Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Rizk Review > Endocrine > Flashcards

Endocrine Flashcards

(120 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Best test for excluding thyroid disease in asymptomatic patients?

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Next best test for patient who presents with NML free T4, mildly elevated TSH?

A

Measure anti-TPO Ig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient presents with NML free T4, mildly elevated TSH – diagnosis?

A

Subclinical hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 groups of patients with subclinical hypothyroidism who should be treated with low-dose levothyroxine?

A

Elderly, Pregnant, (+) anti-TPO Ig, Hypercholesterolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Change to levothyroxine dose during pregnancy?

A

Increase by 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which other group of females require increase in levothyroxine dose?

A

Females on estrogen replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why do females on estrogen therapy require higher doses of levothyroxine?

A

Induction of liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Change to thyroid hormones during pregnancy?

A

Increased thyroid binding globulin, Increased Total T4, NML free T4, NML TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 medications that interact with levothyroxine … inhibiting absorption?

A

Ferrous sulfate, cholestyramine, calcium carbonate, sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classic triad of symptoms seen in Graves Disease?

A

Goiter, Ophthalmopathy, Dermopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which symptom in Graves Disease is irreversible?

A

Ophthalmopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which test distinguishes Graves Disease from Thyroiditis?

A

Radioactive iodine uptake … early in its course, thyroiditis may mimic Graves Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Radioactive iodine uptake in thyroiditis?

A

NML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Radioactive iodine uptake in Graves Disease?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

35 yo female who is 4 months pregnant presents with fatigue, weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations; PE shows diffusely enlarged thyroid; Labs show low TSH, high free T4 – best treatment?

A

b blockers + PTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why should MMZ be avoided during pregnancy?

A

May cause aplasia cutis … (loss of fetal scalp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 indications for surgical resection in patient with Graves Disease?

A

Patients with cold nodules; Previous radioactive treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Alternate name for Hashimoto thyroiditis?

A

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Alternate name for Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis?

A

De Quervain thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Distinguishing feature of De Quervain thyroiditis?

A

Tender thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1st step of workup for thyroid nodule?

A

TSH levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2nd step of workup for thyroid nodule?

A

Radioactive scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Best treatment for hot thyroid nodule?

A

Radioactive iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Best treatment for cold thyroid nodule?

A

FNA … increased likelihood of CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Next step in management of multiple nodular goiter?
Nuclear medicine thyroid scan
26
Alternate name for parafollicular thyroid CA?
Medullary thyroid CA
27
Best lab for monitoring thyroid carcinoma recurrence?
Thyroglobulin
28
First 2 steps of treatment for thyroid carcinoma?
Thyroidectomy; Total body thyroid scan
29
Example of Primary Hypogonadism in males?
Klinefelter Syndrome
30
Etiology of Primary Hypogonadism in males?
Problem with testes
31
Change to testosterone in Klinefelter Syndrome?
Decreased
32
Change to LH in Klinefelter Syndrome?
Increased
33
Change to FSH in Klinefelter Syndrome?
Increased
34
Change to GnRH in Klinefelter Syndrome?
Increased
35
Example of congenital Tertiary Hypogonadism in males?
Kallman Syndrome
36
Etiology of Tertiary Hypogonadism in males?
Problem with hypothalamus
37
What is the best value to monitor for assessment of patients who are recovering from DKA?
Anion Gap
38
MOA of Rosiglitazone?
Binds to PPARg to decrease insulin resistance
39
MOA of Glipizide?
Stimulates pancreatic b cells to increase insulin output
40
MOA of Metformin?
Decreases hepatic production of glucose
41
MOA of Miglitol?
Inhibits intestinal enzymes that break down CHO
42
Etiology of hyperglycemia due to Somogyi effect?
Nocturnal hypoglycemia … Increased release of glucagon … Overcorrection causes hyperglycemia
43
Best treatment of Somogyi effect?
Decrease bedtime insulin dose
44
Etiology of hyperglycemia due to Dawn Phenomenon?
Early morning release of Growth Hormone
45
Best treatment of Dawn Phenomenon?
Increased bedtime basal dose
46
How can you differentiate Dawn Phenomenon from Somogyi effect?
Somogyi effect = hypoglycemia, then hyperglycemia; Dawn Phenomenon = only hyperglycemia
47
Etiology of DM gastroparesis?
Autonomic neuropathy
48
2 DOC for DM gastroparesis?
Metoclopramide, Erythromycin
49
Most common cause of outpatient hypercalcemia?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
50
Most common cause of inpatient hypercalcemia?
Cancer
51
Why does secondary hyperparathyroidism not cause hypercalcemia?
Increased PTH secretion in response to hypocalcemia in patients with CKD
52
Etiology of tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
Prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism
53
28 yo female presents with Ca2+ = 11, PTH = 40; FHX of hyperparathyroidism that does not improve after parathyroidectomy – diagnosis?
Benign familial hypercalcemia
54
Best test for confirmation of Benign familial hypercalcemia?
Urine calcium
55
Change to Urine calcium in setting of Benign familial hypercalcemia?
Decreased
56
Inheritance pattern of Benign familial hypercalcemia?
AD
57
Etiology of Benign familial hypercalcemia?
Altered setpoint of calcium-sending receptors in renal tubules + parathyroid glands
58
Change to PTH in setting of hypercalcemia of malignancy?
Decreased
59
4 steps in treatment of hypercalcemia of malignancy?
IV fluids, Loop diuretics, zolendronate, calcitonin
60
Condition associated with Albright Hereditary Osteodystrophy?
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
61
Etiology of pseudohypoparathyroidism?
Resistance to effects of PTH
62
DOC for Paget’s Disease?
Bisphosphonates
63
2 social exposures that raise risk for osteoporosis?
ETOH, smoking
64
1 event that raises risk for osteoporosis?
Previous fracture in elderly patients
65
Which RF is more associated with osteoporosis then BM < -2.5?
Fragility fracture
66
Which thyroid disorder is associated with bone disease?
Hyperthyroidism
67
3 medications that represent risk for osteoporosis?
Corticosteroids, phenytoin, heparin
68
DOC for patient with HTN and osteoporosis?
Thiazide diuretics
69
Which type of cancer indicates bisphosphonates?
Multiple myeloma
70
Effect of superior mass effect of pituitary tumor?
Bitemporal hemianopsia
71
Effect of inferior mass effect of pituitary tumor?
Diplopia
72
What accounts for diplopia in setting of pituitary tumor?
Compression of CN 3, CN 4, CN 5, CN 6
73
Effect of lateral mass effect of pituitary tumor?
CSF rhinorrhea
74
Most common cause of galactorrhea?
Prolactinoma
75
What accounts for elevated prolactin levels during pregnancy?
Estrogen inhibits dopamine release … when dopamine is high, prolactin is low
76
4 CNS medications that cause elevated prolactin levels?
Risperidone, Phenothiazine, Haloperidol, Metoclopramide
77
3 HTN medications that cause elevated prolactin levels?
Methyldopa, Reserpine, Verapamil
78
Pain medication that causes elevated prolactin levels?
Opiates
79
Effect of Opiates in males?
Impotence
80
2 DOC for treatment of prolactinoma?
Cabergoline, Bromocriptine
81
Is medical treatment or surgical resection more successful in aiding conception in female with prolactinoma?
Medical therapy
82
What is screening test for suspected acromegaly?
IGF-1 level
83
Diagnostic test for acromegaly?
Glucose load test
84
Result of (+) glucose load test in acromegaly?
GH level is not suppressed
85
Untreated acromegaly results in decreased life expectancy due to …
Colon CA … screen early with colonoscopy
86
Initial therapy for acromegaly?
Trans-sphenoidal resection
87
Indication for octreotide in acromegaly?
Post-operative residuals
88
___ refers to hemorrhagic infarct of pituitary adenoma
Pituitary apoplexy
89
RF for development of Pituitary apoplexy?
Warfarin use
90
Treatment of Pituitary apoplexy?
Trans-sphenoidal decompression
91
Epidemiology of lymphocytic hypophysitis?
Postpartum, Pregnancy
92
Etiology of lymphocytic hypophysitis?
Autoimmune
93
Clinical presentation of lymphocytic hypophysitis?
Refractory hypotension
94
How can you differentiate between Sheehan Syndrome vs. lymphocytic hypophysitis?
Sheehan Syndrome precipitated by prolonged bleeding
95
Treatment of central diabetes insipidus?
Desmopressin
96
Alternate DOC for central diabetes insipidus?
Chlorpropamide
97
MOA of Chlorpropamide in treatment of central diabetes insipidus?
Stimulates release of ADH
98
DOC for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
HCTZ
99
3 drugs responsible for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Chlorpropamide, Carbamazepine, Clofibrate
100
Best treatment for SAIDH?
Fluid restriction, Demeclocycline
101
AE of Demeclocycline?
Nephrogenic DI, Photosensitivity
102
DOC for refractory cases of SIADH?
Conivaptan
103
MOA of Conivaptan in treatment of SIADH?
ADH receptor antagonist
104
Optimal screening tool for diagnosing Cushing Syndrome?
24-hour urine for free cortisol level
105
Etiology of ACTH-dependent Cushing Syndrome?
Pituitary excess; Ectopic ACTH production
106
Etiology of ACTH-independent Cushing Syndrome?
Adrenal tumor; Exogenous steroid use
107
DOC for ACTH-dependent Cushing Syndrome?
Ketoconazole
108
Role of Ketoconazole in treatment of ACTH-dependent Cushing Syndrome?
Inhibits production of 11a hydroxylase … needed for production of cortisol in adrenal cortex
109
Need to evaluate for ___ in patients with HTN + unexplained hypokalemia
Primary hyperaldosteronism
110
Most common cause of Primary hyperaldosteronism?
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
111
Best treatment for Primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal hyperplasia?
Spironolactone
112
Best treatment for Primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma?
Adrenalectomy
113
Which type of CA can cause primary adrenal insufficiency?
Lymphoma, leukemia
114
Best treatment for primary adrenal insufficiency?
Glucocorticoids + mineralocorticoids
115
Most common cause of secondary adrenal insufficiency?
Rapid cessation of glucocorticoids
116
Best treatment for secondary adrenal insufficiency?
Glucocorticoids
117
Conditions associated with pheochromocytoma?
MEN 2A/2B, Von Hippel Lindau, Neurofibromatosis
118
DOC for pheochromocytoma prior to surgical excision?
Phenoxybenzamine
119
3 clinical signs of MEN1?
Parathyroid hyperplasia, Pituitary tumor, Pancreatic tumor
120
If both MEN2A and MEN2B have medullary thyroid CA + pheochromocytoma, what distinguishes the two?
MEN2A = Parathyroid hyperplasia, MEN2B = Marfanoid, Mucosal neuromas

Rizk Review (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions