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Histology & Embryology > Epithelial Tissue Part 2, Cellular Pathology, CT (Exam 1) > Flashcards

Epithelial Tissue Part 2, Cellular Pathology, CT (Exam 1) Flashcards

1
Q

Where do glands develop from?

A

covering epithelia

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2
Q

____________ glands remain connected to the surface epithelia

A

Exocine

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3
Q

_____________ glands lose the connection to their original epithelium and therefore lack ducts

A

Endocrine

(endocrine glands synthesize, store, and secrete, BUT they do not have a free surface)

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4
Q

Endocrine glands attract blood vessels to the surface. Capillaries are the smallest vessels and are the exchange vessels. This results in the hormones/chemical messangers going on a systemic trip through the body. What is the attraction of blood vessels called?

A

angiogenesis

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5
Q

What are the 2 big categories from structural classes of exocrine glands?

A

1) simple glands (ducts do not branch)
2) compound glands (ducts from several secretory units converge into larger ducts)

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6
Q

What are the 5 types of simple exocrine glands?

A

1) simple tubular
2) branched tubular
3) coiled tubular
4) acinar (or alveolar)
5) branched acinar

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7
Q

What are the 3 types of compound exocrine glands?

A

1) tubular
2) acinar (alveolar)
3) tubuloacinar

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8
Q

What are the 2 types of glandular epithelia?

A

endocrine glands and exocrine glands!

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9
Q

Endocrine glands secrete/release hormones into the blood, which is systemic and causes wide spread effects into the ______________. This is because endocrine glands have no ducts.

A

interstitial fluid

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10
Q

Exocrine glands produce secretions onto epithelial surfaces through ducts. The secretions are released ___________ onto a surface

A

locally

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11
Q

What are the 3 main mechanisms of how cells release contents onto surface for exocrine glands?

A

1) merocrine
2) holocrine
3) apocrine

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12
Q

Merocrine secretion releases products, usually containing proteins by the means of ___________ at the apical end of the secretory cells

A

exocytosis

(release contents w/o a membrane)

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13
Q

Are most exocrine glands merocrine, holocrine, or apocrine glands?

A

most are merocrine glands!

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14
Q

Exocrine glands with merocrine secretion can be further categorized as either _________ or _________

A

serous (water contents), mucous (opaque contents of solids, proteins, lipids, carbs, etc)

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15
Q

Holocrine secretion is produced by the __________________ of the secretory cells themselves as they complete their terminal differentiation, which involves becoming fluid with product. Sebaceous (oil) glands of hair follicles are the best example of holocrine glands

A

disintegration

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16
Q

Apocrine secretion involves loss of ___________________________________, usually containing one ore more lipid droplets. Products accumulates at the cells apical ends, portions of which are then pinched off to release the product surrounded by a small amount of cytoplasm and cell membrane.

A

membrane enclosed apical cytoplasm

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17
Q

What 2 types of secretion are both seen in mammary glands?

A

apocrine and merocrine secretion

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18
Q

Where is apocrine secretion usually found?

A

mammary glands, axillary region, groin region

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19
Q

What is pathology?

A

study of disease

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20
Q

What are the 4 adaptations we went over in class for cells?

A

-hyperplasia
-hypertrophy
-atrophy
-metaplasia

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21
Q

Changes to a cell can be either physiologic or pathologic. What is the difference?

A

physiologic= cells will adapt to stay alive (functional change)

pathologic= lead to disease state (disease causing change)

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22
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

increase in the number of cells

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23
Q

What is physiologic hyperplasia?

A

increase in the number of cells

occurs due to a normal/functional stressor/demand

ex: increase in the size of breasts due to pregnancy or increase in thickness of endometrium during menstrual cycle

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24
Q

What is pathologic hyperplasia?

A

increase in the number of cells

occurs due to abnormal stressor

ex: growth of adrenal glands due to production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) by a pituitary adenoma, or proliferation of endometrium due to prolonged estrogen stimulus

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25
Q

Only cells that can divide will undergo hyperplasia, therefore, hyperplasia of the ____________ in the heart and neurons in the brain does not occur

A

myocytes

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26
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

increase in the size of a cell

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27
Q

What is physiologic hypertrophy?

A

increase in the size of a cell

occurs due to normal stressor

ex: enlargement of skeletal muscle with exercise (weight training)

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28
Q

What is pathologic hypertrophy?

A

increase in the size of a cell

occurs due to an abnormal stressor

ex: increase in the size of the heart due to aortic stenosis. Aortic stenosis is due to a change in the aortic valve, which obstructs the orifice, resulting in the left ventricle working harder to pump blood into the aorta (ventricular hypertrophy will occur and cause walls to thicken to pump more)

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29
Q

What is atrophy?

A

decrease in the size of a cell that has at one time been of normal size

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30
Q

What is physiologic atrophy?

A

decrease in the size of a cell that has at one time been of normal size

occurs due to normal stressor

ex: decrease in the size of the uterus after pregnancy

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31
Q

What is pathologic atrophy?

A

decrease in the size of a cell that has at one time been of normal size

occurs due to an abnormal stressor

atrophy is due to the loss of stimulus to the organ such as loss of blood supply or nerve innervation, loss of endocrine stimulus, disuse, mechanical compression, decreased workload, aging, or starvation

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32
Q

Atrophy occurs in a once normally developed organ, If the organ was never a normal size because it did not develop properly, the condition is called….

A

hypoplasia

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33
Q

Is there a physiologic reason for metaplasia?

A

no, it is only pathologic!!!

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34
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

change of epithelium at a site, or location, from one type of epithelium to another type

the epithelium is normal in appearance but is in an abnormal location

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35
Q

In metaplasia, the epithelium normally present at a site cannot handle the new environment so it converts it to a type of epithelium that can adapt. What are the 2 examples we talked about in class?

A

1) barrett esophagus is due to reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus, which causes the epithelium type to convert from stratified squamous to simple columnar or glandular (this is almost always a precursor for stomach cancer)

2) squamous metaplasia in the lungs is due to exposure of respiratory epithelium to toxins in cigarettes or other smoke (lungs are simple squamous but can change into simple cuboidal and eventually stratified)

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36
Q

What is cell injury?

A

when cells cannot adapt to their new environment

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37
Q

What are some causes of cell injury?

A

-hypoxia (decreased oxygen)
-ischemia (decreased blood flow)
-physical and chemical agents
-trauma
-infectious agents
-radiation
-toxins
-metabolic abnormalities (genetic or acquired)
-immune dysfunction (autoimmune)
-aging
-nutritional imbalances

note: you do not need to memorize all of these, the first 2 are most important

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38
Q

What are the 2 most common sources of cellular injury?

A

Hypoxia and ischemia

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39
Q

Is hypoxia or ischemia more damaging?

A

ischemia

ischemia is more damaging bc it involves hypoxia PLUS a lack of other nutrients and an accumulation of toxic cellular metabolites

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40
Q

In general, decreased oxygen results in decreased production of….

A

ATP

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41
Q

What is normally required by the Na+/K+ pump and Ca+2 pump? What happens when levels decrease?

A

ATP

When ATP levels decrease, these pumps fail and sodium along with water enters the cell, causing swelling

cells switch to anaerobic respiration to produce ATP, which results in accumulation of lactic acid (this decreases the cellular pH)

decreased pH causes disaggregation of ribosomes from ER and can cause the enzyme to denature

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42
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

programmed cell death

this is where the cellular process ends at the nucleus and results in a clean self destruction

when apoptosis is happening, the nucleus will be condensed and fragmented w/ no inflammatory reaction will be elicited as long as the cell undergoes the programmed cell death

examples:
-during growth and development, some cells serve a function in the growth phase but need to be removed after their purpose is fulfilled
-when DNA sustains irreparable damage such as after low dose radiation exposure, the cell must be destroyed so that mutations that have been developed will not be propagated. In this manner, apoptosis serves as a safety step by removing damaged cells from the body

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43
Q

There are multiple pathways by which apoptosis is initiated. What are the 2 pathways we talked about in class?

A

extracellular and intracellular pathways

both share similar endpoints, culminating w/ the use of caspases and prevention of inflammatory reactions

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44
Q

Necrosis is a term used to describe uncontrolled death of cells due to one of various causes of cellular injury. Does necrosis have a local or systemic effect?

A

starts off locally and can lead into systemic if not treated properly

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45
Q

What are the 2 main types of necrosis?

A

1) coagulative necrosis
2) liquefactive necrosis

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46
Q

Is this coagulative or liquefactive necrosis?

protein denaturation is more prominent than enzymatic breakdown

A

coagulative necrosis

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47
Q

Is this coagulative or liquefactive necrosis?

occurs in situations in which enzymatic breakdown is more prominent than protein denaturation or in organs that lack a substantial protein rich matrix (lipid rich organs such as the brain)

A

liquefactive necrosis

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48
Q

Substances can accumulate in cells as a result of damage to the cell, or they can accumulate in the cells as the result of an ____________ abnormality in metabolic functions

A

intrinsic

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49
Q

Substances that commonly accumulate in cells are….

A

-lipofuscin (wear and tear pigment)
-calcium
-protein
-iron
-fat
-cholesterol
-glycogen
-pigments

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50
Q

What tissue is the most widespread throughout the body?

A

connective tissue

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51
Q

What tissue connects the epithelium to the rest of the body (basal lamina)?

A

connective tissue

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52
Q

What tissue provides structure with bones?

A

connective tissue

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53
Q

What tissue stores energy through fat (adipose tissue)?

A

connective tissue

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54
Q

What tissue transports materials through blood?

A

connective tissues

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55
Q

What tissue has no contact with the outside environment (during homeostasis)?

A

connective tissue

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56
Q

What are the 3 rules/characteristics of connective tissue?

A

1) specialized cells (named cells)
2) solid extracellular protein fibers (between the cells, no cell-cell contact)
3) fluid extracellular ground substance

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57
Q

What makes up the matrix in connective tissue?

A

protein fibers and ground substance (extracellular components)

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58
Q

What is the major constituent of connective tissue?

A

the extracellular matrix

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59
Q

The matrix in connective tissue consists of different combinations of protein fibers (collagen and elastic fibers) and ground substance. Ground substance is a complex of anionic, hydrophilic proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), and multi-adhesive glycoproteins (__________)

A

laminin

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60
Q

What determines specialized function in connective tissue?

A

the matrix

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61
Q

What are the 3 types/classifications of connective tissue?

A

1) connective tissue proper (connect and protect)
2) fluid connective tissues (transport)
3) supportive/structural connective tissues (structural strength)

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62
Q

Which connective tissue type are the fibers very prominent and can be seen in pictures/on microscope as lines?

A

connective tissue proper

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63
Q

What are the 2 subcategories of connective tissue proper?

A

loose CT and dense CT

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64
Q

What CT type has more ground substance and less fibers? For example, fat (adipose tissue)

A

loose CT proper

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65
Q

What CT type has more fibers and less ground substance? For example, tendons (connect m. to b.)

A

jam-packed fibers= dense CT proper

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66
Q

What are the 9 cells types within CT?

A

1) fibroblasts
2) fibrocytes
3) macrophages
4) adipocytes
5) mesenchymal cells
6) melanocytes
7) mast cells
8) lymphocytes
9) microphages

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67
Q

What cells are found in CT proper?

A

-fibroblasts
-fibrocytes
-macrophages
-adipocytes
-mesenchymal cells
-melanocytes
-mast cells
-lymphocytes
-microphages

(all 9 of the cells types in CT!)

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68
Q

What is the most abundant cell type found in all connective tissue proper?

A

fibroblasts

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69
Q

What cells secrete proteins and hyaluronan (cellular cement)?

A

fibroblasts

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70
Q

Fibroblasts are young, active cells that differentiate into….

A

fibrocytes

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71
Q

Fibroblasts synthesize and secrete proteins and hyaluronan (cellular cement) from the surface. What is being made here?

A

the matrix!

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72
Q

What is the second most abundant cell type found in all connective tissue proper?

A

fibrocytes

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73
Q

What cells maintain the matrix fibers of connective tissue proper?

A

fibrocytes

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74
Q

Which cells are phagocytic?

A

macrophages

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75
Q

Macrophages are large, amoeba-like cells of the immune system that eat pathogens and destroy cells. What are fixed macrophages? What are free macrophages?

A

fixed macrophages= stay in the tissue

free macrophages- migrate

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76
Q

What do adipocytes store in each cell?

A

a single large fat (lipid) droplet

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77
Q

Stem cells produce 2 cells. For what?

A

1 cell to differentiate, and the other for self-renewal

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78
Q

Stem cells are capable of _____________

A

self renewal

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79
Q

What are the stem cells of CT?

A

mesenchymal cells

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80
Q

Mesenchymal cells are stem cells that respond to ____________ or ____________

A

injury, infection

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81
Q

Mesenchymal cells differentiate into what cells?

A

fibroblasts or macrophages (usually)

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82
Q

What cells synthesize and store the brown pigment melanin?

A

melanocytes

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83
Q

Where is melanin found in the body?

A

the epidermis and in the iris of eyes

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84
Q

What cells stimulate inflammation after injury or infection by releasing histamine and heparin (leading to systemic effects)?

A

mast cells (they travel in blood)

note: basophils are leukocytes (WBCs) that also contain histamine and heparin but these are not found in CT

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85
Q

What cells are specialized immune cells in the lymphoid/lymphatic system?

A

lymphocytes

for example, lymphocytes may develop into plasma cells (plasmocytes) that produce antibodies

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86
Q

Microphages are smaller than macrophages but are more specific. They are phagocytic blood cells that respond to signals from who?

A

macrophages and mast cells

for example, neutrophils and eosinophils are microphages

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87
Q

What fibers are the most common protein fibers in CT proper?

A

collagen fibers

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88
Q

Which fibers are long, straight, and unbranched protein molecules?

A

collagen fibers (they’re also packed tightly)

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89
Q

Which fibers are very strong and flexible?

A

collagen fibers

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90
Q

Which fibers resist force in one direction?

A

collagen fibers

91
Q

Collagen synthesis occurs in many cell types but is a speciality of…..

A

fibroblasts

92
Q

A family of ____ collagens exists in vertebrates, numbered in the order they were identified

A

28

93
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the human body, representing 30% of its dry weight?

A

collagen

94
Q

T/F: because there are so many steps in collagen biosynthesis, there are many points at which the process can be interrupted or changed by defective enzymes or by disease processes

A

true!

95
Q

What fibers are a network (mesh-like, or spider web like) of interwoven thin fibers (stroma)?

A

reticular fibers

96
Q

What fibers are supportive for cells, strong and flexible, and resist force in many directions?

A

reticular fibers

97
Q

What fibers stabilize functional cells (parenchyma) and structures?

A

reticular fibers

98
Q

What fibers contain 10% carbohydrates, often silver-stained and appear black?

A

reticular fibers

99
Q

Fibroblasts specialized for reticular fiber production in hematopoietic and lymphoid organs are often called….

A

reticular cells (fibroblasts that make reticular fibers)

100
Q

What fibers are thinner than type I collagen fibers, form sparse networks interspersed with collagen bundles in many organs?

A

elastic fibers

101
Q

Elastic fibers contain elastin and…

A

fibrillin

102
Q

What fibers are branched and wavy?

A

elastic fibers

103
Q

What fibers have rubber-like properties that allow tissues containing these fibers to be stretched or distended?

A

elastic fibers

104
Q

Elastic fibers contain elastin and fibrillin. Fibrillins comprise a family of proteins involved in making the scaffolding necessary for the deposition of __________. Mutations in the fibrillin genes result in Marfan syndrome, a disease characterized by a lack of resistance in tissues rich in elastic fibers

A

elastin

105
Q

Ground substance of the ECM is a hydrated (large water composition), transparent, and complex mixture of 3 major kinds of macromolecules. What are they?

A

1) glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
2) proteoglycans
3) multi-adhesive glycoproteins

106
Q

Ground substance fills the space between cells and fibers in ___________ tissue

A

connective

107
Q

Ground substance allows diffusion of….

A

small molecules

108
Q

Ground substance is viscous and acts as a lubricant/barrier to the penetration of…

A

invaders (pathogens)

109
Q

Edema is the excessive accumulation of ________________ in CT. This water comes from blood, passing through the capillary walls that become more permeable during inflammation and normally produces at least slight swelling

A

interstitial fluid

110
Q

What are the packing materials of the body?

A

loose CT

111
Q

What are the 3 types of loose CT (adults only)?

A

1) areolar
2) adipose
3) reticular

112
Q

CT proper is broadly classified as loose or dense, that refer to the amount of ___________ present

A

collagen

113
Q

Loose CT is common, forming a layer beneath the epithelial lining of many organs and filling the spaces between fibers of….

A

muscle and nerve

114
Q

What type of loose CT proper fills spaces and supports epithelia?

A

areolar

115
Q

What type of loose CT proper typically contains cells, fibers, and ground substance in roughly equal parts. The most numerous cells are fibroblasts (these cells make the matrix)?

A

areolar

116
Q

What type of loose CT proper has collagen fibers that predominate, but elastic and reticular fibers are all present (has 3 kinds of fiber!)

A

areolar

117
Q

What type of loose CT proper is flexible but not very resistant to stress?

A

areolar

118
Q

What tissue is this?

A

loose CT proper- areolar

119
Q

Which loose CT proper type is the least specialized?

A

areolar

120
Q

Which loose CT proper type has an open framework and viscous (flowy/thick) ground substance?

A

areolar

121
Q

Which loose CT proper type has some elastic fibers and holds blood vessels and capillary beds (under the skin at the subcutaneous layer)?

A

areolar

122
Q

What is the full name for reticular tissue?

A

loose CT proper- reticular tissue

123
Q

In reticular tissue, you can only clearly see….

A

reticular fibers

124
Q

Reticular tissue is characterized by abundant fibers of ___________________ forming a delicate network that supports various types of cells

A

type III collagen

125
Q

Reticular tissue is characterized by abundant fibers of type III collagen forming a delicate network that supports various types of cells. The collagen is also known as ____________ and is produced by modified fibroblasts often called reticular cells

A

reticulin

126
Q

What CT proper type is a complex- 3D network of interstitial fluid and lymph can pass through (the supportive fibers are called stroma)?

A

reticular tissues

127
Q

What are the reticular organs?

A

-spleen
-liver
-lymph nodes
-bone marrow

128
Q

Adipose tissue contains many…..

A

adipocytes

129
Q

What are the 2 types of adipose tissue?

A

white and brown fat

130
Q

What type of fat is most common?

A

white fat

131
Q

What type of fat stores fat, absorbs shocks, and slows heat loss (insulation)?

A

white fat

132
Q

What type of fat is more vascularized?

A

brown fat

133
Q

What type of fat has adipocytes with lots of mitochondria for metabolism?

A

brown fat

134
Q

What type of fat do infants/kids have more of? Does this change when they get older?

A

infants/kids have more brown fat and then as they age it gets converted to white fat

135
Q

What type of fat is stimulated by the nervous system to break down fat and release energy? The energy is absorbed from surrounding tissues

A

brown fat

136
Q

Adipocytes are active cells metabolically, responding to both _____________ and ______________ stimuli

A

nervous, hormonal (endocrine)

(when adipocytes are stimulated by nerves or various hormones, stored lipids are mobilized and cells release fatty acids and glycerol)

137
Q

Tissues rich in fat conducts heat ________ and provides thermal insulation for the body

A

poorly

138
Q

Do adipocytes divide in adults?

A

no, they expand to store fat and shrink as fats are released

mesenchymal cells divide and differentiate to produce more fat cells when more storage is needed

139
Q

What are the 3 types of dense CT proper?

A

1) dense regular CT
2) dense irregular CT
3) elastic CT

140
Q

What dense CT proper type has bundles of parallel type I collagen tightly packed?

A

dense regular CT proper

141
Q

Which dense CT proper type provides great strength and little stretch in binding together components of the musculoskeletal system?

A

dense regular CT proper

142
Q

What do tendons attach?

A

muscles to bones

143
Q

What do ligaments attach?

A

bone to bone (stabilize organs)

144
Q

What is aponeuroses?

A

attach tendon sheaths to large, flat muscles

145
Q

What dense CT proper type is filled with randomly (messy) distributed bundles of type I collagen, with some elastic fibers?

A

dense irregular CT proper

146
Q

Which dense CT proper type provides resistance to tearing and stress from all directions as well as some elasticity?

A

dense irregular CT proper

147
Q

Where can you find dense irregular CT proper?

A

deep dermis layer of the skin and capsules surrounding most organs

148
Q

What tissues are these?
A (left)= ?
C (right side)= ?

A
149
Q

Where can you find dense elastic CT proper?

A

-elastic ligaments of spinal vertebrae
-ligamentum nuchae (back of the neck)
-wall of the aorta

150
Q

Is ground substance water based?

A

yes

151
Q

What type of CT has a watery matrix of dissolved proteins and can carry specific cell types (formed elements)?

A

fluid CT

152
Q

Blood is a specialized CT consisting of cells and fluid extracellular material called…..

A

plasma

153
Q

Blood is a distributing vehicle, transporting ___________, ______________, metabolites, hormones, and other substances to cells throughout the body

A

oxygen, carbon dioxide

154
Q

Plasma is an aqueous solution of pH _______, the dissolved components are mostly plasma proteins, but also include nutrients, respiratory gases, nitrogenous waste products, hormones, and inorganic ions collectively called electrolytes

A

7.35

155
Q

What are the 2 types of fluid CT?

A

blood or lymph

156
Q

Where is lymph collected from?

A

interstitial space (ECF of CT)

157
Q

Lymph is monitored by what body system?

A

immune system

158
Q

Lymph is transported by the lymphoid/lymphatic system and contains lymphocytes but is returned to the…..

A

venous system

159
Q

Supportive CT supports soft tissues and….

A

body weight

160
Q

What are the 2 types of supportive/structural CT?

A

cartilage and bone

161
Q

Do structural CT have a lot of cells?

A

no, cartilage contains only 1-2% of cells and bone is 2%

162
Q

What type of ground substance is found in cartilage? What is the purpose?

A

gel-type ground substance

used for shock absorption and protection

163
Q

Bone is calcified tissue. What does this mean?

A

bone is made rigid by calcium salts and minerals for weight support

164
Q

Cartilage is a tough, durable form of supporting tissue, characterized by an ECM of high concentrations of _________ and __________________, interacting with collagen and elastic fibers (these fibers wont be visible)

A

GAGs, proteoglycans

165
Q

Cartilage consists of cells called ___________________ embedded in the ECM (cartilage contains no other cell types)

A

chondrocytes

chondro= cartilage

166
Q

Chondrocytes synthesize and maintain all ECM components and are localized in the matrix cavities called….

A

lacunae

167
Q

Cartilage has a semirigid consistency. The high content of bound ________ allows cartilage to serve as a shock absorber

A

water

168
Q

All types of cartilage lack vascular supplies and chondrocytes recieve nutrients by diffusion from capillaries in surrounding connective tissue. Does this mean cartilage can repair quickly or slowly?

A

slowly!

169
Q

Cells in avascular tissue, like chondrocytes will exhibit what type of metabolic activity?

A

low metabolic activity/metabolically inactive

note: cartilage is avascular but also lack nerves

170
Q

What are the 3 types of adult cartilage?

A

1) hyaline cartilage (when in doubt= choose hyaline)
2) elastic
3) fibrocartilage

171
Q

What is the most common cartilage type?

A

hyaline cartilage

172
Q

Which cartilage is homogenous and semitransparent in the fresh state?

A

hyaline

173
Q

The dry weight of hyaline cartilage is nearly _____% collagen embedded in a firm hydrated gel of proteoglycans and structural glycoproteins

A

40

174
Q

Chondrocytes occupy relatively ______ of the hyaline cartilage mass

A

little

175
Q

Except in the articular cartilage (articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage) of joints, all hyaline cartilage is covered by a layer of dense CT, the _________________, which is essential for the growth and maintenance of cartilage because blood vessels are here. It is still, flexible, and reduces friction between bones (smooth like glass)

A

perichondrium

peri= outside

176
Q

What are the general locations of the 3 cartilages?

A
177
Q

Elastic cartilage is similar to hyaline cartilage except it contains an abundant network of elastic fibers in addition to…

A

a meshwork of collagen

178
Q

Which cartilage type is supportive but bends easily?

A

elastic

179
Q

Which cartilage type is found in the auricle of the external ear and the epiglottis?

A

elastic cartilage

180
Q

Which cartilage type takes various forms in different structures but is essentially a mingling of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue?

A

fibrocartilage

181
Q

Which cartilage type is a tough, yet supportive tissue for bone?

A

fibrocartilage

fibrocartilage is very similar to bone BUT it has chondrocytes instead of osteocytes

182
Q

Which cartilage type limits movement, prevents bone-bone contact, and pads knee joints?

A

fibrocartilage

183
Q

Which cartilage type is found in the pubic symphysis and IVD?

A

fibrocartilage

184
Q

What is this?

A

hyaline cartilage

185
Q

What is this?

A

fibrocartilage

186
Q

What is this?

A

elastic cartilage

187
Q

What is this?

A

hyaline cartilage

188
Q

What is this?

A

fibrocartilage

189
Q

What is this?

A

elastic cartilage

190
Q

What is the proper name for bone tissue?

A

osseous tissue

191
Q

Bone is a specialized CT composed of calcified extracellular material, the bone matrix, and the following 3 major cell types=

A

1) osteoblasts (young cells)
2) osteocytes
3) osteoclasts (dissolve matrix/destructive cells)

all 3 of these come from osteoprogenitor cells

192
Q

What nutrient source keeps bones alive/dynamic?

A

calcium and phosphate

193
Q

Bone tissues provides solid support for the body, protects vital organs such as those in the cranial and thoracic cavities, and encloses internal (____________) cavities containing bone marrow where blood cells are formed

A

medullary

194
Q

Osseous/bone tissue serves as a reservoir of….

A

calcium and phosphate

195
Q

What tissue is strong and calcified with calcium salt deposits, and resists shattering/tears due to extremely flexible collagen fibers?

A

osseous tissue

196
Q

What cells arrange around central canals of the matrix and small channels (lacunae) through the matrix (canaliculi) to access blood supply?

A

osteocytes

197
Q

What is the most superficial layer of bone?

A

periosteum (covers bone surfaces)

198
Q

What are the 2 layers of periosteum?

A

fibrous and cellular layer (both can repair itself as needed)

199
Q

There are 2 types of bone based on histological features. What are they?

A

1) compact bone (always close to surface)
2) spongy bone or cancellous bone (allows center of bones to have medullary cavities where yellow and red bone marrow live)

200
Q

Gross observation of bone in cross section shows a dense area near the surface corresponding to compact (____________) bone, which represents 80%, and deeper areas with numerous interconnecting cavities, called cancellous (____________________) bone, consisting about 20% of total bone mass

A

cortical, trabecular/spongy

201
Q

What is the lacuna?

A

space around the osteocytes (white space in photos), or also known as the space between the lamella

202
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

crack/space in the matrix for osteocytes to sit (canal that connects lacunae)

203
Q

What is an osteon?

A

one functional unit (circle, looks like tree rings)

204
Q

What is circumferential lamellae?

A

wraps around the circumference of bone (all the osteons together)

205
Q

What is concentric lamellae?

A

wraps around each osteon

206
Q

What is the central canal?

A

holds the blood supply for the osteon (red= artery, blue= vein)

207
Q

What is periosteum?

A

fibrous, dense CT that covers osseous tissue and always has 2 layers

it is just outside of the circumferential lamellae

208
Q

What is trabeculae?

A

spongy bone (arches, projections, matrix, open space network)

209
Q

What is this?

A

structural/supportive CT- osseous tissue

210
Q

What is this?

A

loose CT proper -areolar tissue

theres lines= protein fibers

theres all 3 fibers present and more than one cell type = areolar

211
Q

What is this?

A

structural CT- hyaline cartilage

lacunae present = has to be either bone or cartilage

homogenous = hyaline cartilage

212
Q

What is this?

A

transitional epithelium

theres free space

some type of stratified epithelia

nuclei staggered

basal lamina present

213
Q

What is this?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

theres free space, basal lamina present

214
Q

What is this?

A

loose CT proper- adipose tissue

looks like clouds, only a few nuclei present

215
Q

What is this?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

free space present

216
Q

What is this?

A

dense regular CT proper

collagen fibers present means that theres protein fibers in matrix, so its CT proper, it is also dense and neat

no lacunae, so its not fibrocartilage

the dark purple cells are differing shapes

217
Q

What is this?

A

fluid CT- blood

theres different types of cells, no cell-cell contact

218
Q

What is this?

note: theres multiple tissues here

A
219
Q

What is this?

A

loose CT proper- reticular tissue

one type of fiber here, the black lines look webbed = reticular

loose tissue, not packed in

220
Q

What is this?

A

dense irregular CT proper

hot mess, dense

221
Q

What is this?

A

stratified cuboidal epithelium

222
Q

What is this?

A

structural CT- fibrocartilage

lacunae present, not homogeneous

223
Q

What is this?

A

structural CT- osseous tissue

Histology & Embryology (21 decks)

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