Economics Ch1 Flashcards
(130 cards)
X and Y are complementary products. If the price of product Y increases, the immediate impact on product X is that its?
Quantity demanded will decrease.
This answer is correct. If two goods are complements, an increase in the price of one tends to decrease the quantity demanded of the other. The package of goods becomes more expensive.
All of the following are complementary goods except Margarine and butter. Cameras and rolls of film. DVD players and DVDs. Razors and razor blades.
This answer is correct. Complementary goods are used together. Margarine and butter are substitute goods.
Which of the following instruments of monetary policy is the most important means by which the money supply is controlled?
This answer is correct. Open market operations through bond sales and purchases are flexible (government securities can be purchased or sold in large or small amounts), cause prompt changes in bank reserves, and are more subtle than reserve ratio changes.
reely fluctuating exchange rates perform which of the following functions?
They automatically correct a lack of equilibrium in the balance of payments.
They make imports cheaper and exports more expensive.
They impose constraints on the domestic economy.
They eliminate the need for foreign currency hedging.
This answer is correct. Freely fluctuating exchange rates automatically correct a lack of equilibrium in the balance of payments by revaluing currencies.
Which of the following is correct regarding the consumer price index (CPI) for measuring the estimated decrease in a company’s buying power?
The CPI is measured only once every 10 years.
The products a company buys should differ from what a consumer buys.
The CPI measures what consumers will pay for items.
The CPI is skewed by foreign currency translations.
This answer is correct because CPI is measured as the price that urban consumers paid for a fixed basket of goods and services in relation to the price of the same goods and services purchased in some base period. It is therefore inappropriate for measuring what companies buy. The producer price index (PPI) is the measure used by companies.
What is the effect when a foreign competitor’s currency becomes weaker compared to the U.S. dollar?
The foreign company will have an advantage in the U.S. market.
The foreign company will be disadvantaged in the U.S. market.
The fluctuation in the foreign currency’s exchange rate has no effect on the U.S. company’s sales or cost of goods sold.
It is better for the U.S. company when the value of the U.S. dollar strengthens.
This answer is correct because when a country’s currency weakens, its products become cheaper for purchasers in another country.
Which of the following changes would create pressure for the Japanese yen to appreciate relative to the U.S. dollar?
An increase in incomes in Japan.
A change in U.S. tastes in favor of Japanese goods.
A decrease in U.S. incomes.
A change in Japanese tastes in favor of U.S. goods.
A change in U.S. tastes in favor of Japanese goods
Balance of payments. Balance of payments is used to refer to a system of accounts that catalogs the flow of goods between the residents of two countries. If country X is a net exporter of goods and therefore has a surplus balance of trade, countries purchasing the goods must use country X’s currency. This increases the demand of the currency and therefore its relative value.
Which of the following activities involves collecting data about all segments of the firm’s general environment to understand the effects of economic changes on the firm’s industry? Monitoring. Assessing. Forecasting. Scanning.
Close
Since firms must make strategic decisions that involve long-term commitments (e.g., investments in technology, plant, etc.), management must not only deal with the current environment, it must forecast the future. Effective management must analyze and forecast the general environment to identify opportunities and threats to the firm. In doing so, the following techniques are used:
a. Scanning—A study of all segments in the general environment. The objective is to predict the effects of the general environment on the firm’s industry. Management can use this information to modify its strategies and operating plans. Scanning of the general environment is critical to firms in volatile industries. Sources of information for scanning include trade publications, newspapers, business publications, public polls, government publications, etc.
b. Monitoring—A study of environmental changes identified by scanning to spot important trends. As an example, the trend in aging of the population in this country would definitely be important to firms that provide services to retired individuals. Effective monitoring involves identifying the firm’s major stakeholders (e.g., customers, investors, employees, etc.).
c. Forecasting—Developing probable projections of what might happen and its timing. As an example, management might attempt to forecast changes in personal disposable income or the timing of introduction of a major technological development.
d. Assessing—Determining changes in the firm’s strategy that are necessary as a result of the information obtained from scanning, monitoring, and forecasting. It is the process of evaluating the implications of changes in the general environment on the firm.
Division A currently makes a widget. The following is information related to the production of the widgets:
Production capacity 100,000 units per year
Current sales level 100,000 units per year
Selling price to outside customers $20 per unit
Variable costs per unit $12 per unit
Total fixed costs $600,000
Division B wishes to purchase 15,000 widgets from Division A for $16 per unit. Division B currently purchases widgets from the outside for $18 per unit. If Division A accepted the $16 internal price and Division B purchases the widgets from Division A, the company as a whole will be:
A.
$30,000 better off each period.
B.
$90,000 better off each period.
Correct C.
$30,000 worse off each period.
D.
$60,000 worse off each period.
In order for Division A to sell widgets to Division B, Division A would have to lose 15,000 units of sale to outside customers; therefore, $4 of contribution margin per unit will be lost on the 15,000 units sold internally ($4 × 15,000 units = $60,000). Division B would save $2 per widget ($2 × 15,000 units = $30,000). As a company, the company would be worse off ($30,000 savings - $60,000 lost CM).
Zoo Supply Company borrowed $100,000 from a local bank to purchase equipment. The annual interest rate on the 5-year loan was 10%. Over the 5-year period, Zoo paid $50,000 of interest. This interest was calculated as ________ interest.
A.
compound
B.
prepaid
Correct C.
simple
D.
tax-exempt
Annual interest on $100,000 at 10% is $10,000. Five years of payments at $10,000 per year is $50,000, the total amount paid to the bank by Zoo. Since no interest was paid on the interest in succeeding years, the total interest must have come from interest on principal.
This method of computing interest is called simple interest as contrasted with the compound interest method where interest is charged on interest.
Which of the following types of risk can be reduced by diversification?
Incorrect A.
High interest rates
B.
Inflation
C.
Labor strikes
D.
Recessions
Company risk is risk that is specifically associated with a particular firm due to its mix of products, new products, competition, patents, lawsuits, etc. Since different industries and countries experience different risks of labor strikes, diversification between industries and countries can reduce company risk.
The other answer choices are incorrect because interest rate rises, recession, and inflation affect all industries and countries in today’s interrelated world economies. These risks apply regardless of the extent that a company diversifies it operations.
The following schedule presents cost data for a firm:
Total Units Produced Total Cost -------------------- ---------- 10 400 20 600 30 900 40 1,200 50 2,000 Diseconomies of scale start between:
A.
10 and 20 units.
B.
20 and 30 units.
Incorrect C.
30 and 40 units.
D.
40 and 50 units.
Diseconomies of scale begin where the average total cost starts going up.
Total Units Produced Total Cost Average Total Cost
——————– ———- ——————
10 400 40
20 600 30
30 900 30
40 1,200 30
50 2,000 40
A company obtained a short-term bank loan of $250,000 at an annual interest rate of 6%. As a condition of the loan, the company is required to maintain a compensating balance of $50,000 in its checking account. The company’s checking account earns interest at an annual rate of 2%. Ordinarily, the company maintains a balance of $25,000 in its checking account for transaction purposes. What is the effective interest rate of the loan?
A.
6.00%
B.
6.44%
C.
6.66%
Incorrect D.
7.11%
If a firm borrows $250,000 but is required to maintain $50,000 as a minimum compensating balance, then the firm only has use of $200,000, but is paying 6% interest on the entire $250,000. To determine the effective interest rate, the interest in dollars ($250,000 × 6%, or $15,000) should be divided by the amount of the loan available to the borrower, the effective loan amount, which is only $200,000. However, there are two issues that further complicate this problem. This company ordinarily maintains a $25,000 balance in its checking account. Therefore, the company will only be out $25,000 ($50,000 - $25,000). This means the effective loan amount is $225,000 ($250,000 - $25,000), not $250,000. Also, the company earns checking account interest which partially offsets the loan interest. The applicable amount on which to determine interest is only the part that pertains to this borrowing, the additional $25,000. The interest on this is $500 (2% × $25,000). The effective interest dollar amount for this borrowing is $14,500 ($15,000 - $500). The effective interest rate is now calculated as:
$14,500 ÷ $225,000 = .0644, or 6.44% effective interest rate
An individual had been working for a firm that supplies parts to the automotive industry. In which of the following circumstances would be said that the individual was structurally unemployed?
A.
“I was laid off because there is a recession in the auto industry.”
B.
“I was laid off due to the model changeover at the auto plant.”
Correct C.
“I was laid off because my firm installed robotic technology that allowed them to reduce production costs.”
D.
“I was laid off because my company closed my plant.”
Structural unemployment is defined as unemployment due to workers not having the skills demanded by employers, and workers who cannot easily move to the location where jobs are available. In this case, it would not be feasible for the worker to work as fast and as long as the robotic technology.
The following information is available for economic activity for Year 1:
In Billions ----------- Financial transactions $60 Second-hand sales 50 Consumption by households 40 Investment by businesses 30 Government purchases of goods and services 20 Net exports 10 What amount is the gross domestic product for Year 1?
A.
$210 billion
B.
$160 billion
Correct C.
$100 billion
D.
$90 billion
GDP (gross domestic product) includes personal consumption, business investment, government expenditures, and the net difference between exports and imports. These items total $100 billion.
Financial transactions are not included because they include such items as investments in securities and repayments of loans, which do not represent a real good or service produced by the economy. Second-hand sales are excluded from GDP because those items were originally produced at an earlier time and were included in GDP then.
When there is equilibrium in a monopolistically competitive industry, a firm:
Incorrect A.
will operate efficiently at minimum average total cost.
B.
will not engage in advertising to promote product differentiation.
C.
will operate inefficiently with price greater than marginal revenue.
D.
will be able to make economic profits in the long run.
Given free entry and exit in a monopolistically competitive industry, firms only earn normal profits in the long-run. However, since the firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve with MR
Economists and economic policy makers are interested in the multiplier effect because the multiplier explains why:
Correct A.
a small change in investment can have a much larger impact on gross domestic product.
B.
consumption is always a multiple of savings.
C.
the money supply increases when deposits in the banking system increase.
D.
the velocity of money is greater than one.
A multiplier is the ratio of the change in national income (and subsequently national product) to the initial change in autonomous expenditure that brings it about. The central assumption in the multiplier effect is that an increase in autonomous expenditure, in this case investment expenditure, will result in a greater increase in national income (and subsequently national product). Policy setters can stimulate or depress an economy by changing autonomous expenditures, be it investment, government spending or exports.
Gross domestic product can be measured using ________ approach.
A.
an expenditure or outlay
Correct B.
an income or expenditure
C.
an income or revenue
D.
a revenue or sales
Calculation of gross domestic product can take either an income or expenditure approach. Done correctly, the same result should occur.
The income approach sums items such as wages, rental income, dividends, and other similar items. In contrast, the expenditure approach sums personal consumption, investment, net exports, and governmental acquisitions.
A key rationale or cause for the changing pattern of investment in agriculture by sovereign wealth funds would be:
A.
to create markets for the output of their farmers in the countries where they are investing by attaching conditions to the loans that require those nations to make specific commodity purchases.
B.
to ensure food security in the event that crop shortages would cause export bans that might curtail their ability to import crops.
Incorrect C.
to ensure getting the products at lower prices in the event that crop shortages caused price spikes in commodity markets.
D.
to support the countries in which they are investing to produce cash crops that can be used for domestic consumption to provide for a better level of food security for the emerging market economy in which the investment took place as part of United Nations efforts to improve world food security.
B.
to ensure food security in the event that crop shortages would cause export bans that might curtail their ability to import crops.
A key driver of SWF (sovereign wealth fund) investment in agriculture is to ensure food security for their country in the event worldwide food shortages would curtail the availability of foodstuffs in traditional agricultural markets. Also, many emerging market economies are not well-suited for adequate agricultural production as they lack sufficient arable land and have an inadequate water supply. Thus, they outsource food production by purchasing and/or leasing land and growing the crops elsewhere in the world and having the output exported to the homeland.
Traditional investment in agriculture involved investment to support shifting production from staple crops to those that could be exported to world agricultural markets to earn a profit for the investing country.
All of the following actions are tools of monetary policy that the Federal Reserve Bank uses to control the supply of money (M1), except:
A.
selling government securities.
B.
changing the reserve ratio.
C.
raising or lowering the discount rate.
Correct D.
printing money when the level of M1 appears low.
Since the money supply consists of currency plus different types of deposits, money can be created in several different ways. The Federal Reserve Bank uses all of the following actions to control the supply of money:
Selling government securities
Changing the reserve ratio
Raising or lowering the discount rate
The actual printing of currency is controlled by the U.S. Treasury. This is not a tool of monetary policy.
M1 is the most narrowly defined component of the money supply. It consists of coins and currency in the hands of the public and the checkable deposits held in commercial banks and thrift institutions.
Each of the following is an effect from opening markets to foreign investment, except:
A.
an increase in the correlation of emerging stock markets with world markets.
B.
a change in the volatility of emerging stock market returns.
C.
a decrease in local firms’ cost of capital.
Correct D.
a decrease in investment growth rates.
Answer A is incorrect because opening a market to foreign investment will result in that market being subject to the same market forces that affect other markets, increasing the correlation of the market with other markets.
Answer B is incorrect because opening a market for foreign investment will change prices in the emerging stock market, resulting in a change to its volatility.
Answer C is incorrect because the additional investment from foreign investors will increase investment in the market, decreasing the cost of capital for local firms.
Answer D is correct, because the additional investment from foreign investors will increase investment in the market, thus increasing, not decreasing, the investment growth rate.
The “true” rate of interest is the same as the ________ rate.
A.
tax
B.
stated
C.
nominal
Correct D.
effective
The effective interest is computed considering the principal amount, stated or nominal rate and the compounding period(s). It is, therefore, the equivalent of the true rate of interest on a loan.
Debt-servicing problems of less developed countries that primarily sell raw materials to the United States would be eased by:
A.
a recession in the United States with declines in interest rates.
Correct B.
an expanding United States economy with stable money supply growth.
C.
an expansion of the lending authority of the World Bank.
D.
a significant increase in the level of U.S. tariffs.
An expanding United States economy with stable money supply growth would maintain a steady demand for raw materials of less developed countries. The moneys earned from the sale of raw materials will aid in servicing the debt of less developed nations.
When implicit costs are greater than zero and economic profits in an industry equal zero:
Incorrect A.
resources will be unproductive if they remain in the industry.
B.
there will be no production in the short run.
C.
resources will move to other industries
D.
accounting profits will be greater than zero.
A firm that earns a normal profit (zero economic profit) has revenue equal to total cost (explicit plus implicit costs). Economic profit is generally lower (never higher) than accounting profit due to the fact that implicit costs are included in the calculation of in economic profits.