E190 Flashcards
(334 cards)
1
Q
Max Wind for Takeoff and Landing
A
50 Knots
2
Q
Maximum Crosswind (Including Gusts) For Takeoff and landing
A
28 Knots
3
Q
Maximum Headwind for Cat II/III Approaches
A
25 Knots
4
Q
Maximum Crosswind (Including Gusts) for Autoland
A
15 Knots
5
Q
Maximum Crosswind for landing with Visibility less than 3/4 or 4000 RVR
A
15 Knots
6
Q
Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component
A
10 Knots
7
Q
Maximum Operating Alititude
A
41,000 Feet
8
Q
Maximum Altitude With Flaps Extended
A
20,000 Feet
9
Q
Maximum Operating Speed
A
VMO
10
Q
Maximum Operating Mach Number
A
.82
11
Q
Turbulent Airspeed
- Below 10,000
- Above 10,000
A
- 250 KIAS
- 270KIAS/.76M
12
Q
Tire Limit Ground Speed
A
195 KIAS
13
Q
Maximum Airspeed for Windshield Wiper Operation
A
250 KIAS
14
Q
Maximum Gear Extension and Extended Speed (VLO/VLE)
Maximum Gear Retraction Speed (VLO)
A
- 265
- 235
15
Q
Maneuvering Speed (Va)
A
240 KIAS
16
Q
Define Icing condition
A
OAT ground and flight below +10 C or below and;
Visible moisture in any form (i.e. clouds, fog,vis 1 sm or less, rain, sleet, ice or
When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by engines, freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
17
Q
During taxi out and takeoff, the _____________ must be set to ___ when OAT is _____ and icing conditions exist or are anticipated
A
MCDU TO Dataset MENU REF A/I
ALL
10 C or below
18
Q
Max Fuel Imbalance
A
800 Lbs for all phases of flight
19
Q
TAS, TAT and SAT information are only valid above ____knots
A
60 KIAS
20
Q
MAX and MIN Limitations are indicated by _________?
Caution Range is indicated by_________ ?
Normal Operating Range is indicated by_________?
A
Red
Amber
Green
21
Q
True/False
Reverse thrust is for Ground use only
A
True
22
Q
Maximum Reverse thrust is not permitted below ____ KIAS. Below ___ KIAS reduce reverse to thrust idle
A
60 KIAS (both answers)
23
Q
APU Starter Limits OFF TIME (START IS MONITORED BY FADEC)
A
1st and 2nd , 60 Seconds OFF
3rd, 5 minutes OFF
24
Q
APU Altitude for Start Electrical Bleed Engine Start Assist
A
30,000
33,000
15,000
21,000
25
Altimeter Limits
- On ground
- Max Difference between Captain and F/O in flight
- 75 Feet
| - 200 Feet
26
Max Landing Weight
97,000
27
TEST Acronym Stands for What?
Type of Emergency
Evacuation
Signal
Time
28
Max Taxi Speed Straight Ahead is _______. During a 90 degree turn it is ___?
30 Knots G/S
| 10 Knots G/S
29
Term that refers to the flight deck being designed to operate in flight with all systems normal when the overhead, main, glareshield and control pedestal panels have NO lights on and there are no aural warnings
Dark and Quiet Flight Deck
30
What is CAMI in regards to FCU and MCDU inputs.
Confirm-FMS inputs with the other pilot when airborne
Activate-the input
Monitor-mode annunciation to ensure a/p performs as desired
Intervene if neccessary
31
Describe the FIPS acronym
Flight Plan Page- Monitoring the required charted waypoints on the FLT Plan Page versus whats charted
Indicated airspeed and thrust mode: Monitor PFD for Airspeed and FMA for thrust mode
PFD vertical deviation indicator-Each dot equals 250 feet +- profile
Symbology: Symbols on MFD map display
32
List the required confirm items?
```
IDG
Thrust Levers
Start/Stop Switches
Fire Handles
Elevator Disconnect Handle
Aileron Disconnect Handle
Alternate gear extension
```
33
What limits are there on a restricted F/O (Less than 100 hours)
PIC must make all takeoffs and landings
1. At all airports designated as Special Qualification Airports.
2. The prevailing visibility in the latest WX report at the airport is at
or below 3/4 mile.
3. The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 feet.
4. The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar
conditions which may adversely affect aircraft performance.
5. The braking action on the runway is reported less than good.
6. The crosswind component of the runway is in excess of 15
knots.
7. Wind shear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
8. Any other condition which the PIC determines it prudent.
34
What is the minimum visibility a First Officer can perform a takeoff?
1/4sm or 1800 RVR
35
What is the Trigger for the Flightdeck Equipment Flow
If it is the first flight of the day, after a crew change, or when the flightdeck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot crewmember
36
What is the Trigger for the Flightdeck Preparation Flow
If it is the first flight of the day, after a crew change, after maintenance has been performed in the flightdeck, or when the flight deck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot crewmember.
37
What happens at 15 minutes prior to planned departure
Captain makes Welcome Aboard Announcement & Briefs the jumpseater
38
Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Clearance Verification complete the following occurs
```
Start the APU
Verify IRS alignment and position
Flt Plan Acceptance
Fit for Duty
Accomplish the Before Start Flow
```
39
What is the Trigger for the before start flow
Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Clearance Verification Completed.
40
What is the Trigger for the Before Pushback Flow
After receiving the cabin ready notification and all doors are closed
41
What is the Trigger for the After Start Flow
After the ground equipment is clear, the captain has announced "I have a salute," and engine(s) are stablized
42
What is the Trigger for the Taxi Flow
Aircraft departing the gate, Final Load Closeout received and both engines are running.
43
What is the Trigger for the Before Taking the Runway Flow
2-3 minutes prior to taking the runway
44
What is the Trigger for the After Landing Flow
After the aircraft has cleared the active runway. Defined as all parts of the aircraft have cleared the respective hold short line.
45
What is the Trigger for the Shutdown Flow
After the aircraft is parked at the gate with the parking brake set
46
System failures are primarily monitored via____?
EICAS
47
Photoluminescent Strips must be charged _____ minutes prior boarding. The strips will be available for approximately ___ hours
15 Minutes
| 7 Hours
48
Vent Flaps should be Open or Closed from the outside before opening from the outside.
Closed
49
Emergency Lights are expected to last approximately ____ Minutes?
10 Minutes
50
Escape slide lighting is powered by an independent lighting system. A dedicated battery powers the escape slide lights, which will be on for a minimum of ___ Minutes
10
51
Engine and APU bleed air are used to primary pressurize the potable waste system. If bleed pressure is not available or below its optimal range an_________ will take over.
air compressor
52
Which display units (DU) can be reverted
2 and 4 only
53
What displays airspeed, altitude, ADI, HSI, vertical speed, radio aids, autopilot, flight directors and radio altitude information
Primary Flight Display (PFD)
54
What presents map and plan navigation formats and various system synoptic formats selectable by the flight crew
Multi Function Display (MFD)
55
Which screen displays engine and system parameters such as flaps, gear, spoiler, trim position, fuel, APU, environmental information and crew awareness messages.
EICAS
56
In case of a failure on the EICAS DU, its information may be presented on the _____ by selecting the appropriate DU on the reversionary panel
MFD
57
Automatic EICAS decluttering occurs _____ seconds after landing gear and flap/slats are retracted
30 seconds
58
What allows the pilot to interface with multiple aircraft systems and operations including radios, navigation, CBs and ACARS
MCDU
59
The dual concentric rotary knob on the CCD is used to control what?
Weather Radar
Radio Frequencies
Scrolling EICAS Messages
60
What causes the Emergency Lights Power Unites (ELPU) to automatically operate
Loss of the DC BUS 1
61
Opening the passenger and service doors from the outside automatically disengages the _______ from the floor fitting, disarming the slide
girt bar
62
After the third chime ends, the cockpit door will open unless the INHIBIT PB is not pressed within
30 Seconds.
63
The service tank indication illuminates on the flight attendants panel when waste tank capacity reaches____
75%
64
The Air Management System provides control over
bleed control, environmental control, hot air leak detection,crew oxygen monitoring and wing/engine anti ice
65
Bleed air is used to supply _____different and independent bleed systems
2
66
What are the functions of bleed air?
Environmental Control System (ECS)
Engine Start
Engine and Wing Anti-ice
Water pressurization
67
What controls priority when the engine and APU bleed are availability simultaneously
AMS
68
Recirculation Fans are commanded off when:
Dump button is pressed
Smoke is detected in the recirculation bay;
Cargo (fwd or aft) smoke warning
Both packs are commanded off (i.e. you turn off both pack PBs)
69
The Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) operates in both Automatic and Manual Modes. Normal operation is in the
Automatic mode
70
How many channels does the Cabin Pressurization Controller have? How often do they alternate
2
| After each flight
71
Pushing the DUMP PB will
Turn Packs off
Turn Recirculation Fans off
Control Cabin rate of climb at 2,000 FPM up to 12,400ft
At 12,400 it commands the outflow valve to full closed
72
What color light on the bleed PB indicates a associated bleed leak has been detected
Amber
73
Prior to pushback the crew notices that the landing field elevation is not displayed on the EICAS. What can be done to correct this issue?
Closeout the flight plan.
74
What automatically monitors and controls the APU
A dedicated FADEC unit
75
What provides fuel flow for APU starting when DC power in the only source of electricity (i.e. battery start)
A single DC fuel pump located in the right wing tank.
76
The APU can supply
- Electrical AC power up to
- Bleed air for engine start up to
- Bleed air for air conditioning up to
- 33,000
- 21,000
- 15,000
77
Maximum altitude for APU start is
30,000 Feet
78
On the GROUND what will trigger an automatic shutdown of the APU
```
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC Critical Fault
APU fire
APU EGT overtemperature
APU High Oil Temerpature
APU low oil pressure
sensor failure
```
79
In FLIGHT what will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC Critical Fault
80
The APU normally goes through a cool down period of ____. Pressing the APU Control EMER STOP will cause what?
1 Minute
| Immediate shutdown without any cooling down period
81
In the event of an APU fire what color does the upper half of the APU EMER STOP PB turn.
RED
82
What turns on the FD automatically
TOGA PBs
Autopilot Activation
Windshear detection
83
Anytime the autopilot is disengaged, an aural alarm will be triggered for ____seconds
5
84
The Flight Mode Annunciator Indicates what?
autothrottle
autopilot, active AFCS channel
lateral and vertical modes
85
What is the basic lateral and pitch modes
Roll
| FPA
86
The crossbars are represented as the FD during which phase of flight
Takeoff
87
FLCH guidance is associated with what autothrust mode
SPDe (Speed over elevator). This is where speed is controlled by elevator inputs.
88
Why is it important to turn the flight directors OFF when on a visual approach where the FD are not being used for guidance
To allow SPDt (Speed on Thrust)
89
What FMA indication will be annunciate during a windshear event
WSHR
90
What three things can be accomplished after flap retraction after takeoff?
FMS Speed Selected
TRS Climb 1 Selected
VNAV pb
91
The logic for the vertical modes are within the
FGCS
92
Setting minimums to BARO on both sides via the minimums control knobs on the display controller panel tells the system logic to expect what kind of approach
CAT 1
93
For an autoland to occur what must be set
Flaps 5
| RA indicating less than 1500ft
94
There are five autoland modes what are they
```
Align-at 150ft
Flare- at 50 ft
Retard- at 30ft
De-Rotation- main gear touchdown
Roll Out-main gear touchdown
```
95
With the APP button pressed the system tries to arm the____
highest capable approach available
96
PREV (Preview) allows capture of an _____ course while still using FMS as the active NAV source
ILS
97
Autothrust engages when AT TO in pressed and all parameters are within limits and at TLA above
50 degrees
98
Speed on thrust (SPDt) modes include
G/S
ALT
VS
FPA
99
The AC electrical system consists of what?
2 IDGs
1 APU
RAT
Inverter
100
Can an IDG be reconnected in flight after manual disconnection
NO
101
The AVAIL light on the GPU indicates what
That the GPU volts/amps are within limits
102
Why must the AC GPU PB be pushed out when not in use
to reset for the next connection
103
When does the RAT auto deploy
Whenever AC power sources are not powering the AC buses
104
What is the minimum airspeed for the rat to be powered
130 Knots
105
The crew can visually monitor remote CBs located inside the electronics bay through the
MCDU
106
VERY IMPORTANT
| Electrical system source priority is
The ONSIDE IDG
INSIDE APU
OUTSIDE GPU
OPPOSITE IDG
107
An amber light located next to the IDG indicates
Low Oil Pressure or high oil temperature on the associated IDG
108
Will the hot battery bus be powered with the battery 2 switch in the off position?
Yes.
109
Fire protection system provides detection and extinguishing for:
Engines
APU
Cargo (FWD and AFT)
Lavatories
110
Pulling the Engine Fire Handle does what?
Closes the associated:
Bleed
Fuel
and Hydraulic Shutoff Valves
111
What are the indications of an ENGINE fire
```
Master Warning X 2
EICAS Warning Message ENG (1 or 2) FIRE
FIRE warning light on respected ITT
Respective Fire Handle illuminates
Aural Warning is announced
```
112
Where are the fire bottles located
both are under fuselage fairing, aft of the right wing
113
What are the indications of an APU FIRE
Aural Warning
Red Stripped bar on the APU EMER STOP Button
2 X Master Warn lights illuminated
EICAS Warning message APU FIRE Displayed
114
The cargo fire extinguishing system has how many bottles
2
115
What is the indication of smoke in the AFT CRG or FWD CRG
Aural Warning
2 X Master Warning Lights
Associated cargo compartments extinguishing button illuminates
EICAS Warning CRG AFT SMOKE or CRG FWD SMOKE
116
Pressing the associated cargo smoke fwd or aft in FLIGHT does what
Discharges the high rate fire bottle immediately into the selected cargo compartment. Then ONE minute later, the second fire bottle is discharged at a reduced flow rate
117
Pressing the associated CARGO SMOKE FWD/AFT a second time prior to the one minute will do what
Immediately discharges the low rate extinguisher
118
Does the low rate bottle automatically discharge on the GROUND
No, only in flight.
119
Is there any indication given of a Lavatory Fire
Yes, if there is smoke in either FWD or AFT LAV the following occurs:
2 X Master Warn lights
EICAS Warning message "LAV SMOKE"
An alarm sounds in the associated lav
A flashing amber light on the respective flight attendant Rainbow light panel
120
What fire and smoke protection do we have in the lavatory.
The LAV is designed with a smoke detector that is a particulate sensor in which smoke will activate (not necessarily fire). However, if the temperature inside the waste container reaches a certain point, a fuse melts and releases the extinguishing agent automatically
121
FLY BY WIRE controls which surfaces? Which control surface is not FBW
Elevator, rudders, roll spoilers as well as the secondary flight controls.
Not Ailerons
122
Loss of data from all FCM or multiple ACE failures will force the airplane into which flight mode
Direct Mode
123
Electrical Built in Test takes approximately how long
3 Minutes
124
Manual Trim is activated by
Switches on each control column and standby switches located on the main pedestal
125
After an electrical failure, followed by RAT deployment the trim will function at what rate
Half Speed
126
Aileron control is accomplished through
a conventional cable system
127
Rudder trim is limited to ___ seconds.
3
128
With the RAT as the only source of electrical power, the SF-ACE will prevent the slats and flaps beyond
position 3
129
After touchdown the when will Multifunction spoilers and ground spoilers will extend ____
WOW
Wheel spin up above 45 kts or airspeed above 60 knots
TLA below 26 degrees
130
Flap position 4 is gated for
go-around and takeoff
131
Flap position 5 and full are used for
landing only
132
What is used to primarily tune the radios
MCDUs
133
ADS provides primary air data information to
PFD
flight controls
IESS
other avionic systems
134
The ADS system components consists of what?
ADSP (Air Data Smart Probes)
TAT (Total Air Temp)
ADA (Air Data Applications)
135
How many ADS probes are there
4
136
Each ADS receives and computes data and send their information to support what indications on the PFD and MFD
Airspeed Indicator, altimeter, vertical speed, side slip indicator, flight controls, IESS airspeed/altitude/vertical speed, Static Air Temperature (SAT) and Total Air Temperature (TAT)
137
ADS 1 is the default for and provides information to the _________. ADS 2 is the default for and provides information to the _________.
Captain
| First Officer
138
If the primary ADS fails, the Reversionary logic reverts the ADS source to which ADS
3
139
Green Dot represents
Drift down speed when the slats/flaps are retracted
| The ideal flap maneuvering speeds for Slat/Flap extension for the current aircraft weight.
140
In an electrical emergency configuration the IESS is powered by what?
RAT or the aircraft batteries if the RAT is not available
141
If the speed displayed on the airspeed/mach readout is magenta then the speed is being set by what?
FMS
142
Green Dot will temporarily be removed when what occurs
SLAT/FLAP transition
143
FPA represents what
Flight Path in reference to the horizon
144
Fuel is stored in ______and is connected by a ______
2 wings tanks
| crossfeed valve
145
Total fuel capacity and capacity per tank
28,880
| 14,440
146
Each fuel tank contains the following pumps
ejector fuel pump
AC electric pump
three scavenge ejector pumps
Right wing contains DC electric fuel pump
147
Fuel Low Level Warning
6170 lbs
148
Single Point Refueling/Defueling panel is located
Under right wing
149
What is the function of the DC fuel pump in the right tank
Provides pressure for APU start
Provides pressure for engine start when AC power is not available
Provides pressure for engine start when the AC Fuel pump is not available (i.e. pump on MEL)
150
How is the fuel cross feed operated during flight
set the xfeed to low 1 or low 2 with the AC pumps in AUTO.
151
When will EICAS show a FUEL IMBALANCE message
when the imbalance exceeds 800lbs
152
Can the fuel tanks be gravity refueled?
Yes, each tank is has a refuel port located on the top of each wing
153
What would be an alternate method for determining fuel quantity.
on the MFD Fuel Synoptic page
154
A fuel pump that fails would be indicated on the fuel synoptic page with a_____
gray circle with a green windmill beneath an amber cross
155
To prevent the possibility of a fuel leak through the fuel tank vents, DO NOT exceed _____KIAS when fuel tank quantity is greater than ______lbs
290
| 11,000
156
The E190 has how many hydraulic systems
3
157
How are the hydraulic system's parameters and indication monitored
MFD Hydraulic Synoptic Page
158
How many hydraulic pumps are there?
7
2 Engine Driven Pumps
4 Electric 1, 2, 3A, 3B
1 PTU
159
In flight with the selector set to AUTO, the hydraulic system logic activates the electric pump when?
EDP fails or engine failure
| when flaps are selected to any position greater than 0
160
How is the PTU driven
by a hydraulic motor installed in the #1 system which drives a pump in the #2 system which uses #2 qty
161
Function of the PTU and when is it used
assists the landing gear retraction and extension if engine 2 or #2 EDP fails
162
How is the hydraulic system 3 different than system 1 and 2
It utilizes 2 electric pumps
| backs up only the 3 primary flight controls
163
When will HYD pump B come on
In flight whenever the HYD 3 pump A fails with the selector in AUTO. When the selector is set to on.
164
What will provide hydraulic power to the flight controls during an electrical emergency
the system 3 accumulator until RAT is providing power to the HYD Pump 3A
165
Hydraulic System 3 Consists of
Elevator (right outboard)
Rudder (lower actuator)
Ailerons( Left and Right outboard)
166
Name some of the users of the HYD System 1
```
Elevator (left outboard)
Rudder (upper actuator)
Thrust Reverser (Engine 1)
Multi Function Spoilers ( 3 and 4 Left and Right)
Ground Spoilers (Left and Right panel 2)
***Outboard Brakes
***Emergency Parking Brakek
```
167
Hydraulic System 2 users include
```
Elevator (left and right inboard)
Ailerons (left and right inboard)
thrust reverser (engine 2)
Multi-Function Spoilers (left and right panel 5)
Ground Spoilers (left and right panel 1)
****NOSE WHEEL
****Inboard Brakes
****Landing Gear
****Emergency Brake
```
168
Which HYD Reservoir has greater capacity
number 2 due to landing gear being a major component
169
During a single engine taxi with engine 1 operating. Electric hydraulic pump 2 will automatically do what unless the parking brake is recycled
turn off
170
The ice and rain protection system provides anti-ice protection for ?
Engine cowls and slats outboard of engine nacelle. The TAIL is NOT protected.
171
Anti-Ice system parameters and indications can be found on the ____?
Anti-ice synoptic page
172
During an engine fire what indication do you have that the fire has gone out?
Engine fire warning on EICAS no longer displayed.
173
With the ICE PROTECTION Mode selector knob in the _____ position. The wing and engine anti-ice system will operate automatically according to system logic
AUTO
174
When will the wing anti-ice valves open if ALL is selected on the MCDU T/O Data Set Menu.
Speeds above 40 knots
175
When will the ice detectors activate the engine and wing anti-ice system
If ice is detected above 1700 AGL or 2 minutes after lift off
176
What is displayed when an icing condition has been detected.
a cyan ICE CONDITION message on EICAS
177
A RED light on the nose gear towing light indicates
Steering is not disengaged
parking brake is set
main brakes applied
178
A Green light on the nose gear towing lights indicate
steering disengaged
parking brake is not set
main brakes not applied
179
Where is the steering disengage switch actuated and where is it verified
Behind each control yoke there is a PB. Verified on the EICAS Steer Disconnect memo
180
Autobrake setting indication is located where
EICAS Page
181
How is the parking brake verified on
By the ON indication on the EMERG/PRKG BRAKE light
182
Nosewheel steering provides angles of ____ until ___kts and decreases to ___ at ___ knots
+- 76
40knots
+-7
100
183
IF two WOW sensors on the same landing gear fail what will be inhibited
gear retraction
184
Landing Gear Aural Warning cannot be silenced under what conditions
SLAT/FLAP lever in a landing position (5 or full)
OR
When the FLAP position is 1,2,3 or 4 AND
Radio altitude below 700ft AGL
TLA with 2 engines 38 degrees or below
TLA 57 degrees or below with a single engine
185
The landing and RTO modes of the autobrake system will disarm if what occurs
selector is set to OFF
pedal brakes are applied
brake control system failure is detected
either thrust level is advanced beyond idle during autobrake application
186
What does the Alternate Gear Extension Lever Do?
Relieves residual hydraulic pressure in the landing hear lines and opens all landing gear uplocks
187
What is the function of the DN Lock REL button (RED)
Mechanically bypasses the system protection logic.
188
In the event you have a dual radio altimeter failure. The LG WRN can be inhibited by pushing the LG WRN INHIB TRUE/FALSE
TRUE
189
Which HYD systems power the brakes
System 1 and 2
190
The Brake Control Module or BCM functions includes
Locked Wheel Protection
Antiskid Protection
Automatic wheel braking
touchdown protection
191
When is antiskid deactivated
at wheel speeds below 10 knots
192
During APU cool down period what services are available.
Electrical only, bleed is shutdown
193
The emergency brake has sufficient pressure to provide ___full brake applications
six
194
Autobrake modes include
Low, Medium, HI, RTO
195
The Free Wheel Steering Mode is used for
Ground handling, towing, failure of the normal steering system
196
Gear in transit on EICAS is indicated by____?
amber cross-hatched box on the respective landing gear.
197
IRS or Inertial Reference System computes what?
airplane position, ground speed, heading and altitude
198
How long do the IRSs take to align?
approximately 17 minutes
199
The main component of the Inertia Reference System is the Inertia Reference Unit. How many IRUs are there installed on the 190
2
200
During power up, automatic alignment is provided. What would accidentally inhibit this process.
aircraft movement
201
RAIM can be verified two ways.
Primarily by the dispatchers notation on the flight release.
Pred Raim function on the MCDU
202
The FMS determines the best navigational mode. Navigation Priority Modes in order of priority are:
VERY IMPORTANT
GPS
DME/DME
VOR/DME
IRS
203
Required Navigation Performance for FMS Navigation include
Enroute ENRT RNP ___?
Terminal TERM RNP ___?
APPROACH APPR RNP___?
2.0
1.0
.3
204
On the ground, the XPDR only replies to mode ____ interrogations
S
205
On Takeoff the FMS sends inputs to the PFD to show V2 then once reached it pitches for V2 + 10 until the vertical mode is changed.
TRUE/FALSE
TRUE
206
A _____ disc is located on the front left nose section and in the event of an overpressure within the Flight Crew Oxygen System it will_______?
Green
| Blow out
207
Pressing the TEST/RESET button with the crew oxy mask stowed will
test the oxy mask and activate the microphone and speaker.
208
Passenger Service Units supply oxygen for ______?
12 Minutes
209
What happens when the passenger mask doors are automatically or manually activated
An ON light illuminates on the PASSENGER OXYGEN panel and
| the FSTN BELTS and NO ELEC DEVICES sign automatically turn on.
210
What are the portable oxygen cylinders used for?
Flight attendants to assist passengers and for first aid purposes
211
The engine is controlled via dual channel ____
FADEC
212
The FADEC energizes _____ during ground engine starts
| And _____ during flight engine starts
one igniter
| both igniters
213
FADEC does not provide start protection for hot or hung starts and no light off protection during in flight engine starts.
TRUE or FALSE
TRUE
214
Uncommanded thrust reverser deployment does what to the thrust while in flight
Limits engine thrust to idle
215
Thrust reversers are ______ actuated
Hydraulically
216
What component of the engine controls requested and Max N1 and ATTCS
FADEC
217
FADEC provides engine start protections against____? Any also controls other limits including
Hung Start
Hot Start
No Light Off
Overspeed, Over temperature
218
ATTCS stands for what and does what?
Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System. Basically it uptrims the good engines output during takeoff, go around. It also provides a power boost during windshear events.
219
What are the indications of an in-flight auto relight
A WML icon is displayed next to the respective engine N2
220
IMPORTANT (ESPECIALLY ON HOT DAYS AND/OR Quick TURNS)
During engine ground starts, FADEC will not allow fuel flow if ITT is above _____.
120 degrees C
| The engine motors to quickly reduce the ITT below 120
221
ATTCS is selected ______ by default
ON
222
ATTCS commands RSV (Reserve Power) whenever it is armed, TLA at TOGA, and
N1 values on both engines Greater than 15% different
One Engine fails during Takeoff & Go Around
Windshear is detected
223
A derated thrust for takeoff (FLEX TO-1 or TO-2) will be shown where?
EICAS
224
TO-1 or TO-2 is used for what kind of takeoff
Normal takeoff
225
Go around mode is activated in flight whenever
The landing gear is down and toga is pressed
226
Final Approach idle is activated below 1200 feet AGL and
Landing Flaps and landing Gear Down
227
The START/STOP selector knob commands the FADEC to shut down the engine provided what else?
The associated thrust lever is in the IDLE position
228
EICAS has how many levels of alerts
```
4
Warning (RED)
Caution (AMBER
Advisory (CYAN)
Status (WHITE)
```
229
EICAS messages are presented in a chronological order according to their
priority
230
There are ____ aural warning priority levels
4
| Bell, Chime, Triple Chime, Voice Messages
231
What would trigger a configuration warning
```
No Takeoff Flaps
No Takeoff Brakes
No Takeoff Spoilers
No Takeoff Trim
Parking brake
```
232
The stall protection system provides a ________ as a warning to the flight crew of a possible impending stall
Stick Shaker
233
EPGWS receives its inputs from ____
GPS, IRS, Slats Flaps, ADS, FMS, Radar Altimeter
234
When a terrain warning/caution exists the map on the MFD wil automatically revert to what range?
10nm
235
Windshear detection system is activated between?
10 to 1500 ft RA
236
TCAS mode selection is selected through the _______?
MCDU RADIO Page
237
The GND PROX INHIB button is used for what function?
Inhibits the EGPWS avoiding unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered by the EPGWS database.
238
What chapter of the OM can supplemental normals be found
OM 1, Chapter 4
239
How can supplemental normals be conducted
Read and Do
Read then Do
by Memory
240
The EVACUATION Checklist is different in that crews conduct the checklist
Simultaneously.
241
PBE's are rated to last how long
15 minutes
242
If a normal checklist is lost where can you immediately obtain a new one.
An extra copy is located in the rear of the QRH or on MY 365 APP
243
Which threat level is the most severe?
Level 4
244
Are contact approaches allowed?
No
245
What must be stated by the F/O during an autoland prior to 1000 RA.
Autoland Green
246
Are autobrakes required for autolands? Normal landings?
Yes.
| It is recommended....so yes.
247
What aircraft approach category is the E190 normally operate in.
Category C 121-140kts
248
System resets can be found where
OM 1 Chapter 4.
249
What are three basic ways of contacting dispatch inflight
ACARS, Through a phone patch with local operations, ARINC
250
At what speed does the PM verify that HOLD is annunciate do on FMA
80 knots
251
On takeoff thrust HOLD is annunciate on the FMA at what airspeed?
60 Knots
252
With the T/O Data Set A/I Ref to ALL. What surfaces are protected
Left and Right Engine Cowl Inlets
| Outboard 3 slats ONLY (inboard slats are not protected by A/I)
253
IESS Takes how long to initialize
90 Seconds
254
MAU Stands for?
SPDA Stands for?
RICC/LICC/AICC EICC Stands for?
What powers the SPDA
Modular Avionics Unit
Secondary Power Distribution Assembly
Right/Left/Auxiliary/Emergency Integrated Control Center
The respected ICC powers the associated SPDA
255
There are two alignment modes for the IRS. What are they and when are they used
Stationary: When aligning the position on the ground (IRS Aligning can take up to 17 minutes
Align in Motion: While the aircraft is in flight and the IRS is realigned which can take 15-30 due to continuous motion and movement
256
If the IRU Fails, the display will revert to what data only
Attitude only. No position
257
What are two way of selecting the Weather Radar to on, while still on the ground?
BOTH pilots select FSBY (Force Standby) on their respective MAP on the MFD
A single pilot may override the protection while on the ground by clicking the FSBY 4 times.
258
Can an IDG be reselected once Disconnected
NO. Once disconnected, it is mechanically disabled and can only be reconnected by Maintenance.
259
What is the purpose of the inverter inside the electrical system. What does it power
Converts DC power from the batteries to AC. This is again only when the Batteries are the only source of power. Used to provide power to the igniters
260
Where are the Thermal CBs Located?
| Where are the virtual CBs located?
Left and Right CB panel
| Inside the MCDU
261
What powers the AC Bus 2 and the AC ESS under normal operations
IDG 2
262
If the brake is released with the GPU connected what will happen
EICAS GPU Connected
263
EPGWS on the MFD Map Displays Yellow. What does this mean? Displays Red?
```
Yellow = 60 Seconds from impact
Red= 30 Seconds from impact
```
264
There are 4 levels of automation. What is the highest level of automation. What is the lowest level.
The highest level of automation is level 4 where FMS commands Vertical and Lateral Guidance
The lowes is Level 1. No FD, No A/P, NO A/T = RAW DATA
265
The Oxygen PSI is checked by its color coding. Green indicates what? Cyan Indicates what?
O2 levels are adequate for 3 cockpit crew members
| O2 levels are adequate for 2 cockpit crew members
266
By selecting BARO/RA to RA. You are telling the computers to expect what kind of Approach
RA is used for CAT II/III Autoland operations only. CAT II the pilot would select the RA from the Jepp Plate and select the RA knob to the desired alititude (rounding up if nessisary 95 = 100. For CAT III operations a 50 Decision Height is entered. The Captain must see the airport environment or go around.
267
What piece of paperwork is received automatically four minutes after departure?
FPR - Flight Plan Review
268
What altitude is referenced by the 10,000 Ft call? MSL or AGL
AGL. So if field elevation is 560 ft MSL. The 10,000 foot call would be called at 10,560 ft.
269
At what speed does track annunciate on the FMA?
100 kts
270
The airspeed trend vector informs the pilot of the expected airspeed in ______second from present time.
10
271
The airspeed tape has two colors on the slow side of the scale. Amber and Red. What do they represent?
Amber is 1.13 VS
| Red is Stick Shaker (Stall is imminent)
272
Declutter of the EICAS occurs when? When is the EICAS fully restored.
After 30 seconds.
1)Full EICAS PB pressed
2)Flaps/Slats Out
3)System abnormality/limitation caution or warning
Autobrakes
273
APU Fire Light on the over head panel will illuminate under two conditions. What are they?
APU Fire is recognized AND the EMG STOP is pushed
OR
APU Fire is recognized AND you do nothing
274
On the ground the APU will auto shutdown after how many second after a APU fire is sensed
10
275
In flight will the APU auto shutdown?
No
276
On the ground will the cargo extinguisher automatically fire the second bottle after the first bottle is discharged
No. The second low rate bottle disperses agent over 60 minutes which is not needed on the ground
277
How might you arm and activate any cargo fire agent?
By pressing the associated cargo fire push button twice within 2 minutes
278
What two optional items can be accomplished after the flaps are at 0 and the after takeoff checklist is complete?
Climb 1
| VNAV selected
279
The BANK push button on the FGCS, when pressed, inhibits bank angles above _____degrees. Above ________ft this function is automatic.
17 degrees
| 25,000
280
When should 121.5 be monitored by the flightdeck crew
Anytime when com 2 is available regardless of altitude.
281
The DVDR test is completed by the Captain prior to the first flight of the day. During the test, he/she verifies what?
No EICAS Failure Messages
| Fwd/Aft CVR Fail
282
HDG Fail or ATT Fail on the PFD might indicate what?
IRS Failure
283
The Auto position of the IDG knob does what?
Automatic Operation due to system logic. Connects the IDG to the associated AC BUS when electrical source priority calls for its use. (IDG,APU,GPU, Opposite IDG)
284
Placing the IDG Knob to the OFF position does what?
Opens the contactor between the IDG and the associated AC Bus
285
The Auto position on the AC BUS TIES Knob does what? By placing the knob into the Open position does what?
Allows automatic operation of the electrical systems according to system logic. Thus placing the knob into the Open potion opens the contactor isolating the buss.
286
With the Batteries in the off position. Which busses are powered?
HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2
287
With the BATT 1 selector ON. What bus(ses) are powered?
DC ESS busses, AC standby bus, and hot battery busses
288
What busses are powered with the BATT 1 ON and BATT 2 placed in Auto
DC ESS buses and the AC Standby Bus
289
What does the AC Standby Bus Power
Engine Exciters
290
Under what conditions will the RAT automatically deploy
Whenever there there is a loss power to the AC Busses
291
It can take up to how long for the RAT to start producing power. During this time period what powers the AC Essential Bus
8 seconds. Batteries
292
When are the Batteries able to be charged
Anytime there is an AC power.
293
Batteries are capable powering the electrical system for approximately _______?
10 Minutes
294
What does the RAT Power (AC/DC)
AC ESS Bus and DC ESS Buses (Through the ESS TRU) charges the batteries
295
What BUS normally powers the AC ESS BUSS
AC BUS 2
296
What lights are available with BATT power only?
DOME light and EMERGENCY LIGHTS via their own dedicated ELPUs
297
How many hydraulic actuators are powered by HYD Sys 3?
4
298
Pulling the Fire Handle does what
Closes the associated bleed, hydraulic shutoff valves and shuts off the wing spar fuel valve.
299
Under what conditions would the APU Fire Extinguisher PB light illuminate
APU EMRG STOP PB pressed
| One minute after the Fire Alarm and no further action is taken
300
What precautions might be taken after any cargo agent has been used?
Use caution when opening cargo doors due to the fact halon has been used. Ground personnel need to know prior to opening if able.
301
If the windshield wipers are used on a dry surface, what protection is available?
They will stop and remain off until the wiper knob is placed in the off position.
302
What are the two major systems used by the #2 Hyd system
Landing Gear and Nose Wheel Steering
303
How can you taxi with the number 1 engine operating if the nose wheel steering is on the number 2 hydraulic system
With the number 2 Electric Hydraulic Pump in AUTO, and the EDP not operating (i.e Eng 2 not on), the electric pump will operate thus powering the number 2 system. UNLESS the Park Brake is set for more than 6 minutes. When this occurs the EHYD Pump 2 shuts off until the Park Brake is recycled.
304
What happens to the respective hydraulic system during an engine flameout?
The associated FADEC will send a signal to depressurize the associated hydraulic system to reduce the torque loads for help facilitate a windmill start
305
Pressing the DUMP PB does what
Turn Packs OFF, Recirculation fans off, depressurizes the cabin at 2,000 FPM up to 12,400.
306
What happens to the windshield heat with a single AC power source
Due to load shedding, on the ground windshield heat is turned off. In flight only, the left windshield heat is powered or if failed the right windshield.
307
The engine and wing ice protection remains activated until ____ minutes after the detector is no longer sensing an icing condition.
5 minutes
308
The Bleed PB will illuminate ______ in the event of a bleed leak.
Amber
309
Which is the only cargo compartment used to store live animals. Why is this
FWD. Because its ventilated
310
The FADEC places the packs in what position during engine start
OFF
311
In the AUTO position, when do the passenger masks deploy?
If the cabin pressure altitude is above 14,000ft.
312
The passenger O2 masks provide ______ minutes of o2 via a _______
12 Minutes chemical generator
313
The BANK PB does what? When is is automatically activated
selects max bank angle to 17degrees. Above 25,000 ft Bank angle is automatically limited to 17 degrees.
314
Cabin Altitude HI in conjunction with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever cabin altitude exceeds.
9,700 ft
315
What is the function of the Ground Proximity Terrain Override Inhibit PB
If an airport and/or runway (i.e. New runway construction) is not listed in current database. Pressing the PB will inhibit unwanted EPGWS warnings and Terrain Alerts.
316
What is the Ground PROX Flap Override PB used for?
Inhibits normal alerts for non standard flap settings due to QRH procedures needing flaps different than landing flap settings
317
There are two items to accomplish to extend the landing alternatively. What are they and describe what occurs.
Electrical override extension- bypasses the gear selector to electronically override the PSEM to lower the gear.
Alternate Gear Extension Handle- relieves all hydraulic pressure in the landing gear system and releases the up locks to allow for Gravity free fall.
318
Are speed brakes available in Direct Mode?
No
319
Which trim switch(s) are able to be controlled by the autopilot system
Stabilizer trim (pitch) only
320
The Landing Gear Warning PB when pressed does what? Why/when is this PB used
The landing gear aural logic uses the thrust
lever angle, flap setting and radio altimeter to determine if the airplane is in the landing
configuration.
If any of the landing gear are not down and locked, the aural warning LANDING GEAR
is annunciated and can not be silenced under certain Conditions
This PB is used when there is a dual radar altimeter failure.
321
The engine anti ice valve fails in what position during an electrical failure?
Fails open allowing continuous anti ice heat to the engine cowl.
322
How many actuators are energized by the #3 hydraulic system
4 actuators
Lower rudder
Aileron left and right
Right outboard elevator
323
PTU in automatic mode turns on when? What is its purpose?
Failure or EDP Failure. On landing the PTU will start when:
Flaps not at zero
Landing Gear NOT up and locked
EDP 1 operating and quantity in HYD Reservoir 2
Assists in gear retraction and extension provided an engine
324
What is powered when the batteries are off and it's a cold dark airplane. (Major Items)
Engine Fire Extinguishers. So if you pull fire handles and twist the bottles will blow. Engine fuel SOV and Hydraulic SOV
325
When in AUTO the fuel AC pump will run when?
Ejector fuel pump fails
Starting Engines
Cross feeding
326
When will PTU automatically operate?
Flaps out of 0 or landing gear not up and locked, number 1 EDP operating, HYD 2 reservoir above 12%.
327
In flight cargo smoke annunciation... Will the fire extinguishers activate automatically?
No, you must push the fire extinguisher discharge button to discharge the high rate fire ex. After one minute, if still indicating fire low rate will automatically discharge.
328
Will automatic fire extinguisher discharge take place after a cargo smoke indication?
No, it must always be manually fired to prevent possible accidental discharge while personnel are in compartment.
329
When will system 3B pump automatically operate?
When selected to auto and system 3A pump fails in flight.
330
Standby hydraulic pumps will operate on the ground with both engines running when?
Flaps out of 0 degrees, 50 kts wheel spinup, thrust lever takeoff
331
Selecting dump on pressurization controller while in MANUAL mode will cause what to happen?
Both recirc fans and packs are turned off. Rear outflow closes and forces the cabin to climb at 2,000 FPM until 12,400ft.
332
The pressurization abort mode is active when?
Airplane stops climbing
Cruise mode not activated
Pressure altitude less than 10,000 ft or
Airplane less than 5000 ft AFE
333
Engine Starter Limitations
1st and 2nd
3rd through 5th
90 Seconds On / 10 Seconds Off (GROUND ONLY)
120 Seconds ON/ 5 Minutes Off (IN Flight ONLY)
334
How is the last three thousand feet of an instrument approach runway lit?
Centerline lights alternating red and white from 3000 to 1000 then solid red , runway edge lights yellow last 2000 feet.
