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Flashcards in ERP HAZMAT Deck (17)
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1

1. Who would implement the FDNY Emergency Response Plan for Hazardous Materials,
using the Incident Command System, at an incident involving a hazardous material where there exists danger to the health and safety to the general public and emergency personnel? (Sec. 1.2)


(A) The senior ranking Fire Department representative on scene, who could be the firs arriving Officer.

(B) Only an Incident Commander with the rank of Chief Officer.

(C) The Officer of Haz Mat Company 1, who was special called by the Battalion Chief on
scene.
(D) Only an Incident Commander above the rank of Deputy Chief.
 

A

2

2. The initial responsibility for assessment of incident hazards lies with the first responding
units. Members can use shipping documents found in transportation vehicles to assist them in
identifying the hazardous material. In which choice would members not be successful in
obtaining these documents? (Sec. 3.3.5)
(A) Bills of lading found in trucks.
(B) Cargo manifest found in railcars.
(C) Air bill found in airplanes.
(D) Cargo manifest found in ships and barges.

B

3

3. Control zones are often established at Haz-Mat incidents to reduce the potential for transfer
of contaminants. The Hot Zone, also known as the Exclusion Zone, is the innermost area of the
scene and is considered contaminated or “Hot”
. Choose the incorrect point about this zone.
(Sec. 4.2)
(A) The Hotline, the boundary of the Exclusion Zone, should be established initially based on
the type of released material(s) and the initial instrument readings.


(B) Red barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.


(C) Once established, the Hotline will remain fixed until the incident has been declared “Under
Control” and FD Operations have concluded.


(D) People, equipment and apparatus leaving the Exclusion Zone should be considered
contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.
 

C

4

4. The Contamination Reduction Zone or Warm Zone lies between the Exclusion Zone and
Zone. Which choice is correct concerning this zone? (Sec. 4.3, 4.4.3)
(A) All decontamination activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone.
(B) The Contamination Control Line is the boundary between the Exclusion Zone and the
Contamination Reduction Zone.
(C) White barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination
Reduction Zone.
(D) Members exiting the Contamination Reduction Zone to the Support Zone will remove anysuspected or known contaminant in the Support Zone.
 

A

B: The Contamination Control Line is the boundary between the CRZ and the
Support Zone. This boundary separates the possibly contaminated area from the
uncontaminated area.

C YELLOW BARRIER TAPE

D:No contaminated persons, equipment or apparatus are permitted in the Support
Zone.

5

5. There are several different types of decontamination used at an incident depending on the safety and health hazard of the contaminants. Which type of decontamination is described
incorrectly? (Sec. 4.3.9 B,C)

 

(A) Emergency Decontamination may be necessary in potentially life-threatening situations to remove contaminants from victims as expeditiously as possible, and must involve the formal establishment of a decontamination system.


(B) Gross Decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non-emergency
decontamination. Its purpose is to remove large amounts of contaminants in a short period of
time.


(C) Two common methods of Gross Decontamination used in emergencies are Wet and Dry
Decontamination. Dry Decontamination involves either the removal of outer clothing or all
garments worn by the individual.'


(D) Dry Decontamination may be necessary if atmospheric conditions are such that wetting the
victim may cause injuries such as hypothermia or if the reaction of the material with water may
cause more harm than the material itself.
 

A

MAY OR may not involve the formal
establishment of a decontamination system.

6

6. Decontamination is performed to reduce levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances
from personnel, equipment and apparatus. Choose the incorrect choice concerning
decontamination. (Sec. 4.3.9 D, E, F)


(A) Technical Decontamination is a more thorough decontamination process and follows Gross Decontamination.

(B) Victims have generally been medically stabilized and time is not critical during Technical
Decontamination.

(C) For the safety of all fire and medical personnel, as well as hospital staff, victims should be decontaminated prior to medical treatment and transport whenever possible.

(D) A single decontamination area should be established for both victims and emergency
personnel. This avoids duplication of services and limits confusion.
 

D

7

7. When responding to Haz-Mat incidents, members should use full firefighting gear and
SCBA as a minimum to protect against exposure. The use of chemical protective clothing (CPC)
requires specific skills through training. Which choice is incorrect concerning CPC?
(Sec. 5.4, 5.5, 5.6, 5.7)


(A) CPC offers little to no thermal protection in case of fire. No one suit offers protection from
all hazards.


(B) The level of protection required in each zone at an incident will be determined by the IC
based on incident size-up and monitoring data provided by the officer in charge of Haz-Mat
resources.
(C) Level A and Level B CPC clothing offer the highest level of respiratory protection through
the use of an SCBA. Level A clothing is vapor tight, while Level B clothing provides splash
protection.


(D) Level C protective clothing can be used when the types of air contaminants have been
identified, concentrations measured, the atmosphere is not oxygen deficient, and the filter
cartridges provided are designed for the known contaminant(s).


(E) Bunker gear is classified as Level D CPC protective clothing.
 

E

Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is not classified as chemical
protective clothing.

8

8. Each designated riding position on the apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying
respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC. Which of the following
would allow the use of an APR? (Sec. 7.3)


(A) The air contaminant has not been identified.
(

B) The oxygen level is 20.5%.


(C) The concentration of the material has not been measured.


(D) The filter cartridge is not specific for the contaminant.


(E) Air monitoring is performed daily.
 

(APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC. This can only be done after:

B


 The air contaminant has been identified


 The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%

The concentration of the material has been measured

The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant
 Air monitoring is on-going

9

9. BC QUESTION - Several specialized Chief Officers may be assigned to Haz-Mat
incidents. Which choice is correct concerning these resources? (Sec. 8.1, 8.2, 8.3,
8.4, ICS Ch. 2 Add. 5 Sec. 4)
(A) The Chief in Charge of Haz-Mat Operations will assume command and assume the role of
Incident Commander.
(B) Regardless of the size of the incident, the Haz-Mat Battalion will operate from a position
that directly supervises entry teams and on-scene Haz-Mat units.
(C) At most small incidents, the SOC Battalion will directly supervise entry teams. At larger,
more complex incidents, the SOC Battalion will operate in the Contamination Reduction Zone
and directly supervise member and civilian decontamination.
(D) At Haz-Mat incidents that involve unusual rescue operations, the SOC Battalion Chief will
oversee the rescue operations. A special-called BC shall fill the role of the SOC Battalion in
supervising decontamination procedures.
(E) The Safety Operating Battalion will be designated as the Safety Officer at all Haz-Mat
incidents.
 

D

10

10. The FDNY has several units with specialized Haz-Mat training, including Haz-Mat
Company 1 and Haz-Mat Technician Units (HMTU). Which action taken was incorrect?
(Sec. 8.5, 8.6)

(A) Haz-Mat Co. 1 was not on scene, so HMTU Engine 250 consulted with Haz-Mat Co. 1 via
cell phone for technical advice.

(B) HMTU Engine 165 performed initial monitoring at a tanker truck leak on the Staten Island
Expressway in Bunker Gear and SC BA.

 (C) HMTU Engine 274 initiated a rescue of an unconscious worker at an ice skating rink after
determining the hazard was an ammonia leak and their protective gear would adequately protect them.

(D) The 1C ordered HMTU Engine 274 not to initiate a rescue of an unconscious worker at a
suspected ammonia leak until the arrival of the required second HMTU to establish a rescuer
decontamination area.

D

Initiate rescue tactics if determined to be an acceptable risk

11

11. SOC Support Ladder Companies (SSL) and CPC Ladder Companies are trained in all
levels of CPC. Choose an incorrect statement about the abilities and responsibilities of these
companies. (Sec. 8.8, 8.9)
(A) SSL Companies should conduct air monitoring to identify safe zones if it is not already in
progress.
(B) The primary objective of CPC Ladder Companies is to perform rescue operations of non�ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone.
(C) CPC Ladder Companies should conduct air monitoring in the Exclusion Zone if Technician
companies are not performing monitoring.
(D) SSL Companies should assist with rescue of victims if HMTU or Haz-Mat Co. 1 is on�scene and conducting air monitoring.
 

C

8.2 Members of CPC Ladder Companies are trained in all levels of CPC but should
only operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technician companies are monitoring the
environment. CPC Ladder Companies are only equipped with PPE and do not
have any monitoring devices.

 

12

12. BC QUESTION - The Incident Commander has many duties at a Haz-Mat incident,
including ensuring scene safety and a hazard analysis is performed. Which choice is improperly
stated concerning these duties? (Sec. 9.3, 9.4)
(A) The IC should ensure that persons entering or leaving a control zone check in and out at the
Access Control Points.
(B) If the presence of hazardous materials is known prior to commencing operations, the IC
will confirm site control and hazard assessment assignments for the first arriving companies.
(C) If the presence of hazardous materials is determined during an operation, the IC must
immediately assign a company to perform a hazard assessment to determine the health and safety
effects on members operating in the area.
(D) The IC shall assign hazard identification and control to the first CPC Ladder Company on
scene, until relieved by a Haz-Mat Technician Unit.
 

D

13

13. There are two ways to protect the public from the effects of hazardous material discharges
into the environment; evacuation and sheltering in place. When would evacuation not be the best
option? (Sec. 9.5.1, 9.5.2)
(A) There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion.
(B) The potential for discharge is low, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate
people.
(C) The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for
evacuation.
(D) People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.
 

B

THE POTIENTIAL FOR DISCHARGE IS GREAT

SHELTERING IN PLACE WHEN

The hazardous material displays the following characteristics:
1. Low to moderate toxicity
2. Totally released and dissipating
3. Small quantity solid or liquid leak
4. A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer
indoors than outside
5. Release can be rapidly controlled at the source

14

14. Sheltering-in-place involves giving instructions to people to remain where they are until the
danger passes. In which of the following situations would sheltering-in-place be appropriate or
the preferred choice? (Sec. 9.5.4, 9.5.5)
1. Preplanning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes,
and public assemblies.
2. Evacuation can be properly managed with the manpower, resources and facilities available.
3. The hazardous material has low to moderate toxicity.
4. The material is partially released and increasing in concentration.
5. A large quantity solid or liquid leak.
6. A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.
7. The release can be rapidly controlled at the source.
8. The hazardous material will not affect the structure and its occupants, or the hazard will pass
the structure with little infiltration.
 

1,3,6,7,8

15

15. Units responded to a chlorine gas leak at the bottom of a hill, with a 20 MPH wind from the
north to the south. Which of the following facilities was established in the wrong area?
(Sec. 9.6.1, 9.6.2, 9.6.3, 9.6.4)


(A) The Command Post was established uphill and north of the incident. The IC notified all
units on scene, the units still responding, and other agencies responding of the location of the
Command Post.
(B) A preliminary Staging Area was established uphill and north of the incident.
(C) The Safe Refuge Area was established in the Support Zone for people removed from the
hazardous area before decontamination.
(D) The Casualty Collection Point was established in the Support Zone for EMS to triage and
treat decontaminated victims.
 

C

16

16. If initial units at a Haz-Mat incident determine that there is a known life hazard prior to
arrival of Haz-Mat resources with CPC, a risk analysis must be done to determine whether they
should attempt rescue of the victim. Which choice is properly stated? (Sec. 10.7)
(A) Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons
from immediate danger.
(B) Involvement in complicated rescue situations are not to be attempted.
(C) When the probability is high that the victim is viable, rescue or recovery should not be
attempted if it will place the rescuer at any risk.
(D) The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or potential explosion is very low and rarely
needs to be considered.
 

A

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