Donor Selection and Screening Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

The blood donation screening process ensures that donating approximately _____ mL of whole blood will not harm the donor.

A

450

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2
Q

A _____ deferral means the donor cannot give blood for a set period, such as 12 months after a blood transfusion.

An _____ deferral applies when a donor is ineligible for an unknown duration due to current regulations.

A _____ deferral means the donor will never be eligible to donate for others (but may still donate for themselves).

A

temporary

indefinite

permanent

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3
Q

Donors currently taking antibiotics for an infection should be deferred until _____ or until the infection resolves.

While most antibiotics require deferral, donors who took _____ (e.g., tetracyclines) may still be eligible for donation.

All medications taken by a donor must be reviewed and approved by the _____ or blood bank medical director.

A

completion of the prescribed regimen

tetracyclines (or certain antibiotics)

blood collection facility

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4
Q

Avodart, used for prostate gland enlargement, has a deferral period of _____ due to its teratogenic effects.

Proscar, prescribed for baldness, requires a deferral period of _____.

Propecia, used to treat severe acne, has _____ deferral period specified in the table.

Accutane, indicated for severe psoriasis, has a deferral period of _____.

Soriatane, also used for severe psoriasis, results in a _____ deferral.

All of these drugs are _____.

A

6 months (from last dose)

1 month (from last dose)

no (or not listed)

3 years (from last dose)

permanent

Teratogenic

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5
Q

Growth hormone (human pituitary) used for children with impaired growth requires a _____ deferral due to risk of _____.

Bovine insulin prescribed for type 1 DM carries an _____ deferral because of concerns about _____.

HBIg given after Hepatitis B exposure has a deferral period of _____ because it _____.

Clopidogrel, which reduces risk of AMI or CVA, requires a _____ deferral as it _____.

Feldene, an anti-inflammatory drug, has a _____ deferral for platelet donations because _____.

Experimental medications or unlicensed vaccines require deferral for _____ or _____.

A

permanent, Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

indefinite, Mad Cow Disease

12 months, may not completely protect donor from HBV

14 days (after last dose), inhibits platelet function

2 days, (reason not specified in table)

1 year, upon the discretion of the medical director

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6
Q

Donors are asked if they have taken aspirin or aspirin-containing medications within the past _____ hours.

Aspirin use within _____ days prior to donation makes a donor unsuitable for _____ donation.

There is _____ deferral restriction for donors who took aspirin when donating _____ blood.

A

48

3, platelet pheresis

no, whole

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7
Q

Female donors are asked if they have been pregnant in the past _____ weeks or are currently pregnant.

Following pregnancy termination, donors should be deferred for _____ weeks.

First or second trimester _____ is not a cause for deferral.

_____ blood donation is permitted as an exception to pregnancy deferral rules.

If a donor received a blood transfusion during pregnancy, the deferral period extends to _____ months.

A

6

6

abortion/miscarriage (accept either)

Autologous

12

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8
Q

Donors are asked if they have donated blood, platelets, or plasma in the past _____ weeks.

For a double unit of red cells donated via apheresis machine, the deferral period is _____ weeks.

The standard waiting period between whole blood donations is _____ weeks (_____ days).

After an apheresis donation, a donor must wait _____ hours before giving whole blood.

For infrequent plasma apheresis donations, the required interval is _____ weeks.

A

8

16

8, 56

48

4

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9
Q

Donors are asked if they’ve had any vaccinations in the past _____ weeks.

A _____ week deferral applies after receiving live attenuated or bacterial vaccines like rubella or typhoid.

For live attenuated rubella or chickenpox vaccines, the deferral period is _____ weeks.

After smallpox vaccination, donors must wait _____ days or until _____.

There is no deferral required for _____ vaccines (toxoids, killed/synthetic viral/bacterial/rickettsial).

Donors are also asked about contact with someone who had a _____ vaccination.

A

8

2

4

14-21, the scab has fallen off

non-live (or “inactivated”)

smallpox

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10
Q

Donors are asked if they’ve had a blood transfusion, transplant, or graft in the past _____ months.

A _____ month deferral applies after receiving someone else’s blood through transfusion.

Donors are deferred for _____ months after getting a tattoo or body piercing.

The same _____ month deferral period applies for accidental needle-stick injuries.

Contact with someone else’s blood results in a _____ month deferral period.

A

12

12

12

12

12

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11
Q

Donors are asked if they’ve had sexual contact with an HIV-positive person or someone with AIDS in the past _____ months.

A _____ month deferral applies after sexual contact with a sex worker or someone who exchanges sex for payment.

The deferral period begins from the _____ of sexual contact in high-risk situations.

Both scenarios involving contact with HIV-positive individuals and _____ workers carry the same deferral period.

The standard deferral duration for these high-risk sexual contacts is _____ months.

A

12

12

time (or “date”)

sex (or “prostitute”)

12

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12
Q

Donors are deferred for _____ months after sexual contact with someone who has used non-prescribed _____ drugs.

A _____ month deferral applies after sexual contact with a person who has _____ or uses clotting factor concentrates.

Female donors are asked if they’ve had sexual contact with a male who has ever had _____ with another male.

All these deferrals are calculated from the _____ of sexual contact.

The standard deferral period for these high-risk sexual behaviors is _____ months.

A

12, injection (or “needle-injected”)

12, hemophilia

sexual contact

time (or “date”)

12

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13
Q

Donors are deferred for _____ months after sexual contact with a person who has _____.

The same _____ month deferral applies after discontinuing _____ with a hepatitis-positive person.

“Living with” is defined as residing in the same _____ place.

These deferral rules apply for Hepatitis B, symptomatic Hepatitis C, and other _____ viruses.

The questionnaire asks about both sexual contact and _____ with hepatitis-positive individuals in the past 12 months.

A

12, hepatitis

12, close contact/living (accept either)

dwelling

hepatitis

living

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14
Q

Donors are asked if they’ve been treated for _____ or _____ in the past 12 months.

After completing treatment for syphilis, donors are deferred for _____ months.

The bacterium _____ _____ (syphilis pathogen) can survive in blood storage conditions.

The syphilis-causing organism thrives particularly well at _____ temperature.

For gonorrhea treatment, the deferral period is _____ months after therapy completion.

A

syphilis, gonorrhea

12 (Note: The original text shows “212” which appears to be a typo - likely should be 12 months based on the question)

Treponema pallidum

room

12 (assuming same deferral as syphilis)

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15
Q

Donors are asked if they’ve been outside the US or Canada in the past _____ years.

For malaria risk, there is a _____ year deferral after leaving an endemic area if the donor is asymptomatic.

Immigrants or long-term residents (_____+ consecutive years) from malaria-endemic areas face a _____ year deferral.

The extended _____ year deferral applies even if the donor shows no _____ of malaria.

These deferral rules apply specifically to _____ prevention in the blood supply.

A

3

1

5, 3

3, signs & symptoms (or “symptoms”)

malaria

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16
Q

Donors who have ever received money, drugs, or payment for sex receive a _____ deferral.

Male donors who have had sexual contact with another male, even once, face an _____ deferral.

Donors with a history of using non-prescribed _____ drugs receive permanent deferral.

Those who have had hepatitis are _____ deferred from blood donation.

Donors who used clotting factor concentrates may be deferred for _____ months unless approved by the _____.

After malaria treatment, donors must wait _____ years and be _____ before donating.

A

permanent

indefinite

injection (or “needle-injected”)

permanently

12, medical director

3, symptom-free

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17
Q

Donors with a history of Chaga’s disease or babesiosis receive an _____ deferral.

Those who received a _____ graft are permanently deferred due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease risk.

Cancer survivors (including leukemia) may be deferred depending on _____.

Donors with _____ conditions or blood diseases are typically deferred.

Travel to Africa or sexual contact with someone from Africa may result in deferral due to _____ risk.

Heart or lung problems require deferral unless cleared by the donor’s _____.

A family history of _____ disease results in permanent deferral.

A

indefinite

dura mater

cancer type/treatment (context suggests case-by-case evaluation)

bleeding

malaria (or other tropical diseases)

physician

Creutzfeld-Jakob

18
Q

During the general appearance check, staff should observe for signs of excessive _____, drug influence, or _____ influence.

The maximum blood volume collected should not exceed _____ mL per kg of body weight, including test tubes.

Donors must have a temperature below _____°C and should avoid _____ beverages before donation.

The acceptable pulse range is _____ to _____ bpm, with exceptions made for _____ donors.

Blood pressure must be below _____ mmHg to qualify for donation.

For allogeneic donations, hemoglobin must be ≥_____ g/dL or hematocrit ≥_____%.

Evidence of multiple _____ marks on the arm results in indefinite deferral, while most _____ disorders don’t cause deferral.

A

anxiety, alcohol

10.5

37.5, hot (or “coffee”)

50, 100, athletic

180/100

12.5, 38

puncture, skin

19
Q

The formula to calculate blood volume to collect is:

The reduced volume of anticoagulant (AC) is calculated by:

The amount of AC to be removed equals _____ mL minus the _____.

In the first formula, the standard blood collection volume (450 mL) is divided by the constant _____.

The second formula uses the constant _____ mL, which represents the standard AC volume.

A

kg, 50, 450

volume to collect, 63

63, reduced volume of AC

50

63

20
Q

Volume to collect formula:

Reduced volume of AC formula:

Amount of AC to be removed formula:

A

(Donors weight in kg / 50) x 450

(Volume to collect / 450) x 63

63 mL - reduced volume of AC

21
Q

_____ consent must be obtained from allogeneic, autologous, and apheresis donors before donation.

Donors must be informed about the _____ of the donation procedure.

The consent process must include information about _____ performed to reduce disease transmission risks.

This requirement applies to three types of donations: allogeneic, autologous, and _____.

The primary purpose of informed consent is to protect both the _____ and the _____.

A

Informed

risks

tests

apheresis

donor, recipient(s) (order doesn’t matter)

22
Q

Autologous donation refers to when a patient donates blood for their _____ use.

This type of donation is considered _____ than allogeneic donation.

It is particularly beneficial for patients with _____ blood phenotypes or multiple _____.

The four types of autologous donation are: preoperative collection, _____, intraoperative collection, and _____.

The full term for ANH (one autologous donation type) is _____ _____ hemodilution.

A

own

safer

rare, antibodies

acute normovolemic hemodilution, post-operative collection

acute normovolemic

23
Q

Pre-operative autologous donations typically begin _____ weeks before the scheduled procedure.

This type of donation is commonly used for patients undergoing _____ procedures, vascular surgery, or radical prostatectomy.

The final donation must occur no more than _____ hours before the surgery.

Before collection, the patient’s _____ and _____ must be determined.

The _____ unit collected should be the _____ unit transfused (following the “first out, first in” principle).

Two obstetric indications for pre-operative autologous donation are _____ and intrapartum hemorrhage.

A

5-6

orthopedic

72

ABO, Rh (order doesn’t matter)

oldest, first

placenta previa

24
Q

ANH involves removal of _____ blood with simultaneous infusion of replacement fluids.

The replacement fluid ratio is _____ for colloids or _____ for crystalloids.

Collected blood must be reinfused within _____ hours to preserve platelet and coagulation factor viability.

Units are reinfused in _____ order of collection (last unit collected is transfused first).

The final unit collected has the highest _____ level.

ANH is performed _____ (before/during/after) the surgical procedure.

A

whole

1:1, 3:1 (order matters)

8

reverse

hematocrit

before

25
Intraoperative collection involves collecting and reinfusing _____ lost during surgery. The collected blood is washed with _____ and concentrated to a hematocrit range of _____%. This method is contraindicated if the surgical site may be contaminated with _____, amniotic fluid, urine, or clotting agents. Processed blood can be stored at room temperature for _____ hours or refrigerated at _____°C for up to 24 hours. Refrigerated storage must begin within _____ hours after collection. The device used concentrates _____ while removing other components.
blood saline, 50-60 bowel contents 6, 1-6 (accept either "1°C–6°C" or "1-6") 4 RBCs (or "red blood cells")
26
In post-operative collection, blood is collected from a _____ placed at the surgical site. The collected blood can be reinfused either _____ or _____ processing. Characteristics of the collected blood include being _____, partially _____, and defibrinated. The maximum volume that can be reinfused is _____ mL. Reinfusion must occur within _____ hours of collection. This method is specifically for blood collected _____ (before/during/after) surgery.
drainage tube with, without (order doesn't matter) dilute, hemolyzed 1,400 6 after
27
The irradiation indicator shows _____ Gy before processing and _____ Gy after irradiation. Directed donations differ from regular allogeneic donations because the unit is designated for a _____ recipient. Blood units must be irradiated when the donor is a _____ relative or _____ match to the recipient. The purpose of irradiation is to prevent _____ (TA-GVHD).
NOT, 25 (or "0", "25") specific blood, HLA transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
28
Apheresis donation uses an automated device that separates blood components using _____ force. The separation is based on differences in _____ between blood components. The two main apheresis methods are _____ flow and _____ flow. Platelet collection via apheresis is called _____. The process for collecting two units of red cells simultaneously is called _____. Stem cell collections use a specialized apheresis procedure called _____.
centrifugal densities intermittent, continuous (order matters) plateletpheresis double RBC pheresis stem cell pheresis
29
Common mild to moderate donation reactions include _____, nausea/vomiting, hyperventilation, and muscle spasms. For a fainting donor, immediately remove the _____ and withdraw the needle. Place a _____ on the donor's forehead and elevate their _____ above head level. First aid measures also include loosening _____ and ensuring an open _____. Donors experiencing anxiety may develop _____ or _____ due to nervousness. Staff should continuously monitor _____ during and after the reaction.
syncope/fainting (accept either) tourniquet cold compress, legs tight clothing, airway twitching, muscle spasms (order doesn't matter) vital signs
30
A hematoma is a localized collection of blood under the skin that causes _____ discoloration. This occurs when the needle _____ the vein, allowing blood to leak into surrounding tissue. First step in management: Remove the _____ and _____ from the donor's arm. Apply pressure with _____ for _____ minutes while the donor elevates their arm. After pressure, apply _____ to the area for _____ minutes. The donor should keep their hand above the level of their _____ during treatment.
bluish goes through/punctures (accept either) tourniquet, needle (order doesn't matter) sterile gauze pads, 7-10 ice, 5 heart
31
All donor units must be tested for _____ and _____ blood typing. The test for hepatitis B surface antigen is abbreviated as _____. Two tests performed for hepatitis C include antibody screening (_____) and nucleic acid testing (_____). HIV testing includes both antibody screening (_____) and _____ testing. The test for human T-cell lymphotropic virus is abbreviated as _____. Two infectious disease tests listed are for _____ and _____.
ABO, Rh (order doesn't matter) HBsAg Anti-HCV, HCV NAT Anti-HIV 1/2, HIV NAT (order matters) Anti-HTLV I/II Syphilis, Malaria (order doesn't matter)
32
HBsAg screening methods include _____, CMIA, and _____. A positive EIA/CMIA screening test must be repeated in _____ and confirmed with a _____ test. Donors with _____ confirmatory test results receive permanent deferral. If screening is reactive but confirmatory testing is _____, units are discarded but the donor is only deferred for _____ weeks. For emergency use of untested units, a _____ must be prominently attached to the donor unit. The three-letter abbreviation for the confirmatory testing method is _____.
EIA, NAT (order doesn't matter) duplicate, confirmatory positive non-reactive, 8 notation (or "warning label") NAT
33
Anti-HBc detection indicates possible _____ infection, either acute or chronic. The testing methods for Anti-HBc are identical to those used for _____ testing. Donors with both _____ and _____ positive results receive permanent deferral. A donor with positive Anti-HBc but negative HBsAg is not deferred unless it occurs on _____ occasions or _____ consecutive tests. Even when not deferred, units from Anti-HBc (+) donors are _____ for transfusion use. Anti-HBc helps detect HBV during the _____ period when HBsAg may be undetectable.
HBV (or "hepatitis B virus") HBsAg Anti-HBc, HBsAg (order matters) more than one, two not used (or "discarded") window
34
HCV was initially referred to as "_____" hepatitis. The tests used for detecting anti-HCV include _____ and _____. _____ detects small amounts of HCV RNA before antibodies or viral antigens are detectable. The confirmatory test for anti-HCV is _____, and a positive result leads to permanent deferral of the donor. A donor who is repeat reactive for anti-HCV is _____, and all their components are _____. If a donor is non-reactive for _____ or _____, they may be considered for re-entry.
non-A non-B EIA, CMIA NAT recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) deferred, discarded RIBA, NAT
35
The screening tests for HIV include _____, _____, and _____. If a screening test for HIV is positive, it must be repeated _____. If _____ of the repeat tests is reactive, all units from the donor must be discarded. The confirmatory tests for HIV are _____ and _____.
EIA, CMIA, NAT in duplicate one Western blot (Wb), IFA
36
HTLV-I is the causative agent of _____ and is associated with HTLV-associated _____ (type 1). The screening tests for HTLV-I/II are _____ and _____. The confirmatory tests for HTLV-I/II include _____, _____, and _____. Units from _____ reactive donors must not be used, and the donor is _____ deferred.
adult T cell leukemia, myelopathy EIA, CMIA Wb, RIBA, NAT repeatedly, indefinitely
37
For WNV RNA testing, it is recommended that blood units be tested year-round using either the _____ or _____ method. MP-NAT uses pools of _____ samples and is routinely used when the risk of WNV infection in an area is _____. If a mini-pool is reactive in MP-NAT testing, each sample must be _____. If an individual sample tests positive in follow-up testing, the unit must be _____, and the donor is deferred for _____ days. ID-NAT is used when the risk of WNV infection is _____.
mini-pool (MP-NAT), individual donor (ID-NAT) 6-16, low re-tested individually discarded, 120 high
38
The screening tests for syphilis are _____ and _____, which detect _____ antibodies. If a syphilis screening test is positive, the donor unit must be _____ and the donor should be _____ unless _____ test is non-reactive. The confirmatory test for syphilis is _____, which uses the _____ method. _____ cannot survive in citrated blood stored at 1°C-6°C for more than _____ hours. Only _____ products can transmit syphilis. A donor who tests positive for syphilis is at higher risk of possible exposure to _____ and _____.
RPR, VDRL, reagin (or anti-cardiolipin) discarded, deferred, FTA-ABS FTA-ABS, indirect IFA Treponema pallidum, 72 platelet HBV, HIV
39
Chaga's disease is a _____ infection caused by _____. The disease is generally _____ but can persist _____ in infected individuals. Screening for Chaga's disease is done using _____ to detect antibodies against the parasite. Donors who are _____ reactive are deferred _____ and their blood products are _____ and _____. Currently, there are no _____ tests available for Chaga's disease confirmation.
parasitic, Trypanosoma cruzi mild, without symptoms EIA (Enzyme Immunoassay) repeat, indefinitely, quarantined, destroyed confirmatory
40
For apheresis-derived platelets, bacterial detection is performed using the _____ method. For whole blood-derived platelets: a) The _____ test is used when platelets are pooled within 4 hours of transfusion. b) The _____ method is used for stored pre-pooled platelet products. The PGD test for whole blood-derived platelets is also known by the brand name _____.
culture a) PGD (or Verax), b) culture Verax
41
Malaria can be rapidly detected in human whole blood using _____. The HRP II antigen test detects only _____ (Plasmodium species). The pLDH test can detect multiple Plasmodium species including _____, _____, _____, and _____. HRP II is specific to detecting _____ stage(s) of the malaria parasite. Rapid diagnostic kits for malaria detect either _____ or _____ antigens.
rapid detection kits (RDKs) Plasmodium falciparum P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae trophozoites HRP II, pLDH