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Flashcards in E190 Deck (334)
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1

Max Wind for Takeoff and Landing

50 Knots

2

Maximum Crosswind (Including Gusts) For Takeoff and landing

28 Knots

3

Maximum Headwind for Cat II/III Approaches

25 Knots

4

Maximum Crosswind (Including Gusts) for Autoland

15 Knots

5

Maximum Crosswind for landing with Visibility less than 3/4 or 4000 RVR

15 Knots

6

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component

10 Knots

7

Maximum Operating Alititude

41,000 Feet

8

Maximum Altitude With Flaps Extended

20,000 Feet

9

Maximum Operating Speed

VMO

10

Maximum Operating Mach Number

.82

11

Turbulent Airspeed
-Below 10,000
-Above 10,000

-250 KIAS
-270KIAS/.76M

12

Tire Limit Ground Speed

195 KIAS

13

Maximum Airspeed for Windshield Wiper Operation

250 KIAS

14

Maximum Gear Extension and Extended Speed (VLO/VLE)

Maximum Gear Retraction Speed (VLO)

-265

-235

15

Maneuvering Speed (Va)

240 KIAS

16

Define Icing condition

OAT ground and flight below +10 C or below and;
Visible moisture in any form (i.e. clouds, fog,vis 1 sm or less, rain, sleet, ice or
When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by engines, freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

17

During taxi out and takeoff, the _____________ must be set to ___ when OAT is _____ and icing conditions exist or are anticipated

MCDU TO Dataset MENU REF A/I
ALL
10 C or below

18

Max Fuel Imbalance

800 Lbs for all phases of flight

19

TAS, TAT and SAT information are only valid above ____knots

60 KIAS

20

MAX and MIN Limitations are indicated by _________?
Caution Range is indicated by_________ ?
Normal Operating Range is indicated by_________?

Red
Amber
Green

21

True/False
Reverse thrust is for Ground use only

True

22

Maximum Reverse thrust is not permitted below ____ KIAS. Below ___ KIAS reduce reverse to thrust idle

60 KIAS (both answers)

23

APU Starter Limits OFF TIME (START IS MONITORED BY FADEC)

1st and 2nd , 60 Seconds OFF
3rd, 5 minutes OFF

24

APU Altitude for
Start
Electrical
Bleed
Engine Start Assist

30,000
33,000
15,000
21,000

25

Altimeter Limits
- On ground
- Max Difference between Captain and F/O in flight

-75 Feet
-200 Feet

26

Max Landing Weight

97,000

27

TEST Acronym Stands for What?

Type of Emergency
Evacuation
Signal
Time

28

Max Taxi Speed Straight Ahead is _______. During a 90 degree turn it is ___?

30 Knots G/S
10 Knots G/S

29

Term that refers to the flight deck being designed to operate in flight with all systems normal when the overhead, main, glareshield and control pedestal panels have NO lights on and there are no aural warnings

Dark and Quiet Flight Deck

30

What is CAMI in regards to FCU and MCDU inputs.

Confirm-FMS inputs with the other pilot when airborne
Activate-the input
Monitor-mode annunciation to ensure a/p performs as desired
Intervene if neccessary

31

Describe the FIPS acronym

Flight Plan Page- Monitoring the required charted waypoints on the FLT Plan Page versus whats charted

Indicated airspeed and thrust mode: Monitor PFD for Airspeed and FMA for thrust mode

PFD vertical deviation indicator-Each dot equals 250 feet +- profile

Symbology: Symbols on MFD map display

32

List the required confirm items?

IDG
Thrust Levers
Start/Stop Switches
Fire Handles
Elevator Disconnect Handle
Aileron Disconnect Handle
Alternate gear extension

33

What limits are there on a restricted F/O (Less than 100 hours)

PIC must make all takeoffs and landings
1. At all airports designated as Special Qualification Airports.
2. The prevailing visibility in the latest WX report at the airport is at
or below 3/4 mile.
3. The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 feet.
4. The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar
conditions which may adversely affect aircraft performance.
5. The braking action on the runway is reported less than good.
6. The crosswind component of the runway is in excess of 15
knots.
7. Wind shear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
8. Any other condition which the PIC determines it prudent.

34

What is the minimum visibility a First Officer can perform a takeoff?

1/4sm or 1800 RVR

35

What is the Trigger for the Flightdeck Equipment Flow

If it is the first flight of the day, after a crew change, or when the flightdeck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot crewmember

36

What is the Trigger for the Flightdeck Preparation Flow

If it is the first flight of the day, after a crew change, after maintenance has been performed in the flightdeck, or when the flight deck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot crewmember.

37

What happens at 15 minutes prior to planned departure

Captain makes Welcome Aboard Announcement & Briefs the jumpseater

38

Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Clearance Verification complete the following occurs

Start the APU
Verify IRS alignment and position
Flt Plan Acceptance
Fit for Duty
Accomplish the Before Start Flow

39

What is the Trigger for the before start flow

Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Clearance Verification Completed.

40

What is the Trigger for the Before Pushback Flow

After receiving the cabin ready notification and all doors are closed

41

What is the Trigger for the After Start Flow

After the ground equipment is clear, the captain has announced "I have a salute," and engine(s) are stablized

42

What is the Trigger for the Taxi Flow

Aircraft departing the gate, Final Load Closeout received and both engines are running.

43

What is the Trigger for the Before Taking the Runway Flow

2-3 minutes prior to taking the runway

44

What is the Trigger for the After Landing Flow

After the aircraft has cleared the active runway. Defined as all parts of the aircraft have cleared the respective hold short line.

45

What is the Trigger for the Shutdown Flow

After the aircraft is parked at the gate with the parking brake set

46

System failures are primarily monitored via____?

EICAS

47

Photoluminescent Strips must be charged _____ minutes prior boarding. The strips will be available for approximately ___ hours

15 Minutes
7 Hours

48

Vent Flaps should be Open or Closed from the outside before opening from the outside.

Closed

49

Emergency Lights are expected to last approximately ____ Minutes?

10 Minutes

50

Escape slide lighting is powered by an independent lighting system. A dedicated battery powers the escape slide lights, which will be on for a minimum of ___ Minutes

10

51

Engine and APU bleed air are used to primary pressurize the potable waste system. If bleed pressure is not available or below its optimal range an_________ will take over.

air compressor

52

Which display units (DU) can be reverted

2 and 4 only

53

What displays airspeed, altitude, ADI, HSI, vertical speed, radio aids, autopilot, flight directors and radio altitude information

Primary Flight Display (PFD)

54

What presents map and plan navigation formats and various system synoptic formats selectable by the flight crew

Multi Function Display (MFD)

55

Which screen displays engine and system parameters such as flaps, gear, spoiler, trim position, fuel, APU, environmental information and crew awareness messages.

EICAS

56

In case of a failure on the EICAS DU, its information may be presented on the _____ by selecting the appropriate DU on the reversionary panel

MFD

57

Automatic EICAS decluttering occurs _____ seconds after landing gear and flap/slats are retracted

30 seconds

58

What allows the pilot to interface with multiple aircraft systems and operations including radios, navigation, CBs and ACARS

MCDU

59

The dual concentric rotary knob on the CCD is used to control what?

Weather Radar
Radio Frequencies
Scrolling EICAS Messages

60

What causes the Emergency Lights Power Unites (ELPU) to automatically operate

Loss of the DC BUS 1

61

Opening the passenger and service doors from the outside automatically disengages the _______ from the floor fitting, disarming the slide

girt bar

62

After the third chime ends, the cockpit door will open unless the INHIBIT PB is not pressed within

30 Seconds.

63

The service tank indication illuminates on the flight attendants panel when waste tank capacity reaches____

75%

64

The Air Management System provides control over

bleed control, environmental control, hot air leak detection,crew oxygen monitoring and wing/engine anti ice

65

Bleed air is used to supply _____different and independent bleed systems

2

66

What are the functions of bleed air?

Environmental Control System (ECS)
Engine Start
Engine and Wing Anti-ice
Water pressurization

67

What controls priority when the engine and APU bleed are availability simultaneously

AMS

68

Recirculation Fans are commanded off when:

Dump button is pressed
Smoke is detected in the recirculation bay;
Cargo (fwd or aft) smoke warning
Both packs are commanded off (i.e. you turn off both pack PBs)

69

The Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) operates in both Automatic and Manual Modes. Normal operation is in the

Automatic mode

70

How many channels does the Cabin Pressurization Controller have? How often do they alternate

2
After each flight

71

Pushing the DUMP PB will

Turn Packs off
Turn Recirculation Fans off
Control Cabin rate of climb at 2,000 FPM up to 12,400ft
At 12,400 it commands the outflow valve to full closed

72

What color light on the bleed PB indicates a associated bleed leak has been detected

Amber

73

Prior to pushback the crew notices that the landing field elevation is not displayed on the EICAS. What can be done to correct this issue?

Closeout the flight plan.

74

What automatically monitors and controls the APU

A dedicated FADEC unit

75

What provides fuel flow for APU starting when DC power in the only source of electricity (i.e. battery start)

A single DC fuel pump located in the right wing tank.

76

The APU can supply
-Electrical AC power up to
-Bleed air for engine start up to
-Bleed air for air conditioning up to

-33,000
-21,000
-15,000

77

Maximum altitude for APU start is

30,000 Feet

78

On the GROUND what will trigger an automatic shutdown of the APU

Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC Critical Fault
APU fire
APU EGT overtemperature
APU High Oil Temerpature
APU low oil pressure
sensor failure

79

In FLIGHT what will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU

Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC Critical Fault

80

The APU normally goes through a cool down period of ____. Pressing the APU Control EMER STOP will cause what?

1 Minute
Immediate shutdown without any cooling down period

81

In the event of an APU fire what color does the upper half of the APU EMER STOP PB turn.

RED

82

What turns on the FD automatically

TOGA PBs
Autopilot Activation
Windshear detection

83

Anytime the autopilot is disengaged, an aural alarm will be triggered for ____seconds

5

84

The Flight Mode Annunciator Indicates what?

autothrottle
autopilot, active AFCS channel
lateral and vertical modes

85

What is the basic lateral and pitch modes

Roll
FPA

86

The crossbars are represented as the FD during which phase of flight

Takeoff

87

FLCH guidance is associated with what autothrust mode

SPDe (Speed over elevator). This is where speed is controlled by elevator inputs.

88

Why is it important to turn the flight directors OFF when on a visual approach where the FD are not being used for guidance

To allow SPDt (Speed on Thrust)

89

What FMA indication will be annunciate during a windshear event

WSHR

90

What three things can be accomplished after flap retraction after takeoff?

FMS Speed Selected
TRS Climb 1 Selected
VNAV pb

91

The logic for the vertical modes are within the

FGCS

92

Setting minimums to BARO on both sides via the minimums control knobs on the display controller panel tells the system logic to expect what kind of approach

CAT 1

93

For an autoland to occur what must be set

Flaps 5
RA indicating less than 1500ft

94

There are five autoland modes what are they

Align-at 150ft
Flare- at 50 ft
Retard- at 30ft
De-Rotation- main gear touchdown
Roll Out-main gear touchdown

95

With the APP button pressed the system tries to arm the____

highest capable approach available

96

PREV (Preview) allows capture of an _____ course while still using FMS as the active NAV source

ILS

97

Autothrust engages when AT TO in pressed and all parameters are within limits and at TLA above

50 degrees

98

Speed on thrust (SPDt) modes include

G/S
ALT
VS
FPA

99

The AC electrical system consists of what?

2 IDGs
1 APU
RAT
Inverter

100

Can an IDG be reconnected in flight after manual disconnection

NO

101

The AVAIL light on the GPU indicates what

That the GPU volts/amps are within limits

102

Why must the AC GPU PB be pushed out when not in use

to reset for the next connection

103

When does the RAT auto deploy

Whenever AC power sources are not powering the AC buses

104

What is the minimum airspeed for the rat to be powered

130 Knots

105

The crew can visually monitor remote CBs located inside the electronics bay through the

MCDU

106

VERY IMPORTANT
Electrical system source priority is

The ONSIDE IDG
INSIDE APU
OUTSIDE GPU
OPPOSITE IDG

107

An amber light located next to the IDG indicates

Low Oil Pressure or high oil temperature on the associated IDG

108

Will the hot battery bus be powered with the battery 2 switch in the off position?

Yes.

109

Fire protection system provides detection and extinguishing for:

Engines
APU
Cargo (FWD and AFT)
Lavatories

110

Pulling the Engine Fire Handle does what?

Closes the associated:
Bleed
Fuel
and Hydraulic Shutoff Valves

111

What are the indications of an ENGINE fire

Master Warning X 2
EICAS Warning Message ENG (1 or 2) FIRE
FIRE warning light on respected ITT
Respective Fire Handle illuminates
Aural Warning is announced

112

Where are the fire bottles located

both are under fuselage fairing, aft of the right wing

113

What are the indications of an APU FIRE

Aural Warning
Red Stripped bar on the APU EMER STOP Button
2 X Master Warn lights illuminated
EICAS Warning message APU FIRE Displayed

114

The cargo fire extinguishing system has how many bottles

2

115

What is the indication of smoke in the AFT CRG or FWD CRG

Aural Warning
2 X Master Warning Lights
Associated cargo compartments extinguishing button illuminates
EICAS Warning CRG AFT SMOKE or CRG FWD SMOKE

116

Pressing the associated cargo smoke fwd or aft in FLIGHT does what

Discharges the high rate fire bottle immediately into the selected cargo compartment. Then ONE minute later, the second fire bottle is discharged at a reduced flow rate

117

Pressing the associated CARGO SMOKE FWD/AFT a second time prior to the one minute will do what

Immediately discharges the low rate extinguisher

118

Does the low rate bottle automatically discharge on the GROUND

No, only in flight.

119

Is there any indication given of a Lavatory Fire

Yes, if there is smoke in either FWD or AFT LAV the following occurs:

2 X Master Warn lights
EICAS Warning message "LAV SMOKE"
An alarm sounds in the associated lav
A flashing amber light on the respective flight attendant Rainbow light panel

120

What fire and smoke protection do we have in the lavatory.

The LAV is designed with a smoke detector that is a particulate sensor in which smoke will activate (not necessarily fire). However, if the temperature inside the waste container reaches a certain point, a fuse melts and releases the extinguishing agent automatically

121

FLY BY WIRE controls which surfaces? Which control surface is not FBW

Elevator, rudders, roll spoilers as well as the secondary flight controls.

Not Ailerons

122

Loss of data from all FCM or multiple ACE failures will force the airplane into which flight mode

Direct Mode

123

Electrical Built in Test takes approximately how long

3 Minutes

124

Manual Trim is activated by

Switches on each control column and standby switches located on the main pedestal

125

After an electrical failure, followed by RAT deployment the trim will function at what rate

Half Speed

126

Aileron control is accomplished through

a conventional cable system

127

Rudder trim is limited to ___ seconds.

3

128

With the RAT as the only source of electrical power, the SF-ACE will prevent the slats and flaps beyond

position 3

129

After touchdown the when will Multifunction spoilers and ground spoilers will extend ____

WOW
Wheel spin up above 45 kts or airspeed above 60 knots
TLA below 26 degrees

130

Flap position 4 is gated for

go-around and takeoff

131

Flap position 5 and full are used for

landing only

132

What is used to primarily tune the radios

MCDUs

133

ADS provides primary air data information to

PFD
flight controls
IESS
other avionic systems

134

The ADS system components consists of what?

ADSP (Air Data Smart Probes)
TAT (Total Air Temp)
ADA (Air Data Applications)

135

How many ADS probes are there

4

136

Each ADS receives and computes data and send their information to support what indications on the PFD and MFD

Airspeed Indicator, altimeter, vertical speed, side slip indicator, flight controls, IESS airspeed/altitude/vertical speed, Static Air Temperature (SAT) and Total Air Temperature (TAT)

137

ADS 1 is the default for and provides information to the _________. ADS 2 is the default for and provides information to the _________.

Captain
First Officer

138

If the primary ADS fails, the Reversionary logic reverts the ADS source to which ADS

3

139

Green Dot represents

Drift down speed when the slats/flaps are retracted
The ideal flap maneuvering speeds for Slat/Flap extension for the current aircraft weight.

140

In an electrical emergency configuration the IESS is powered by what?

RAT or the aircraft batteries if the RAT is not available

141

If the speed displayed on the airspeed/mach readout is magenta then the speed is being set by what?

FMS

142

Green Dot will temporarily be removed when what occurs

SLAT/FLAP transition

143

FPA represents what

Flight Path in reference to the horizon

144

Fuel is stored in ______and is connected by a ______

2 wings tanks
crossfeed valve

145

Total fuel capacity and capacity per tank

28,880
14,440

146

Each fuel tank contains the following pumps

ejector fuel pump
AC electric pump
three scavenge ejector pumps
Right wing contains DC electric fuel pump

147

Fuel Low Level Warning

6170 lbs

148

Single Point Refueling/Defueling panel is located

Under right wing

149

What is the function of the DC fuel pump in the right tank

Provides pressure for APU start
Provides pressure for engine start when AC power is not available
Provides pressure for engine start when the AC Fuel pump is not available (i.e. pump on MEL)

150

How is the fuel cross feed operated during flight

set the xfeed to low 1 or low 2 with the AC pumps in AUTO.

151

When will EICAS show a FUEL IMBALANCE message

when the imbalance exceeds 800lbs

152

Can the fuel tanks be gravity refueled?

Yes, each tank is has a refuel port located on the top of each wing

153

What would be an alternate method for determining fuel quantity.

on the MFD Fuel Synoptic page

154

A fuel pump that fails would be indicated on the fuel synoptic page with a_____

gray circle with a green windmill beneath an amber cross

155

To prevent the possibility of a fuel leak through the fuel tank vents, DO NOT exceed _____KIAS when fuel tank quantity is greater than ______lbs

290
11,000

156

The E190 has how many hydraulic systems

3

157

How are the hydraulic system's parameters and indication monitored

MFD Hydraulic Synoptic Page

158

How many hydraulic pumps are there?

7
2 Engine Driven Pumps
4 Electric 1, 2, 3A, 3B
1 PTU

159

In flight with the selector set to AUTO, the hydraulic system logic activates the electric pump when?

EDP fails or engine failure
when flaps are selected to any position greater than 0

160

How is the PTU driven

by a hydraulic motor installed in the #1 system which drives a pump in the #2 system which uses #2 qty

161

Function of the PTU and when is it used

assists the landing gear retraction and extension if engine 2 or #2 EDP fails

162

How is the hydraulic system 3 different than system 1 and 2

It utilizes 2 electric pumps
backs up only the 3 primary flight controls

163

When will HYD pump B come on

In flight whenever the HYD 3 pump A fails with the selector in AUTO. When the selector is set to on.

164

What will provide hydraulic power to the flight controls during an electrical emergency

the system 3 accumulator until RAT is providing power to the HYD Pump 3A

165

Hydraulic System 3 Consists of

Elevator (right outboard)
Rudder (lower actuator)
Ailerons( Left and Right outboard)

166

Name some of the users of the HYD System 1

Elevator (left outboard)
Rudder (upper actuator)
Thrust Reverser (Engine 1)
Multi Function Spoilers ( 3 and 4 Left and Right)
Ground Spoilers (Left and Right panel 2)
***Outboard Brakes
***Emergency Parking Brakek

167

Hydraulic System 2 users include

Elevator (left and right inboard)
Ailerons (left and right inboard)
thrust reverser (engine 2)
Multi-Function Spoilers (left and right panel 5)
Ground Spoilers (left and right panel 1)
****NOSE WHEEL
****Inboard Brakes
****Landing Gear
****Emergency Brake

168

Which HYD Reservoir has greater capacity

number 2 due to landing gear being a major component

169

During a single engine taxi with engine 1 operating. Electric hydraulic pump 2 will automatically do what unless the parking brake is recycled

turn off

170

The ice and rain protection system provides anti-ice protection for ?

Engine cowls and slats outboard of engine nacelle. The TAIL is NOT protected.

171

Anti-Ice system parameters and indications can be found on the ____?

Anti-ice synoptic page

172

During an engine fire what indication do you have that the fire has gone out?

Engine fire warning on EICAS no longer displayed.

173

With the ICE PROTECTION Mode selector knob in the _____ position. The wing and engine anti-ice system will operate automatically according to system logic

AUTO

174

When will the wing anti-ice valves open if ALL is selected on the MCDU T/O Data Set Menu.

Speeds above 40 knots

175

When will the ice detectors activate the engine and wing anti-ice system

If ice is detected above 1700 AGL or 2 minutes after lift off

176

What is displayed when an icing condition has been detected.

a cyan ICE CONDITION message on EICAS

177

A RED light on the nose gear towing light indicates

Steering is not disengaged
parking brake is set
main brakes applied

178

A Green light on the nose gear towing lights indicate

steering disengaged
parking brake is not set
main brakes not applied

179

Where is the steering disengage switch actuated and where is it verified

Behind each control yoke there is a PB. Verified on the EICAS Steer Disconnect memo

180

Autobrake setting indication is located where

EICAS Page

181

How is the parking brake verified on

By the ON indication on the EMERG/PRKG BRAKE light

182

Nosewheel steering provides angles of ____ until ___kts and decreases to ___ at ___ knots

+- 76
40knots
+-7
100

183

IF two WOW sensors on the same landing gear fail what will be inhibited

gear retraction

184

Landing Gear Aural Warning cannot be silenced under what conditions

SLAT/FLAP lever in a landing position (5 or full)
OR
When the FLAP position is 1,2,3 or 4 AND
Radio altitude below 700ft AGL
TLA with 2 engines 38 degrees or below
TLA 57 degrees or below with a single engine

185

The landing and RTO modes of the autobrake system will disarm if what occurs

selector is set to OFF
pedal brakes are applied
brake control system failure is detected
either thrust level is advanced beyond idle during autobrake application

186

What does the Alternate Gear Extension Lever Do?

Relieves residual hydraulic pressure in the landing hear lines and opens all landing gear uplocks

187

What is the function of the DN Lock REL button (RED)

Mechanically bypasses the system protection logic.

188

In the event you have a dual radio altimeter failure. The LG WRN can be inhibited by pushing the LG WRN INHIB TRUE/FALSE

TRUE

189

Which HYD systems power the brakes

System 1 and 2

190

The Brake Control Module or BCM functions includes

Locked Wheel Protection
Antiskid Protection
Automatic wheel braking
touchdown protection

191

When is antiskid deactivated

at wheel speeds below 10 knots

192

During APU cool down period what services are available.

Electrical only, bleed is shutdown

193

The emergency brake has sufficient pressure to provide ___full brake applications

six

194

Autobrake modes include

Low, Medium, HI, RTO

195

The Free Wheel Steering Mode is used for

Ground handling, towing, failure of the normal steering system

196

Gear in transit on EICAS is indicated by____?

amber cross-hatched box on the respective landing gear.

197

IRS or Inertial Reference System computes what?

airplane position, ground speed, heading and altitude

198

How long do the IRSs take to align?

approximately 17 minutes

199

The main component of the Inertia Reference System is the Inertia Reference Unit. How many IRUs are there installed on the 190

2

200

During power up, automatic alignment is provided. What would accidentally inhibit this process.

aircraft movement

201

RAIM can be verified two ways.

Primarily by the dispatchers notation on the flight release.
Pred Raim function on the MCDU

202

The FMS determines the best navigational mode. Navigation Priority Modes in order of priority are:

VERY IMPORTANT

GPS
DME/DME
VOR/DME
IRS

203

Required Navigation Performance for FMS Navigation include
Enroute ENRT RNP ___?
Terminal TERM RNP ___?
APPROACH APPR RNP___?

2.0
1.0
.3

204

On the ground, the XPDR only replies to mode ____ interrogations

S

205

On Takeoff the FMS sends inputs to the PFD to show V2 then once reached it pitches for V2 + 10 until the vertical mode is changed.
TRUE/FALSE

TRUE

206

A _____ disc is located on the front left nose section and in the event of an overpressure within the Flight Crew Oxygen System it will_______?

Green
Blow out

207

Pressing the TEST/RESET button with the crew oxy mask stowed will

test the oxy mask and activate the microphone and speaker.

208

Passenger Service Units supply oxygen for ______?

12 Minutes

209

What happens when the passenger mask doors are automatically or manually activated

An ON light illuminates on the PASSENGER OXYGEN panel and
the FSTN BELTS and NO ELEC DEVICES sign automatically turn on.

210

What are the portable oxygen cylinders used for?

Flight attendants to assist passengers and for first aid purposes

211

The engine is controlled via dual channel ____

FADEC

212

The FADEC energizes _____ during ground engine starts
And _____ during flight engine starts

one igniter
both igniters

213

FADEC does not provide start protection for hot or hung starts and no light off protection during in flight engine starts.

TRUE or FALSE

TRUE

214

Uncommanded thrust reverser deployment does what to the thrust while in flight

Limits engine thrust to idle

215

Thrust reversers are ______ actuated

Hydraulically

216

What component of the engine controls requested and Max N1 and ATTCS

FADEC

217

FADEC provides engine start protections against____? Any also controls other limits including

Hung Start
Hot Start
No Light Off

Overspeed, Over temperature

218

ATTCS stands for what and does what?

Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System. Basically it uptrims the good engines output during takeoff, go around. It also provides a power boost during windshear events.

219

What are the indications of an in-flight auto relight

A WML icon is displayed next to the respective engine N2

220

IMPORTANT (ESPECIALLY ON HOT DAYS AND/OR Quick TURNS)

During engine ground starts, FADEC will not allow fuel flow if ITT is above _____.

120 degrees C
The engine motors to quickly reduce the ITT below 120

221

ATTCS is selected ______ by default

ON

222

ATTCS commands RSV (Reserve Power) whenever it is armed, TLA at TOGA, and

N1 values on both engines Greater than 15% different
One Engine fails during Takeoff & Go Around
Windshear is detected

223

A derated thrust for takeoff (FLEX TO-1 or TO-2) will be shown where?

EICAS

224

TO-1 or TO-2 is used for what kind of takeoff

Normal takeoff

225

Go around mode is activated in flight whenever

The landing gear is down and toga is pressed

226

Final Approach idle is activated below 1200 feet AGL and

Landing Flaps and landing Gear Down

227

The START/STOP selector knob commands the FADEC to shut down the engine provided what else?

The associated thrust lever is in the IDLE position

228

EICAS has how many levels of alerts

4
Warning (RED)
Caution (AMBER
Advisory (CYAN)
Status (WHITE)

229

EICAS messages are presented in a chronological order according to their

priority

230

There are ____ aural warning priority levels

4
Bell, Chime, Triple Chime, Voice Messages

231

What would trigger a configuration warning

No Takeoff Flaps
No Takeoff Brakes
No Takeoff Spoilers
No Takeoff Trim
Parking brake

232

The stall protection system provides a ________ as a warning to the flight crew of a possible impending stall

Stick Shaker

233

EPGWS receives its inputs from ____

GPS, IRS, Slats Flaps, ADS, FMS, Radar Altimeter

234

When a terrain warning/caution exists the map on the MFD wil automatically revert to what range?

10nm

235

Windshear detection system is activated between?

10 to 1500 ft RA

236

TCAS mode selection is selected through the _______?

MCDU RADIO Page

237

The GND PROX INHIB button is used for what function?

Inhibits the EGPWS avoiding unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered by the EPGWS database.

238

What chapter of the OM can supplemental normals be found

OM 1, Chapter 4

239

How can supplemental normals be conducted

Read and Do
Read then Do
by Memory

240

The EVACUATION Checklist is different in that crews conduct the checklist

Simultaneously.

241

PBE's are rated to last how long

15 minutes

242

If a normal checklist is lost where can you immediately obtain a new one.

An extra copy is located in the rear of the QRH or on MY 365 APP

243

Which threat level is the most severe?

Level 4

244

Are contact approaches allowed?

No

245

What must be stated by the F/O during an autoland prior to 1000 RA.

Autoland Green

246

Are autobrakes required for autolands? Normal landings?

Yes.
It is recommended....so yes.

247

What aircraft approach category is the E190 normally operate in.

Category C 121-140kts

248

System resets can be found where

OM 1 Chapter 4.

249

What are three basic ways of contacting dispatch inflight

ACARS, Through a phone patch with local operations, ARINC

250

At what speed does the PM verify that HOLD is annunciate do on FMA

80 knots

251

On takeoff thrust HOLD is annunciate on the FMA at what airspeed?

60 Knots

252

With the T/O Data Set A/I Ref to ALL. What surfaces are protected

Left and Right Engine Cowl Inlets
Outboard 3 slats ONLY (inboard slats are not protected by A/I)

253

IESS Takes how long to initialize

90 Seconds

254

MAU Stands for?
SPDA Stands for?
RICC/LICC/AICC EICC Stands for?
What powers the SPDA

Modular Avionics Unit
Secondary Power Distribution Assembly
Right/Left/Auxiliary/Emergency Integrated Control Center
The respected ICC powers the associated SPDA

255

There are two alignment modes for the IRS. What are they and when are they used

Stationary: When aligning the position on the ground (IRS Aligning can take up to 17 minutes

Align in Motion: While the aircraft is in flight and the IRS is realigned which can take 15-30 due to continuous motion and movement

256

If the IRU Fails, the display will revert to what data only

Attitude only. No position

257

What are two way of selecting the Weather Radar to on, while still on the ground?

BOTH pilots select FSBY (Force Standby) on their respective MAP on the MFD

A single pilot may override the protection while on the ground by clicking the FSBY 4 times.

258

Can an IDG be reselected once Disconnected

NO. Once disconnected, it is mechanically disabled and can only be reconnected by Maintenance.

259

What is the purpose of the inverter inside the electrical system. What does it power

Converts DC power from the batteries to AC. This is again only when the Batteries are the only source of power. Used to provide power to the igniters

260

Where are the Thermal CBs Located?
Where are the virtual CBs located?

Left and Right CB panel
Inside the MCDU

261

What powers the AC Bus 2 and the AC ESS under normal operations

IDG 2

262

If the brake is released with the GPU connected what will happen

EICAS GPU Connected

263

EPGWS on the MFD Map Displays Yellow. What does this mean? Displays Red?

Yellow = 60 Seconds from impact
Red= 30 Seconds from impact

264

There are 4 levels of automation. What is the highest level of automation. What is the lowest level.

The highest level of automation is level 4 where FMS commands Vertical and Lateral Guidance

The lowes is Level 1. No FD, No A/P, NO A/T = RAW DATA

265

The Oxygen PSI is checked by its color coding. Green indicates what? Cyan Indicates what?

O2 levels are adequate for 3 cockpit crew members
O2 levels are adequate for 2 cockpit crew members

266

By selecting BARO/RA to RA. You are telling the computers to expect what kind of Approach

RA is used for CAT II/III Autoland operations only. CAT II the pilot would select the RA from the Jepp Plate and select the RA knob to the desired alititude (rounding up if nessisary 95 = 100. For CAT III operations a 50 Decision Height is entered. The Captain must see the airport environment or go around.

267

What piece of paperwork is received automatically four minutes after departure?

FPR - Flight Plan Review

268

What altitude is referenced by the 10,000 Ft call? MSL or AGL

AGL. So if field elevation is 560 ft MSL. The 10,000 foot call would be called at 10,560 ft.

269

At what speed does track annunciate on the FMA?

100 kts

270

The airspeed trend vector informs the pilot of the expected airspeed in ______second from present time.

10

271

The airspeed tape has two colors on the slow side of the scale. Amber and Red. What do they represent?

Amber is 1.13 VS
Red is Stick Shaker (Stall is imminent)

272

Declutter of the EICAS occurs when? When is the EICAS fully restored.

After 30 seconds.

1)Full EICAS PB pressed
2)Flaps/Slats Out
3)System abnormality/limitation caution or warning
Autobrakes

273

APU Fire Light on the over head panel will illuminate under two conditions. What are they?

APU Fire is recognized AND the EMG STOP is pushed
OR
APU Fire is recognized AND you do nothing

274

On the ground the APU will auto shutdown after how many second after a APU fire is sensed

10

275

In flight will the APU auto shutdown?

No

276

On the ground will the cargo extinguisher automatically fire the second bottle after the first bottle is discharged

No. The second low rate bottle disperses agent over 60 minutes which is not needed on the ground

277

How might you arm and activate any cargo fire agent?

By pressing the associated cargo fire push button twice within 2 minutes

278

What two optional items can be accomplished after the flaps are at 0 and the after takeoff checklist is complete?

Climb 1
VNAV selected

279

The BANK push button on the FGCS, when pressed, inhibits bank angles above _____degrees. Above ________ft this function is automatic.

17 degrees
25,000

280

When should 121.5 be monitored by the flightdeck crew

Anytime when com 2 is available regardless of altitude.

281

The DVDR test is completed by the Captain prior to the first flight of the day. During the test, he/she verifies what?

No EICAS Failure Messages
Fwd/Aft CVR Fail

282

HDG Fail or ATT Fail on the PFD might indicate what?

IRS Failure

283

The Auto position of the IDG knob does what?

Automatic Operation due to system logic. Connects the IDG to the associated AC BUS when electrical source priority calls for its use. (IDG,APU,GPU, Opposite IDG)

284

Placing the IDG Knob to the OFF position does what?

Opens the contactor between the IDG and the associated AC Bus

285

The Auto position on the AC BUS TIES Knob does what? By placing the knob into the Open position does what?

Allows automatic operation of the electrical systems according to system logic. Thus placing the knob into the Open potion opens the contactor isolating the buss.

286

With the Batteries in the off position. Which busses are powered?

HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2

287

With the BATT 1 selector ON. What bus(ses) are powered?

DC ESS busses, AC standby bus, and hot battery busses

288

What busses are powered with the BATT 1 ON and BATT 2 placed in Auto

DC ESS buses and the AC Standby Bus

289

What does the AC Standby Bus Power

Engine Exciters

290

Under what conditions will the RAT automatically deploy

Whenever there there is a loss power to the AC Busses

291

It can take up to how long for the RAT to start producing power. During this time period what powers the AC Essential Bus

8 seconds. Batteries

292

When are the Batteries able to be charged

Anytime there is an AC power.

293

Batteries are capable powering the electrical system for approximately _______?

10 Minutes

294

What does the RAT Power (AC/DC)

AC ESS Bus and DC ESS Buses (Through the ESS TRU) charges the batteries

295

What BUS normally powers the AC ESS BUSS

AC BUS 2

296

What lights are available with BATT power only?

DOME light and EMERGENCY LIGHTS via their own dedicated ELPUs

297

How many hydraulic actuators are powered by HYD Sys 3?

4

298

Pulling the Fire Handle does what

Closes the associated bleed, hydraulic shutoff valves and shuts off the wing spar fuel valve.

299

Under what conditions would the APU Fire Extinguisher PB light illuminate

APU EMRG STOP PB pressed
One minute after the Fire Alarm and no further action is taken

300

What precautions might be taken after any cargo agent has been used?

Use caution when opening cargo doors due to the fact halon has been used. Ground personnel need to know prior to opening if able.

301

If the windshield wipers are used on a dry surface, what protection is available?

They will stop and remain off until the wiper knob is placed in the off position.

302

What are the two major systems used by the #2 Hyd system

Landing Gear and Nose Wheel Steering

303

How can you taxi with the number 1 engine operating if the nose wheel steering is on the number 2 hydraulic system

With the number 2 Electric Hydraulic Pump in AUTO, and the EDP not operating (i.e Eng 2 not on), the electric pump will operate thus powering the number 2 system. UNLESS the Park Brake is set for more than 6 minutes. When this occurs the EHYD Pump 2 shuts off until the Park Brake is recycled.

304

What happens to the respective hydraulic system during an engine flameout?

The associated FADEC will send a signal to depressurize the associated hydraulic system to reduce the torque loads for help facilitate a windmill start

305

Pressing the DUMP PB does what

Turn Packs OFF, Recirculation fans off, depressurizes the cabin at 2,000 FPM up to 12,400.

306

What happens to the windshield heat with a single AC power source

Due to load shedding, on the ground windshield heat is turned off. In flight only, the left windshield heat is powered or if failed the right windshield.

307

The engine and wing ice protection remains activated until ____ minutes after the detector is no longer sensing an icing condition.

5 minutes

308

The Bleed PB will illuminate ______ in the event of a bleed leak.

Amber

309

Which is the only cargo compartment used to store live animals. Why is this

FWD. Because its ventilated

310

The FADEC places the packs in what position during engine start

OFF

311

In the AUTO position, when do the passenger masks deploy?

If the cabin pressure altitude is above 14,000ft.

312

The passenger O2 masks provide ______ minutes of o2 via a _______

12 Minutes chemical generator

313

The BANK PB does what? When is is automatically activated

selects max bank angle to 17degrees. Above 25,000 ft Bank angle is automatically limited to 17 degrees.

314

Cabin Altitude HI in conjunction with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever cabin altitude exceeds.

9,700 ft

315

What is the function of the Ground Proximity Terrain Override Inhibit PB

If an airport and/or runway (i.e. New runway construction) is not listed in current database. Pressing the PB will inhibit unwanted EPGWS warnings and Terrain Alerts.

316

What is the Ground PROX Flap Override PB used for?

Inhibits normal alerts for non standard flap settings due to QRH procedures needing flaps different than landing flap settings

317

There are two items to accomplish to extend the landing alternatively. What are they and describe what occurs.

Electrical override extension- bypasses the gear selector to electronically override the PSEM to lower the gear.

Alternate Gear Extension Handle- relieves all hydraulic pressure in the landing gear system and releases the up locks to allow for Gravity free fall.

318

Are speed brakes available in Direct Mode?

No

319

Which trim switch(s) are able to be controlled by the autopilot system

Stabilizer trim (pitch) only

320

The Landing Gear Warning PB when pressed does what? Why/when is this PB used

The landing gear aural logic uses the thrust
lever angle, flap setting and radio altimeter to determine if the airplane is in the landing
configuration.
If any of the landing gear are not down and locked, the aural warning LANDING GEAR
is annunciated and can not be silenced under certain Conditions

This PB is used when there is a dual radar altimeter failure.

321

The engine anti ice valve fails in what position during an electrical failure?

Fails open allowing continuous anti ice heat to the engine cowl.

322

How many actuators are energized by the #3 hydraulic system

4 actuators
Lower rudder
Aileron left and right
Right outboard elevator

323

PTU in automatic mode turns on when? What is its purpose?

Failure or EDP Failure. On landing the PTU will start when:
Flaps not at zero
Landing Gear NOT up and locked
EDP 1 operating and quantity in HYD Reservoir 2

Assists in gear retraction and extension provided an engine

324

What is powered when the batteries are off and it's a cold dark airplane. (Major Items)

Engine Fire Extinguishers. So if you pull fire handles and twist the bottles will blow. Engine fuel SOV and Hydraulic SOV

325

When in AUTO the fuel AC pump will run when?

Ejector fuel pump fails
Starting Engines
Cross feeding

326

When will PTU automatically operate?

Flaps out of 0 or landing gear not up and locked, number 1 EDP operating, HYD 2 reservoir above 12%.

327

In flight cargo smoke annunciation... Will the fire extinguishers activate automatically?

No, you must push the fire extinguisher discharge button to discharge the high rate fire ex. After one minute, if still indicating fire low rate will automatically discharge.

328

Will automatic fire extinguisher discharge take place after a cargo smoke indication?

No, it must always be manually fired to prevent possible accidental discharge while personnel are in compartment.

329

When will system 3B pump automatically operate?

When selected to auto and system 3A pump fails in flight.

330

Standby hydraulic pumps will operate on the ground with both engines running when?

Flaps out of 0 degrees, 50 kts wheel spinup, thrust lever takeoff

331

Selecting dump on pressurization controller while in MANUAL mode will cause what to happen?

Both recirc fans and packs are turned off. Rear outflow closes and forces the cabin to climb at 2,000 FPM until 12,400ft.

332

The pressurization abort mode is active when?

Airplane stops climbing
Cruise mode not activated
Pressure altitude less than 10,000 ft or
Airplane less than 5000 ft AFE

333

Engine Starter Limitations
1st and 2nd
3rd through 5th

90 Seconds On / 10 Seconds Off (GROUND ONLY)

120 Seconds ON/ 5 Minutes Off (IN Flight ONLY)

334

How is the last three thousand feet of an instrument approach runway lit?

Centerline lights alternating red and white from 3000 to 1000 then solid red , runway edge lights yellow last 2000 feet.