Engines

Question 1

For takeoff, pilots will smoothly advance the power levers to the ____ position.

Answer 1

Rating.

Question 2

T or F: the aircraft has auto-throttle capabilities.

Answer 2

False.

Question 3

What is the shaft horsepower of each engine under normal takeoff conditions?

Answer 3

4580 SHP.

Question 4

What does the shaft horsepower increase to on the operating engine in the event of an engine failure after takeoff?

Answer 4

5071 SHP.

Question 5

T or F: propeller rotation is accomplished by the turning of power turbines.

Answer 5

True.

Question 6

Where is the accessory gearbox mounted on the engine?

Answer 6

On the high pressure compressor.

Question 7

T or F: the low pressure (axial) compressors are driven by their associated low pressure turbine.

Answer 7

True.

Question 8

Which of the following represents the speed of the low pressure axial compressor?

Answer 8

NL.

Question 9

Which of the following represents the speed of the high pressure centrifugal compressor?

Answer 9

NH.

Question 10

What powers the power turbines?

Answer 10

Exhaust gas.

Question 11

When on the ground and the propellers are in the ground range of beta, it is indicated by:

Answer 11

PROPELLER GROUND RANGE light.

Question 12

T or F: the propeller has a beta range used for reverse thrust on the ground.

Answer 12

True.

Question 13

What is the purpose of the engine intake bypass doors?

Answer 13

To prevent solid contaminant from entering the engine.

Question 14

When should the engine intake bypass doors be open on the ground?

Answer 14

On contaminated runways.

Question 15

When should the engine intake bypass doors be selected open?

Answer 15

In icing and on contaminated runways.

Question 16

T or F: the auxiliary fuel pump is powered by the accessory gearbox.

Answer 16

False.

Question 17

T or F: the engine driven fuel pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

Answer 17

True.

Question 18

T or F: the oil pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

Answer 18

True.

Question 19

T or F: the DC starter generator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

Answer 19

True.

Question 20

T or F: the permanent magnet alternator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

Answer 20

True.

Question 21

T or F: the FADEC is the primary computer for engine control.

Answer 21

True.

Question 22

What powers the FADEC once the engine is running?

Answer 22

Permanent magnet alternator (PMA).

Question 23

What provides an alternate power source for the FADEC during engine starting or if a PMA failure occurs?

Answer 23

The essential buses.

Question 24

When the condition levers are set to the 1020 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

Answer 24

Normal takeoff power (NTOP) or max takeoff power (MTOP).

Question 25

When the condition levers are set to the 900 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

Answer 25

Maximum climb (MCL).

Question 26

When the condition levers are set to the 850 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

Answer 26

Maximum cruise (MCR).

Question 27

What prop speed is automatically set when in the over-travel range?

Answer 27

1020 RPM.

Question 28

What must pilots do to enter the ground beta range?

Answer 28

Raise the gate release and move the lever aft to the DISC detent.

Question 29

T or F: when in MAX REV, propeller RPM is limited.

Answer 29

True.

Question 30

T or F: in order for uptrim to be armed, the power levers must be high and torque on both engines must be at least 50%.

Answer 30

True.

Question 31

When is uptrim triggered?

Answer 31

Torque on the failed engine falls below 25% OR NP falls below 80%.

Question 32

What does the FADEC limit torque to in reverse mode?

Answer 32

35%.

Question 33

What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the forward range?

Answer 33

106%.

Question 34

What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the over travel range?

Answer 34

135%.

Question 35

T or F: there is an independent engine overspeed protection built into the FADEC and it has the capability of cutting off fuel flow during NH overspeeds.

Answer 35

True.

Question 36

T or F: the FADEC fault classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.

Answer 36

True.

Question 37

T or F: the FADEC fault classes are warning, advisory, and normal.

Answer 37

False, they are critical, cautionary, and advisory.

Question 38

What does a green arc on the engine gauges mean?

Answer 38

Normal operating range.

Question 39

What does a yellow arc on the engine gauges mean?

Answer 39

Caution range.

Question 40

What does the red dash on the engine gauges mean?

Answer 40

Minimum or maximum value.

Question 41

What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge needle enters the cautionary range?

Answer 41

Yellow.

Question 42

What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge is in the green arc?

Answer 42

White.

Question 43

What happens if the data becomes invalid for either engine gauge?

Answer 43

Digital value changes to dashes, gauge changes to white arc, needle is removed.

Question 44

How is torque (TRQ) displayed on the electronic display?

Answer 44

As a percentage of max power.

Question 45

T or F: NH is shown in both analog and digital format on the engine display.

Answer 45

True.

Question 46

T or F: NL is shown in both analog and digital format on the engine display.

Answer 46

False. Only digital.

Question 47

T or F: the oil indications on the engine display show both oil temperature and oil pressure.

Answer 47

True.

Question 48

T or F: power lever AND condition lever positions are communicated to the FADEC to determine the appropriate fuel schedule to the engines.

Answer 48

True.

Question 49

T or F: the engine ignition system is controlled automatically by the FADEC.

Answer 49

True.

Question 50

At about what PSI will the #1 or #2 ENG OIL PRESS warning light illuminate?

Answer 50

Below 44 psi.

Question 51

T or F: the oil is cooled by engine intake air.

Answer 51

True.

Question 52

T or F: the engine oil system lubricates bearings, gearboxes, and the landing gear.

Answer 52

False, it does not lubricate the landing gear.

Question 53

T or F: each propeller is constant-speed and fully feathering and can be operated in the reverse thrust range.

Answer 53

True.

Question 54

What controls propeller pitch?

Answer 54

Pressurized oil from the engine oil system, controlled by the PCU.

Question 55

T or F: electrical heater elements are bonded to the inner leading edge of every other prop blade for ice protection?

Answer 55

False, they are on every blade.

Question 56

What turbine is the prop reduction gear box powered by?

Answer 56

Engine power turbine.

Question 57

T or F: if a PEC failure occurs, the PCU automatically defaults to controlling the minimum blade pitch in flight.

Answer 57

True.

Question 58

What do the counter weights do when oil pressure is lost in the propeller?

Answer 58

Ensure the blade assumes a safe, high pitch angle.

Question 59

T or F: the overspeed governor uses a flyweight design to limit propeller overspeed in the event of a malfunction.

Answer 59

True.

Question 60

Propeller RPM in flight depends on the position of what compenents?

Answer 60

Condition levers.

Question 61

The PCU uses ____ to control propeller blade angle.

Answer 61

Engine oil.

Question 62

T or F: propeller synchrophasing is a manual function.

Answer 62

False.

Question 63

T or F: a failed engine with a wind-milling propeller at low blade angle creates a large amount of drag.

Answer 63

True.

Question 64

Which of the following is not a method used for propeller feathering?

Answer 64

These are: auto feathering, manual feathering, alternate feathing.

Question 65

What must engine torque exceed for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?

Answer 65

50%.

Question 66

What must the power levers be above for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?

Answer 66

60 degrees.

Question 67

If torque on either engine falls below ____ torque for at least ____ seconds, the PEC commands the propeller to the feather position.

Answer 67

25% torque for at least 3 seconds.

Question 68

T or F: pilots can use the alternate feather function if the autofeather does not activate properly or is not selected.

Answer 68

True.

Question 69

When is manual feathering most commonly used?

Answer 69

Engine shutdown.

Question 70

When should engine intake bypass doors be opened?

Answer 70

In icing condition and/or on contaminated runways.

Question 71

FADEC FAIL warning light will ultimately result in which of the following?

Answer 71

Shutdown of the powerplant.

Question 72

In the forward range, propeller pitch ____.

Answer 72

Is governed to maintain a constant speed.

Question 73

If the aircraft is configured properly for an NTOP takeoff and an engine fails, uptrim automatically accomplishes what?

Answer 73

Increases the operating engine's rating from NTOP to MTOP.

Question 74

If an engine instrument digital display changes to dashes, what must be true?

Answer 74

The data is no longer valid.

Question 75

T or F: uptrim is dependent on arming the autofeather system.

Answer 75

False.

Question 76

Which of the following statements regarding the engine-driven fuel pump is most accurate?

Answer 76

It is powered by the engine accessory gearbox.

Question 77

With the ignition switch in NORM, the FADEC activates the ignition circuitry during which of the following?

Answer 77

Engine surge, engine flameout, and engine starts.

Question 78

What is engine oil cooled by?

Answer 78

An air cooler (intake air).

Question 79

How is propeller pitch controlled?

Answer 79

PEC signals the PCU to use engine oil to move a piston in the hub.

Question 80

Pushing the ALT FEATHER switchlight will feather the prop ____.

Answer 80

Only when the condition lever and the power levers are in the proper condition.

Question 81

T or F: in the ground beta range, the power levers directly control the propeller pitch angle.

Answer 81

True.