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GSSE > Embryology & Histopathology > Flashcards

Embryology & Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

20445 – S. The spinal cord possesses two fusiform enlargements BECAUSE R. at the limb plexuses there is a greatly increased mass of motor cells in the spinal cord

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Last PAGE: 536

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2
Q

23804 – The endoderm of the first pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the
1: superior parathyroid gland
2: epithelium of the external acoustic meatus
3: thymus
4: epithelium of the auditory (Eustachian) tube

A

Answers: FFFT
Last PAGE: 41

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3
Q

21298 – Derivatives of the first branchial arch (Meckel’s) cartilage include the
1: body of the mandible
2: spheno-mandibular ligament
3: stapes
4: incus

A

FTFT
Last PAGE: 39, 40, 460.
stapes - 2nd branchial arch

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4
Q

819 – The first pharyngeal pouch gives rise to
1: the auditory (pharyngo-tympanic) tube
2: part of the tympanic membrane
3: the middle ear
4: the mastoid antrum

A

Answer: TTTT
ANATOMY Page 78 of 215
Last 10th ed, Ch 1

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5
Q

15350 – In the branchial arches
1: the second arch artery remains as the stapedial artery
2: the fourth on the right is the pulmonary artery
3: the fifth arch artery disappears completely
4: the fifth arch may persist as the ligamentum arteriosum

A

TFTF
Refer to Last, 10th Ed, Ch 1, page 25-26.
2 - Fourth on the right subclavian artery, on the left arch of aorta
4 - 6th arch ligamentum arteriosum

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6
Q

23809 – Derivatives of the first branchial arch include the
1: mucous membrane of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
2: maxillary artery
3: temporalis muscle
4: intrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

TTTF
Last PAGE: 40

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7
Q

22884 – The second branchial arch gives rise to the
1: stylo-mandibular ligament
2: stylo-hyoid muscle
3: stapedial artery
4: anterior belly of the digastric muscle

A

Answers: FTTF
Last PAGE: 41
1st brachial arch - stylo-mandibular lig, anterior belly of digastric muscle
2nd brachial arch - posterior belly, stylohyoid m/lig, stapes, styloid, hyoid bone, stapedius m stapedial a, platysma

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8
Q

21303 – The third branchial arch gives rise to the
1: greater cornu of the hyoid bone
2: stylo-pharyngeus muscle
3: glossopharyngeal nerve
4: platysma muscle

A

Answers: TTTF
Last PAGE: 41
4- 2nd brachial arch

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9
Q

20949 – S. The thymus usually has a single lobe BECAUSE R. the thymus is derived from the central diverticulum of the third pharyngeal pouch

A

S is false and R is true
Last 10th ed. Page: 189
Thymus has 2 lobes

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10
Q

24149 – Derivatives of the sixth branchial arch artery include
1: the ductus arteriosus
2: the arch of the aorta
3: the right pulmonary artery
4: the right subclavian artery

A

Answers: TFTF
Last PAGE: 42, 43
2 - arch of aorta is 4th (on left)
3 - 6th derives to pulmonary trunk / arteries
4- subclavian artery is 4th (on right only)

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11
Q

22889 – Derivatives of the third pharyngeal arch include the
1: crico-thyroid muscle
2: superior laryngeal nerve
3: carotid sinus
4: thyroid gland

A

FFFF
Last (6). Updated Dec 03
1,2,4: 4th brachial arch
3: separate from arches

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12
Q

7706 – S: The right recurrent laryngeal nerve ‘loops’ under the subclavian artery because R: on the right side the fifth and the dorsal part of the sixth branchial arch arteries degenerate.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Last 10th ed, Ch 1

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13
Q

13529 – Derivatives of the left sixth pharyngeal arch include the
1: ductus arteriosus
2: left recurrent laryngeal nerve
3: left pulmonary artery
4: left superior laryngeal nerve

A

TTTF
The dorsal part of the sixth arch artery persists on the left side as the ductus arteriosus (A true), while the ventral part which is connected to the pulmonary trunk becomes the pulmonary artery (C true). The recurrent laryngeal nerve is the nerve of the sixth arch (B true), while the superior laryngeal nerve is the nerve of the fourth arch (D false).

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14
Q

20205 – S. Pain sensation in the heart is subserved by the sympathetic
system BECAUSE R. the heart is a modified blood vessel

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Last 10th ed. PAGE: 187

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15
Q

21593 – The septum transversum
1: has a cranial part which forms the pericardial membranes and part of the diaphragm
2: is invaded by cervical myotomes
3: picks up its innervation, the phrenic nerve - as it migrates past the 4th cervical segment
4: forms the ventral mesogastrium around the developing liver

A

TTFT
Last 10th ed. PAGE: 24; 181

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16
Q

21308 – The ductus arteriosus
1: contracts at birth on account of its sensitivity to reduced oxygen tension
2: is part of the fifth branchial arch arterial system
3: remains patent in the tetralogy of Fallot
4: has thick walls of smooth muscle

A

FFFT
1: At birth the ductus arteriosus is occluded by contraction of its muscular walls. The ductus is caused to contract into closure by the stimulus, acting locally, of a RAISED oxygen tension.
2 - 6th

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17
Q

13367, 20235 – S: The ductus arteriosus closes at birth by muscular contraction because R: oxygen tension in the blood perfusing the ductus arteriosus rises when the pulmonary circulation opens up

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Last’s Page 46.
At birth the ductus arteriosus is occluded by contraction of its muscular walls (S true). The ductus is caused to contract into closure by the stimulus, acting locally, of a raised oxygen tension (R true and is a valid explanation).

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18
Q

8500 – The ventral mesogastrium
1: has a free border containing the left umbilical vein
2: has a free border containing the common bile duct
3: forms the gastrosplenic ligament
4: forms the lesser omentum

A

Answers: TTFT
Last 10th ed, Ch 5
3 - dorsal mesogastrium forms the gastrosplenic ligament

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19
Q

7789 – The diaphragm is derived from
1: the transverse septum
2: the pleuroperitoneal membrane
3: body wall tissue
4: 3rd, 4th and 5th cervical myotomes

A

Answers: TTTT
Last 10th ed, Ch 4.

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20
Q

14591 – In its development, the diaphragm receives contributions from
1: the transverse septum
2: fourth cervical myotomes
3: pleuro-peritoneal membranes
4: transversus layer of body wall musculature

A

ttt

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21
Q

13524, 23469 – In the newborn
1: the spinal cord ends at the level of the first lumbar vertebra
2: the internal ear is rudimentary
3: the suprarenal glands are poorly developed
4: the appendix arises from the apex of a conical caecum

A

FFFT
Last PAGE: 47, 50.
The spinal cord extends to the third lumbar vertebra at birth but ends

22
Q

13534 – In the newborn
1: the fundus of the bladder lies above the symphysis pubis
2: skull vault, cancellous bone is not develop
3: the thymus lies in the superior and anterior mediastina
4: the left brachiocephalic vein crosses the trachea above the jugular notch

A

TTTT
The pelvic cavity is very small at birth and the fundus of the bladder lies above the symphysis pubis (A true). In the skull vault only compact bone is developed at birth; subsequently the interior of the bones becomes excavated into cancellous bone (the diplo?) (B true). The large thymus extends from the lower part of the neck through the superior into the anterior
mediastinum (C true). In the newborn the left brachiocephalic vein crosses the trachea so high in the superior mediastinum that it lies above the jugular notch into the neck (D true), a hazard for tracheostomy in a young child.

23
Q

22244 – In the newborn
1: the left brachio-cephalic (innominate) vein may cross the trachea in the neck
2: the thorax is nearly circular in cross-section
3: the normal liver is palpable below the costal margin
4: the foot is everted

A

TTTF
Last PAGE: 50

24
Q

23734 – In the newborn
1: the fundus of the bladder lies above the symphysis pubis
2: the suprarenal gland is nearly as large as the kidney
3: the thymus lies in the superior and anterior mediastina
4: the spinal cord ends at the level of the third lumbar vertebra

A

Answers: TTTT
Last PAGE: 50

25
Q

600, 19072 – The ductus venosus
A. joins the umbilical vein to the right branch of the portal vein
B. connects the left branch of the portal vein to inferior vena cava
C. runs in the falciform ligament
D. is discontinuous with the ligamentum teres
E. persists in most adults

A

B
Last (6) PAGE: 46. The right umbilical vein fails to develop in the fetus (A false). Blood is returned
from the placenta to the fetus via the (left) umbilical vein, which then runs in the ligamentum teres of the falciform ligament (C false) to the left portal vein. The ductus venosus, which is continuous with the ligamentum teres (D false), connects the left branch of the portal vein to the inferior vena cava (B true). It thus acts in the developing fetus as a short circuit for oxygenated blood from the placenta to the vena
cava and clots after birth (E false), as does the umbilical vein.

26
Q

21313 – The ductus venosus
1: carries blood from the left umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava
2: persists in the adult as the ligamentum teres
3: short-circuits the developing hepatic vasculature
4: runs between quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver

A

TFTF
Last PAGE: 46.

27
Q

19509 – Secondary cartilaginous joints
A. consist of two plates of fibrocartilage separated by a layer of hyaline cartilage
B. are immovable
C. are confined to the vertebral column
D. are found only in or near the median plane
E. occur between the epiphyses and diaphyses of long bones

A

D
Last 8th ed. PAGE: 11-12

28
Q

23984 – Fibrocartilage is found in the
1: intervertebral discs
2: medial end of the juvenile clavicle
3: symphysis pubis
4: cricoid cartilage

A

TTTF
Wheater, P.R. PAGE: 144, (Wheater) Last PAGE: 12, 112 (Last)

29
Q

19953 – Centres of ossification present before birth include
A. the greater trochanter of the femur
B. the patella
C. the navicular bone
D. the femoral head
E. the calcaneus

A

E
Last PAGE: 200, 210

30
Q

12458 – The ossification centre of the femoral head usually appears
A. at the eighth week of foetal life
B. by the sixth post-natal week
C. at about one year of age
D. at about two years of age
E. at about three years of age

A

C
In normal development, the secondary ossification centre in the femoral head appears around one year of age.

31
Q

15284 – S: Aberrant parathyroid glands may be found in the thorax because R: the inferior para-thyroid glands develop in close relation to the
developing thyroid gland

A

S is true and R is false
Refer to Last, 10th Ed, Ch 1, page 26; Ch 6, page 332

32
Q

7627, 13245 – The paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts
A. degenerate
B. are incorporated in the bladder
C. form the uterine tubes and uterus
D. form the paroophoron
E. form the epoophoron

A

C
Last 10th ed, Ch 5.
The cranial parts of the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts in the female persist as the uterine tubes, while their caudal parts fuse to form the uterus (C true), and upper part of the vagina. They degenerate in the male, not in the female (A false), except at the two ends, the upper end forming the appendix testis and lower contributing to the utriculus masculinus. The epophoron and paraophoron are remnants of the mesonephric tubules and duct in the female (D and E false).

33
Q

13251 – The best evidence for the neuroectodermal origin of the adrenal medulla is that
A. it has a direct arterial supply from the abdominal aorta
B. its venous drainage is into a persisting part of the sub-cardinal vein
C. it lies near the sympathetic trunk
D. its secretory cells are innervated by preganglionic nerve fibres
E. its cells show a well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum

A

Answer: D
The secretory cells of the adrenal medulla are functionally equivalent to postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system in that they are innervated by preganglionic nerve fibres. The reason for this is that the adrenal medullary cells share a common origin from neural crest ectoderm with the cell bodies of sympathetic ganglia (D true). Although the adrenal gland obtains a direct arterial supply from the aorta, this does not indicate its embryological origin from neurectoderm (A false). Embryological symmetry of the two glands is evident in their venous drainage into the inferior vena cava (on the right side) and the left renal vein (on the left side), both persisting segments of the embryonic subcardinal veins. However, this does not indicate its
neurectodermal origin (B false), the same symmetry being evident in the venous drainage of the gonads. Neither proximity to the sympathetic trunk, nor the presence of granular endoplasmic reticulum (characteristic of nerve and secretory cells) is proof of the embryological origin of the adrenal medulla (C and E false).

34
Q

16860 – Laminin in basement membranes has binding sites for
1: macrophage Fc receptors
2: epithelial cell membrane receptors
3: proteoglycan
4: collagen type IV

A

FTTT
Laminin is not a ligand for Fc receptors.

35
Q

22249 – The cell nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear envelope which
1: comprises two membranes separated by a space
2: is usually continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum
3: is interrupted by pores
4: is present throughout the cell cycle

A

TTTF
Wheater PAGE: 11, 30

36
Q

20961 – S. The Golgi apparatus is known to be a major site of protein synthesis BECAUSE R. the membranes of the apparatus are studded with ribosomes on their surfaces

A

both S and R and false
Wheater PAGE: 14
This is a description for rough ER

37
Q

19503 – Cytoplasmic basophilia in cells actively producing protein is mainly due to a high concentration of
A. hyaluronic acid
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi cisternae
D. RNA particles
E. DNA particles

A

D
Wheater PAGE: 23

38
Q

19054 – Meissner’s corpuscles are
A. pressor receptors
B. tactile receptors
C. pain receptors
D. thermal receptors
E. none of the above

A

B
Wheater PAGE: 115

39
Q

19060 – In the neurohypophysis, secretory granules accumulate in
A. pituicytes
B. nerve endings
C. intercellular spaces
D. capillary endothelium
E. the lumen of sinusoids

A

B
Wheater PAGE: 259

40
Q

21323 – Features of the development of the pancreas include
1: fusion of dorsal and ventral outgrowths from the gut
2: assymetrical growth of the duodenal wall bringing the openings of its two ducts in line with each other
3: drainage of part of the head of the pancreas by an accessory pancreatic duct
4: an interchange of drainage areas between the two ducts through anastamotic channels

A

TTTT
Last PAGE: 354

41
Q

19515 – The chief source of antibody is the
A. Kuppfer cell
B. macrophage
C. mast cell
D. plasma cell
E. eosinophil

A

D
Wheater PAGE: 163

42
Q

20055 – S. The secretory granules of many glandular cells are surrounded by smooth cytomembranes BECAUSE R. the secretory granules have originated from the Golgi apparatus

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Wheater PAGE: 14

43
Q

3849 – Mucus-secreting cells normally occur in the epithelium of
1: gastric pits
2: crypts of Lieberkuhn
3: pyloric glands
4: intra-pulmonary bronchi

A

TTTT
Wheater, P.R. PAGE: 184, 208, 209, 218

44
Q

24039 – Stratified squamous epithelium lines the
1: oesophagus
2: vocal cords
3: vagina
4: membranous urethra

A

TTTF
Wheater PAGE: 68, 178

45
Q

19839 – A feature that typifies the cell nucleus is
A. a single nuclear membrane
B. the absence of RNA
C. centrioles
D. pigment inclusions
E. a membrane in continuity with endoplasmic reticulum

A

E
Wheater PAGE: 10, 11

46
Q

20559 – S. The smallest contractile unit of striated muscle is the sarcomere BECAUSE R. each sarcomere carries a motor end plate

A

S is true and R is false
Wheater, P.R. PAGE: 84

47
Q

24174 – Endoplasmic reticulum
1: can be rough or smooth
2: is continuous with the plasma membrane of the cell
3: is continuous with the nuclear envelope
4: carries ribosomes on its luminal aspect

A

TFTF
Wheater, P.R. PAGE: 11, 12

48
Q

21103 – Tight junctions (zonulae occludentes) between epithelial cells of the intestine
1: restrict molecular movement across the epithelium
2: facilitate cell-to-cell adhesion
3: are found just below the luminal surface
4: facilitate cell-to-cell communication

A

TTTF
Wheater PAGE: 74

49
Q

21393 – In a peripheral nerve
1: the largest fibres are associated with proprioception
2: there are usually no non-myelinated fibres
3: Schwann cell nuclei are found outside the myelin sheath
4: the fibres associated with the sensation of pain are large

A

TFTF
Leeson & Leeson Clinical Science for Surgeons PAGE: 233, 227

50
Q
A

GSSE (36 decks)

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