibodies to virus capsid (anti-VCA antibodies) or other virus antigens
33
candidiasis
direct microscopic examination, cx, and serology (but serology sucks)
34
gonorrhea
nucleic acid amplification (PCR) of cx
35
viral swarm
HIV
36
impetigo
clinical presentation
37
EBV
Monospot- agglutination of horse RBCs reveals heterophile antibodies \*\*\*age dependent\*\*\*
38
what is the color change in the dermatophyte test medium
red color change indicates alkalinity
39
scabies dx
apply mineral oil, scrape lesion, visualize microscopically
40
UTI- culture
50,000 CFU
41
syphilis serologic screening test
nontreponemal tests (cardiolipin flocculation tests- VDRL, RPR)
42
syphilis primary and secondary lesions dx
darkfield microscopy or direct immunofluorescence
43
dermatophytes agar type
sabouraud agar at room temp for 1-3 weeks
44
young trophozoites and gametocytes in the periphery BUT NO SCHIZONTS
plasmodium falciparum
45
HHV-6
(1) detection of IgM antibody by EIA (2) PCR amplification- DNA sequence detection by PCR
46
UTI- gram positive, coagulase negative
S. saprophyticus
47
what are some of the more reliable methods for identifying for HIV
* **direct nucleic acid tests** * what we usually do w/ donor blood * screened for HIV antigens P24 or with RNA NAT * HIV antibody detecting rapid tests- we hope this will replace standard screening
48
UTI- organism is isolated from normally sterile areas such as blood and CSF, as well as areas with mixed flora like vagina and skin
S. agalactiae
49
spaghetti and meatballs
malessezia furfur aka tinea versicolor (cutaneous fungi)
50
plasmodium vivax dx
via giemsa stain a few enlarged infected RBCs with schuffner dots
51
UTI- swarming on culture agar \*\*except CLED\*\*
proteus UTI
52
trichomonas vaginalis
(1) wet mount exam- commonly used (2) cx is more sensitive (3) monoclonal antibodies (4) DNA probe test
53
basket and band shaped trophozoites and rosette shaped schizonts
plasmodium malariae
54
UTI- UA microscopy
2-5+ WBCs or 15 bacteria per HPF
55
syphilis serologic confirmatory test
treponemal tests (specific antibody tests- FTA ABS, MHA TP)
56
HSV
(1) ballooning pathology and presence of enlarged and fused cells on a tzanck smear of sample from lesion (2)FA assay for viral antigens (3) rapid antibody test
57
the infective stage of a dermatophyte disease is called ____ and can be visualized how?
called arthroconidium (spore) and can be visualized microscopically with KOH wet mount
58
tinea nigra (hortaea werneckii) dx
KOH and microscopy
59
syphilis diagnosis tests can be performed on ___ and \_\_\_
serum and lesions
60
Parvovirus B19
detection of anti B19 antibody
61
type of candidiasis agar
chromagar
62
UTI- gram positive cocci
S. agalactiae
63
with dermatophytes, what can be visualized in dead keratinized tissue
hyphae and arthroconidia
64
Measles
Presence of multinucleated giant cells on fluorescent antibody test from swab of pharynx, nasal, and buccaneers mucosa
65
what do you see with a microscopic examination of candidiasis
yeast cells, large G cells, pseudo hyphae, true hyphae, BIG molds
66
criteria for bacterial vaginosis... has to have 3
(1) homogeneous quality of secretions (2) clue cells (3) release of fishy amine odor when KOH is added (4) vaginal pH over 4.5 (5) presence of curved G- or G variable rods
67
UTI- alpha and beta hemolysis
UPEC E. coli
68
lyme disease
clinical findings serology ELISA plus western blot (if EIA is positive)
69
CLED/EMG- what does EMG select for
G- bacteria (kills G+ with bile salts
70
cellulitis
just tx empirically b/c cx rarely IDs agent
71
HIV screening
2 step approach: 1st- EIA (shows anti-HIV antibodies) 2nd- western blot (confirms antibodies) \*\*\*does not show new infections so not use for blood donation\*\*\*
72
UTI- aka Group B streptococcus
S. agalactiae
73
gray-white colonies with a narrow zone of beta hemolyisis
S. agalactiae
74
VZV
clinical findings (rash and fever)
75
what extra tests do kids with a suspected UTI get
cx and imaging
76
novobiocin resistance
S. saprophyticus- how you differentiate from other staph
77
chagas disease dx
(1) trypomastigotes seen in acute phase on blood smear (2) amastigotes seen in bx in chronic case (3) serology (4) PCR- the best
78
what extra tests do men with a suspected UTI get
cx and prostate exam
79
dermatophyte that is not flurorescent
trychophytan
80
folliculitis that is not being cured by empiric abx
gram stain (r/o G- or MRSA)
81
CLED/EMG- what does CLED select for
bacteria that ferment lactose (both G+ and G-)
82
chlamydia
\*\*\*isolation of cell cx is the gold standard\*\*\* BUT **nucleic acid probes are 95% sensitive** (more so than cx)
83
RMSF dx
clinical sxs- do not delay on tx, needs to start within first 5 days + direct immunofluorescence

OBGYN microbiology (13 decks)

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