Hematologic Malignancy Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

Best diagnostic test for Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Lymph node excisional biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stage I Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

One LN region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stage II Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

2+ LN regions on 1 side of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stage III Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

2+ LN regions on both sides of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Stage IV Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Extranodal sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Best treatment for Stage I + II Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

ABVD chemotherapy, then XRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Best treatment for Stage III + IV Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

ABVD chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Best management for female who undergoes CTX + XRT for Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Begin mammogram screening earlier … Due to increased risk of secondary breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Exposure that increases risk of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

CXT + XRT treatment of Hodgkin Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Virus associated with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

HTLV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Best treatment for low-grade Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Best treatment for high-grade Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

R-CHOP chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Plasma cell % that diagnoses Multiple Myeloma?

A

> 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

M protein spike that diagnoses Multiple Myeloma?

A

> 3 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Precursor to Multiple Myeloma?

A

MGUS … Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best treatment for MGUS?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Appearance of Multiple Myeloma on XR?

A

Lytic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Imaging study of choice for Multiple Myeloma?

A

XR (skeletal survey) … bone scan won’t show lytic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patient with Multiple Myeloma develops acute back pain with neurologic symptoms – diagnosis?

A

Cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Patient with Multiple Myeloma develops acute back pain with neurologic symptoms – diagnosis?

A

Start corticosteroids, Order MRI, XRT + neurosurgery consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical presentation of Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

Hyperviscosity Syndrome … blurry vision, HA, dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Best treatment for Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia?

A

Plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome chromosome with best prognosis?

A

5q deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Appearance of Pseudo-Pelger-Huet Syndrome on blood smear?

A

Bilobed nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Most common cause of death in AML?
Infection
26
DOC for patients with Myelodysplastic syndrome with 5q deletion?
Lenalidomide
27
4 myeloproliferative syndromes?
CML, Polycythemia vera, Idiopathic myelofibrosis, essential thrombocytopenia
28
Complication of 4 myeloproliferative syndromes?
AML
29
Change to LAP in 4 myeloproliferative syndromes?
Low … LAP = marker of cell maturity
30
Consequence of t(9;22) mutation in CML?
Increased tyrosine kinase activity
31
Change to EPO level in polycythemia vera?
Decreased
32
3 treatments of choice for polycythemia vera?
ASA, Phlebotomy, Hydroxyurea
33
Change to EPO level in secondary polycythemia?
Increased
34
2 aspects of clinical presentation of Idiopathic myelofibrosis?
Splenomegaly, anemia
35
Appearance of blood smear in Idiopathic myelofibrosis?
Tear-shaped RBCs
36
What accounts for Tear-shaped RBCs in Idiopathic myelofibrosis?
Bone marrow fibrosis
37
Clinical presentation of Essential Thrombosis?
Thrombosis + Hemorrhage
38
What accounts for Thrombosis in Essential Thrombosis?
Excessive platelet count
39
What accounts for Hemorrhage in Essential Thrombosis?
Defective platelet function
40
DOC for Essential Thrombosis?
Hydroxyurea
41
Lab finding seen in AML?
Pancytopenia
42
Genetic mutation responsible for AML?
t(15;17)
43
Best treatment for AML?
ATRA … (all trans retinoic acid)
44
Appearance of AML on blood smear?
Blasts with Auer rods
45
Complication of AML?
DIC
46
What accounts for development of DIC in AML?
Cytoplasmic granules in malignant cells release procoagulant
47
Composition of Auer rods in AML?
Lysosomes
48
Treatment that is protective against renal failure in tumor lysis syndrome?
Allopurinol
49
What accounts for appearance of mediastinal mass in ALL?
T cell invasion of thymus
50
CD___ indicates favorable prognosis in ALL?
CD10
51
Poor prognostic factor in ALL?
t(9;22) … unlike BCR-ABL being a good prognostic factor in CML
52
Best stain for blasts in ALL?
TdT
53
AE of vinblastine?
Bone marrow suppression
54
AE of vincristine?
Peripheral toxicity
55
DOC for treatment of CML?
Imatinib
56
MOA of Imatinib in treatment of CML?
Inhibition of tyrosine kinase
57
65 yo male presents for abnormal labs; HGB = 12, WBC = 66,000 with 96% small lymphocytes, PL = 120; PE shows no LAD, no splenomegaly – diagnosis
CLL
58
65 yo male presents for abnormal labs; HGB = 12, WBC = 66,000 with 96% small lymphocytes, PL = 120; PE shows no LAD, no splenomegaly – treatment of choice?
Observation
59
CD factors that are (+) in CLL?
CD5, CD23
60
Clinical presentation of CLL?
Typically asymptomatic … but also Widespread LN enlargement
61
AE of Fludarabine (used to treat CLL)?
Leukopenia
62
NML prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
TMP-SMX
63
If patient is allergic to sulfa, what is alternate prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
Dapsone
64
Which test needs to be performed prior to giving patient prophylactic dapsone?
G6PD test
65
2 aspects of clinical presentation for Hairy Cell Leukemia?
Pancytopenia, Splenomegaly
66
Specific staining for Hairy Cell Leukemia?
TRAP
67
DOC for treatment of Hairy Cell Leukemia?
2-CDA