Everything Flashcards
(937 cards)
1
Q
Anterior
A
The front of the body, ventral
2
Q
Posterior
A
The back of the body, dorsal
3
Q
Superficial
A
Located close to or on the body surface
4
Q
Deep
A
Below the surface
5
Q
Proximal
A
closer to any ref pt
6
Q
Distal
A
farther (distant) from any ref pt
7
Q
Superior
A
Twd Head, higher (cephalic)
8
Q
Inferior
A
Away from Head, lower (caudal)
9
Q
Medial
A
toward the midline of the body
10
Q
Lateral
A
away from the midline of the body
11
Q
Ipsilateral
A
on the same side
12
Q
contralateral
A
on the opposite side
13
Q
unilateral
A
one side
14
Q
bilateral
A
both sides
15
Q
Prone
A
lying face down
16
Q
supine
A
lying face up
17
Q
valgus
A
distal segment of a jt deviates laterally
18
Q
varus
A
distal segment of a jt deviates medially
19
Q
If movement occurs in a plane, it must rotate about an axis that has a ___ relationship to that plane.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1568-1569). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A
90 °
20
Q
center of gravity is a theoretical point where ___________________________.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1575-1576). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A
the weight force of the object can be considered to act.
21
Q
When a person is standing in a neutral position, the body’s center of gravity is __________________.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1576-1577). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A
is approximately at the second sacral segment.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1577). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
22
Q
From the lateral view, the line of gravity should be
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1590-1591). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A
slightly posterior to the apex of the coronal suture, through the mastoid process, through the midcervical vertebral bodies, through the shoulder joint, through the midlumbar vertebral bodies, slightly posterior to the axis of the hip joint, slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint, and slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1588-1590). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
23
Q
From the posterior view, the line of gravity should pass through
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1591). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A
the midline of the body, and bilateral structures such as the mastoid, shoulder, iliac crest, knee, and ankles should be in the same horizontal plane.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1591-1592). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
24
Q
Flexion:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1601-1602). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A
Movement resulting in a decrease of the joint angle, usually moving anteriorly in the sagittal plane
25
Extension:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1602-1604). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Movement resulting in an increase of the joint angle, usually moving posteriorly in the sagittal plane
26
Abduction:
Movement away from the midline of the body, usually in the frontal plane
27
Adduction:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1605-1608). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Movement toward the midline of the body, usually in the frontal plane
28
Horizontal abduction:
Movement away from the midline of the body in the transverse plane, usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90 °
29
Horizontal adduction:
Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane, usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90 °
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1608-1609). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
30
Internal (medial) rotation:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1609-1612). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Rotation in the transverse plane toward the midline of the body
31
External (lateral) rotation:
Rotation in the transverse plane away from the midline of the body
32
Lateral flexion (right or left):
Movement away from the midline of the body in the frontal plane, usually used to describe neck and trunk movement
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1612-1613). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
33
Rotation (right or left):
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1613-1616). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Right or left rotation in the transverse plane, usually used to describe neck and trunk movement
34
Elevation:
Movement of the scapula superiorly in the frontal plane
35
Depression:
Movement of the scapula inferiorly in the frontal plane
36
Retraction:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1616-1620). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Movement of the scapula toward the spine in the frontal plane
37
Protraction:
Movement of the scapula away from the spine in the frontal plane
38
Upward rotation:
Superior and lateral movement of the inferior angle of the scapula in the frontal plane
39
Downward rotation:
Inferior and medial movement of the inferior angle of the scapula in the frontal plane
40
Circumduction:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1621-1625). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
A compound circular movement involving flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, circumscribing a cone shape
41
Radial deviation:
Abduction of the wrist in the frontal plane
42
Ulnar deviation:
Adduction of the wrist in the frontal plane
43
Opposition:
Diagonal movement of thumb across the palmar surface of the hand to make contact with the fifth digit
44
Eversion:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1625-1630). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Abducting the ankle
45
Inversion:
Adducting the ankle
46
Dorsiflexion:
Flexing the ankle so that the foot moves anteriorly in the sagittal plane
47
Plantarflexion:
Extending the ankle so that the foot moves posteriorly in the sagittal plane
48
Pronation (foot/ ankle):
Combined movements of abduction and eversion resulting in lowering of the medial margin of the foot
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1630). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
49
Supination (foot/ ankle):
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1631). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
Combined movements of adduction and inversion resulting in raising of the medial margin of the foot
50
What are the bones function?
The bones of the skeletal system support soft tissue, protect internal organs, act as important sources of nutrients and blood constituents, and serve as rigid levers for movement.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1640-1641). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
51
How many bones in the human body are there?
How many of those bones are used in voluntary movement?
206, 177 of which are used in voluntary movement
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1642). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
52
What bones make up the axial skeleton?
The skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum, and ribs are considered the axial skeleton;
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1640-1641). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
53
What is cartilage?
Cartilage is a resilient, semi-rigid form of connective tissue that reduces the friction and absorbs some of the shock in synovial joints.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1651-1652). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
54
What is endosteum?
The lining of the marrow cavity that contains cells required for bone dvp
55
What is the periosteum?
The periosteum is a membrane covering the surface of bones, except at the articular surfaces.
56
The periosteum is composed of what?
The periosteum is composed of two layers, an outer fibrous layer and an inner highly vascular layer that contains cells for the creation of new bone.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1654-1657). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
57
What is the role of periosteum?
The periosteum serves as a point of attachment for ligaments and tendons and is critical for bone growth, repair, and nutrition
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1657). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
58
What makes up the articular sys?
Joints are the articulations between bones, and along with bones and ligaments, they constitute the articular system.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1674). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
59
What are ligaments??
Ligaments are tough, fibrous connective tissues anchoring bone to bone.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1674-1675). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
60
What are 5 specific features of synovial joints?
1. It is enclosed by a fibrous joint capsule.
2. The joint capsule encloses the joint cavity.
3. The joint cavity is lined with synovial membrane.
4. Synovial fluid occupies the joint cavity.
5. The articulating surfaces of the bones are covered with hyaline cartilage, which helps absorb shock and reduces friction.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1687-1690). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
61
What joint movements occur at the scapulothoracic joint?
```
Elevation- depression
Up/dwn rot
Protraction-retraction
Med/lateral rot
Ant-Post Tilting
```
62
What joint movements occur at the glenohumeral jt?
```
flex/ext
abd/add
Int/ext rot
horizontal abd/add
Circumduction
```
63
What joint movements occur at the elbow jt?
Flex/ext
64
What type of synovial jt is the elbow jt?
hinge
65
What joint movements occur at the proximal radioulnar jt?
pronation/supination
66
What kind of syn jt is the prox radioulnar jt?
pivot jt
67
What joint movements occur at the wrist?
flex/ext
68
What kind of syn jt is the wrist jt?
ellipsoidal
69
What joint movements occur at the metacarpophalangeal jt?
flex/ext
| abd/add
70
What kind of syn jt is the metacarpophalangeal jt?
ellipsoidal
71
What joint movements occur at the prox and distal interphalangeal jt?
flex/ext
72
What kind syn jt is the prox and distal interphalangeal jt?
Hinge
73
What joint movements occur at the intervertebral jt?
Flex/ext
lat flex
rotation
74
What kind of joint is the intervertbral jt?
cartilaginous
75
What joint movements occur at the hip jt?
flex/ext
abd/add
internal/ext rot
circumduction
76
What joint movements occur at the knee?
flex/ext
| int/ext rot
77
What kind of syn jt is the knee?
bicondylar
78
What joint movements occur at the ankle: talocrural?
dorsiflex/plantarflex
79
What kind of synovial jt is the talocrural jt?
hinge jt
80
What kind of syn jt is the subtalar jt?
gliding jt
81
What joint movements occur at the ankle: subtalar jt?
inversion-eversion
82
What is open-chain movement?
“Open chain” movements occur when the distal segment of a joint moves in space.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1713-1714). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
83
hypermobile jt
Joints with excessive ROM are called “hypermobile,”
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1724-1725). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
84
Hypomobile jt
joints with restricted ROM are called “hypomobile”
85
Joint stability is what?
The stability of a joint is its resistance to displacement.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1728-1729). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
86
5 factors that impact jt stability
1. Ligaments check normal movement and resist excessive movement.
2. Muscles and tendons that span a joint also enhance stability, particularly when the bony structure alone contributes little stability (e.g., shoulder).
3. Fascia contributes to joint stability (e.g., iliotibial band of the tensor fasciae latae).
4. Atmospheric pressure creates greater force outside of the joint than internal pressure exerts within the joint cavity (the suctioncreated by this pressure is an important factor in aiding joint stability).
5. The bony structure of a joint is an important contributor to joint stability (e.g., limitation of elbow extension by the olecranon process of the ulna)
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1736-1738). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
87
3 types of msucle
three types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1740-1741). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
88
How many skel muscles in body? How many are prime movers?
There are more than 600 skeletal muscles in the human body (38), approximately 100 of which are primary movement muscles with which Personal Trainers should be familiar
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1752-1754). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
89
What are tendons?
Tendons are dense cords of connective tissue that attach a muscle to the periosteum of the bone.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1755-1756). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
90
What are bursae?
Bursae are often positioned between tendons and bony prominences to allow the tendons to slide easily across the bones
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1758). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
91
Abduction of glenohumeral jt ROM
90- 95
92
Add of GH jt ROM
0
93
Horizaontal abd rom of GH JT
45
94
Major muscle agonists of GH/shoulder abd
Middle deltoid and supraspinatus
| MD, SS
95
Major muscle agonists of GH/shoulder add
Lats, teres major, pec maj
| LD, TM, PM
96
Major muscle agonists of GH/shoulder horizontal abd
Post Delt, teres major, lats
| PD, TM, LD
97
Exercises for shoulder abd
dumbbell lateral raise and dumbbell press
98
Exs' for shoulder add
Lat pull down, seated row, cable crossover, flat bench, and dumbbell fly
99
Exs' for H ABD
Prone reverse dumbbell fly, reverse cable fly
100
All movement for scapulothoracic jt has what kind of ROM?
None
101
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic fixation
Serratus anterior, pec minor, traps, levator scapulae, and rhomboids
SA, pm, T, LS, Rh
102
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic upward rotation
Traps
| T
103
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic downward rot
Rh, pm, LS
104
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic elevation
Rh, LS, T
105
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic depression
pm, T
106
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic protraction
SA, pm
107
Major muscle agonists of scapulothoracic retraction
Rh, T
108
Exs' for scapulothoracic fixation
push up, parallel bar dip, upright row, shoulder shrug, seated row
109
Exs' for scapulothoracic elevation
shoulder shrug
110
Exs' for scapulothoracic protraction
supine dumbbell serratus press, push up
111
Exs' for scapulothoracic retraction
seated row
112
ROM For shoulder H add
135
113
ROM For shoulder Int Rot
70-90
114
ROM For shoulder Ext ROT
70-90
115
ROM For elbow flexion
145-150
116
ROM For elbow extension
0
117
ROM For radioulnar supination
80-90
118
ROM For radioulnar pronation
70-90
119
ROM For wrist flex
70-90
120
ROM For wrist ext
65-85
121
ROM For wrist add
25-40
122
ROM For wrist abd
15-25
123
Major muscle agonists for wrist abd
Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, flecor carpi radialis
124
Major muscle agonists for wrist add
flexor and extensor carpi ulnaris
125
Major muscle agonists for wrist ext
extensor carpi radialis longus, brevis, and ulnaris, and extensor digitorum
126
Major muscle agonists for wrist flex
Flexor carpi radialis and ulnaris, palmaris longus, flecor digitorum, and superficialis
127
Major muscle agonists for radiounlnar pron
Pronator quadratus, pronator teres
128
Major muscle agonists for radioulnar supin
biceps brachii, and supinator
129
Major muscle agonists for elbow ext
triceps brachii, aconeus
130
Major muscle agonists for elbow flex
biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis
131
Major muscle agonists for shoulder ext rot
infraspinatus, teres minor, post delt
| IS, tm, PD
132
Major muscle agonists for shoulder int rot
Lats, teres minor, subscap, pec minor, and ant delt
| LD, tm, ss, pm, AD
133
Major muscle agonists for shoulder h add
Pec maj, anterior delt
| PM, AD
134
Exs' for shoulder H add
flat bench chest fly, pec dec, and cable cross over
135
Exs' for shoulder int rot
Lat pulldown, bent over row, dumbbell row, rotator cuff exs, dumbbell press, parallel bar dip, and front raises
136
Exs' for shoulder ext rot
Ext rot cuff exs, dumbbell side-lying, calble in , rotator cuff exs, cable
137
Exs' for elbow flexion
dumbbel curl, preacher curl, and hammer curl
138
Exs' for elbow ext
dip, pully triceps ext, close grip bench press, push-downs, and dumbbell kickback
139
Exs' for radioulnar supin
dumbbell curl (w/ supination)
140
Exs' for radioulnar pronation
dumbbel pronation
141
Exs' for wrist flex
dumbbell wrist curl
142
Exs' for wrist ext
dumbell reverse wrist curl
143
Exs' for wrist add and abd
wrist curl, reverse wrist curl
144
The bones of shoulder region include what:
humerus, scapula, and clavicle
145
The humeral head is what kind of shape and articulates ______.
The humeral head is rounded and articulates with the glenoid fossa of the scapula.
146
Where are the major attachment sites of the humerus for many muscles that act on shoulder?
greater and lesser tubercles of humerus
147
where does scapula lie?
Scapula lies in the scaption plane
148
What is the scaption plane?
Scapula lies obliquely at 30 degrees to frontal plane
149
Where does coracohumeral ligament span to and from, and what does it provide?
The coracohumeral ligament spans the bicipital groove of the humerus and provides anteroinferior stability to the glenohumeral joint.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1843-1844). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
150
what bands does glenohumeral ligament have, what does it reinforce and provide??
The glenohumeral ligament (anterior, middle, and anteroinferior bands) reinforces the anterior capsule and provides stability to the shoulder joint in most planes of movement.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1845). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
151
function and location of coracoacromial ligament
The coracoacromial ligament, located superior to the glenohumeral joint, protects the muscles, tendons, nerves, and blood supply of the region and prevents superior dislocation of the humeral head.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1845-1847). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
152
Acromioclavicular ligament provides ____ .
acromioclavicular ligament is the major ligament that provides stability to the acromioclavicular joint.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1847-1848). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
153
The coracoclavicular ligament (bands?) prevents what ?
The coracoclavicular ligament (trapezoid and conoid bands) prevents superior dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1848-1849). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
154
What does the sternoclavicular ligaments (ant and post) help do?
The sternoclavicular ligaments (anterior and posterior) help strengthen the capsule of the sternoclavicular joint.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1849). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
155
The costoclavicular ligament connects what?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1849-1850). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
first rib and clavicle
156
the interclavicular ligament connects what?
the two clavicles and manubrium.
157
The subacromial (subdeltoid) bursa lies where?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1850). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
lies between the supraspinatus and deltoid tendons and the acromion,
158
The subacromial (subdeltoid) bursa allows what?
The subacromial (subdeltoid) bursa allows gliding and cushioning of these structures, especially upon shoulder abduction
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1851-1852). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
159
The shoulder region is a complex of four joints:
the glenohumeral (shoulder), acromioclavicular, sternoclavicular, and scapulothoracic joints
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1856-1857). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
160
GH consists of what anatomical components?
It consists of the articulation of the spherical head of the humerus with the small, shallow, and somewhat pear-shaped glenoid fossa of the scapula.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1859-1860). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
161
Function of glenoid labrum?
scapula deepens the fossa and cushions against impact of the humeral head in forceful motions
162
acromioclavicular joint is what kind of synvoial jt
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1865). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
plane jt
163
Describe the acromioclavicular joint
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1865). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
plane syn jt of the articulation of the acromion and distal end of the clavicle
164
How does acromioclavicular jt move?
acromioclavicular joint moves in three planes simultaneously with scapulothoracic motion. The sternoclavicular joint, the articulation of the proximal clavicle with the sternum and cartilage of the first rib, is a saddle synovial joint.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1865-1867). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
165
The sternoclavicular joint provides only wha?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1867). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
only bony connection between the humerus and the axial skeleton
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1868). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
166
The scapulothoracic joint is formed by what?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1869). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
the articulation of the scapula with the thoracic cage.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1870). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
167
Any movement of the scapulothoracic jt causes movement of
the acromioclavicular, sternoclavicular, and glenohumeral joints.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1871). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
168
The scapulothoracic joint provides what?
The scapulothoracic joint provides mobility and stability for the orientation of the glenoid fossa and the humeral head for arm movements in all planes
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1871-1872). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
169
The center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint occurs at where?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1883-1885). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
the humeral head within the glenoid fossa.
170
At 0 ° to 50 ° of abduction, the lower portion of the
humeral head is in contact with the glenoid fossa.
171
At 50 ° to 90 ° of abduction, the upper portion of the
humeral head is in contact with the glenoid fossa.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1885). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
172
Full abduction of the arm requires what and is called what?
simultaneous movement of the glenohumeral and scapulothoracic joints. This dual movement is called “scapulohumeral rhythm”
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1894-1895). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
173
Scapulohumeral rhythm allows what??
a greater abduction ROM, maintains optimal length– tension relationships of the glenohumeral muscles, and prevents impingement between the greater tubercle of the humerus and the acromion.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1896-1897). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 1896). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
174
After 100 ° to 120 ° of abduction, what occurs?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1897-1899). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
upward rotation of the scapula in the frontal plane causes the glenoid fossa of the scapula to face upward, making further elevation of the arm above the head possible
175
in every 3 ° elevation of the arm, what degree occurs at both the GH jt and scapulthoraci jt
2 ° occurs at the glenohumeral joint and 1 ° occurs at the scapulothoracic joint (37).
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1899-1900). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
176
shoulder muscles moves what?
arm
177
shoulder girdle muscles primarily do what?
stabilize the scapula on the thoracic cage and are vital in keeping proper posture
178
What are the anterior muscles of the shoulder jt?
The anterior muscles of the shoulder joint are the pectoralis major, subscapularis, coracobrachialis, and biceps brachii.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1921-1922). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
179
what are the post muscles of shoulder jt?
infraspinatus and teres minor.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 1922-1923). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
180
What are the superior shoulder muscles
The superior shoulder muscles are the deltoid and supraspinatus
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What are the inferior shoulder muscles??
latissimus dorsi, teres major, and long head of the triceps brachii.
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Pec major is a prime mover of what major actions
The pectoralis major is a large and powerful muscle that is a prime mover in adduction, horizontal adduction, and internal rotation of the humerus.
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origin of pec major
medial clavicle and sternum
184
insertion of pec maj
intertubercular groove of the humerus.
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185
The clavicular area of PM primarily does what muscle action?
flex humerous
186
The sternocostal area of PM does what?
extends the humerus from a flexed position
187
coracobrachialis muscle action
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assists w/ shoulder flexion and add
188
Biceps brachii is described as what?
a two- jt and 2 headed muscle crossing shoulder and elbow
189
At shoulder, coracobrachialis assists w/ what muscle action?
h add, flex, and int rot
190
All 3 heads of deltoid insert where?
delt tuberosity on lateral humerus
191
Where does the ant delt origininate?
from the anterolateral aspect of the clavicle
192
Ant Delt is prime mover of what?
shoulder flex, h add, and int rot of GH jt
193
origin of middle delt is from where ?
from lateral aspect of the acromion and is a powerful abductor of the GH jt
194
Where does the post delt origin?
from the inf aspect of the scapular spine
195
Post delt muscle action
GH ext, h abd, and ext rot, which oppose ant delt
196
post and ant delt are
agonists and antagonists to one another
197
What are the rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and subscap ("SITS")
198
The rotator cuff muscles insert where
the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus
199
The rotator cuff muscles orignate from where?
the scapula and insert at the greater or lesser tubercle of the humerus
200
Supraspinatus is starts initating what?
abduction at GH
201
Infraspinatus and teres minor muscle action
external rotation of GH jt
202
Subscap muscle action
internally rotates GH jt
203
Rotator muscles are important what of the GH that help in what of gh?
The rotator cuff muscles are important stabilizers of the glenohumeral joint and aid in glenohumeral positional control
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RC act like and how do they maintain position of humeral head?
These muscles act like a strong ligament, holding the humeral head tightly in the glenoid fossa during arm movements initiated by the larger shoulder muscles.
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What are the 4 ways that RC keep shoulder stable?
The rotator cuff stabilizes the shoulder through four mechanisms: (a) passive muscle tension, (b) contraction of the muscles causing compression of the articular surface, (c) joint motion that result in secondary tightening of the ligamentous restraints, and (d) the barrier effect of contracted muscle
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Origin of Lats
iliac crest and post sacrum via thoracolumbar fascia, lower 6 thoracic vertbrae, and lower 3 ribs
207
Lats insertion
intertubercular groove of the humerus
208
Lats major muscle action
Strong Extensor, internal rotator, and adductor of GH jt
209
the angle of pull for lats increases when arm is abducted how many degrees range
30-90
210
Teres Major (TM) aka
little lat cuz has similar muscle actions
211
triceps brachii long head acts to do what to gh
shoulder extension
212
What are the muscles of the anterior shoulder girdle?
pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, and subclavius.
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ORIGIN OF pec minor (pm)
from the anterior aspects of the third to fifth ribs
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insertion of pm
coracoid process of the scapula.
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When pm contracts, pec minor causes what?
protraction, downward rot, and depression of the scapula
216
WHERE IS Serratus anterior origin ?
several bands from the upper 9 ribs laterally
217
Where is SA insertion?
ant aspect of medial border of scapula
218
SA does what to scapula?
SA protracts scap
219
SA is active in what movements?
reaching and pushing
220
Winging scap is result of what muscle dysfunction?
SA dysfunction
221
Function of subclavius muscle
protects and stabilizes sternoclavicular jt
222
What muscles make up the post shoulder girdle?
LS, Rh, and Traps
223
What is LS origin?
from the transverse processes of the upper four cervical vertebrae, run obliquely,
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224
LS insertion?
at the medial border superior to the scapular spine.
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225
LS Muscle Action
The levator scapulae produce elevation and downward rotation of scapula and also act on the neck.
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Rh origin
The rhomboids originate from the spinous processes of the last cervical and upper five thoracic vertebrae
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Rh insertion
insert on the medial border of the scapula from the spine to the inferior angle.
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228
Rh muscle action
Rhomboid action results in scapular retraction, downward rotation, and slight elevation.
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What muscles are vital for good posture?
Along with the trapezius, proper rhomboid activity is necessary for good posture
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Traps origin
trapezius covers a broad area from the base of the occiput to the spinous process of the twelfth thoracic vertebra,
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Traps insertion
from the lateral clavicle, medial border of the acromion, and scapular spine.
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232
Contraction of the upper trapezius causes
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scapular elevation
233
Contraction of the middle trapezius causes
scapular retraction
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234
contraction of the lower trapezius causes
scapular depression
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235
Together, the upper and lower traps fibers cause
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upward rot of the scapula
236
What is primary factor of shoulder impingment?
A primary factor of impingement syndrome is muscular imbalance at the shoulder exacerbated by external rotator cuff muscle weakness and highly trained internal rotator muscles (particularly the prime movers)
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237
How improve impingment syndrome?
strengthening and improving the function of the external rotators, stretching the internal rotators, and eliminating the training errors that started
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238
Thoracic outlet syndrome is
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compression of the neurovascular bundle (brachial plexus and axillary artery/ vein) in the axillary region and results in symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the upper extremity, usually in the fourth and fifth digits of the hand.
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Treatment of thoracic outlet syndrome includes
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correcting faulty biomechanics, strengthening the rotator cuff, and stretching the shoulder internal rotators and scalenes.
240
The mechanism of glenohumeral joint dislocation is typically excessive
abduction, external rotation, and extension of the shoulder.
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241
The elbow is commonly
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injured and is the second most injured joint from overuse and repitive motion
242
humeroulnar joint is the articulation of the ,
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the distal humerus with the proximal ulna
243
humeroradial joint is the articulation of the
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distal humerus with the proximal radius
244
proximal radioulnar joint is the articulation of the
proximal radius with the proximal ulna
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245
The elbow is an important joint involved in
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lifting, carrying, throwing, swinging, and most upper extremity exercise movements.
246
the ulnar (medial) collateral ligament connects
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the humerus with the ulna
247
the radial (lateral) collateral ligament connects
the humerus with the radius
248
the annular ligament connects
the radius with the ulna
249
The collateral ligaments provide
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support for stresses in the frontal plane
250
the medial collateral
protects for valgus forces
251
the lateral collateral protects for
varus forces
252
The annular ligament provides what??
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stability for the radius, securing it to the ulna
253
The elbow joint complex is a compound synovial joint that consists of two articulations:
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humeroulnar and humeroradial.
254
The elbow joint is what?
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continuous with the proximal radioulnar joint, responsible for allowing the radial head to rotate during pronation and supination of the forearm.
255
The distal humerus articulates with what??
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both the proximal ulna and proximal radius, and the two articulations are enclosed by one capsule and share a single synovial cavity.
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256
On the lateral side of the elbow, the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the
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head of the radius to form the humeroradial joint
257
medially, the trochlea of the humerus articulates with the
trochlear notch of the ulna to form the humeroulnar joint.
258
proximal radioulnar joint, whose joint capsule is continuous with that of the
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humeroulnar and humeroradial jts is the articulation of the radial head w/ radial notch of the ulna
259
During sagittal movement of the elbow, what happens?
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the trochlear notch of the humerus slides into the trochlear groove of the ulna.
260
Upon full flexion, the
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coronoid process of the ulna approximates the coronoid fossa of the humerus.
261
Upon full extension, the
olecranon process of the ulna hits the olecranon fossa of the humerus, which enhances stability of the elbow in full extension.
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262
The anterior muscles of the arm mainly flex the elbow joint (5) and include:
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the biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis
263
The long head of biceps brachii orgin is from
the supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
264
Both heads of biceps brachii insert at
radial tuberosity
265
short head of biceps brachi origins is
from coracoid process of scapula
266
major muscle action of biceps brachii
biceps brachii is a strong supinator and flexes the elbow most effectively when the forearm is in supination.
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long head of the biceps brachii also assists in what?
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in shoulder flexion.
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To optimally train the biceps brachii, exercise movements should include
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both elbow flexion and forearm supination (e.g., dumbbell biceps curl).
269
brachialis is considered the
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elbow flexor workhorse
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pronator quadratus and pronator teres, as their names suggest, causes what?
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pronation
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The strongest pronator muscle is
The pronator quadratus is the stronger of the two.
272
Triceps long head originates from the
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infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
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Triceps the medial and lateral heads originate from the
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upper humerus.
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274
All three heads of triceps insert on the
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olecranon of the ulna.
275
“Tennis elbow” (lateral epicondylitis) creates what?
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creates lateral elbow pain, is the most widespread overuse injury of the adult elbow
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276
What causes tennis elbow?
caused by eccentric overload of the forearm extensor muscles (e.g., gripping a racquet too tightly, wrong grip size, faulty backhand technique, excessive racquet weight)
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277
Golfer's elbow (medial epicondylitis) creates what?
medial elbow pain
278
Golfer's elbow etiology
caused by repeated valgus stresses placed on arm during swinging of racquets or clubs
279
Triceps tendonitis yields
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pain over the olecranon,
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triceps tendinits is caused by what
is caused by repetitive posterior stresses during elbow extension.
281
Medial collateral ligament sprain often results from what??
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repetitive microtrauma and excessive valgus force
282
Olecranon bursitis, which typically produces
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a large red swelling over the posterior elbow,
283
Olecrannon process is caused by
results from a fall directly on the elbow.
284
Ulnar dislocation typically results from
violent hyperextension or varus or valgus forces.
285
Ulnar dislocation most common in individuals younger than
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20 years
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ulnar dislocation results in
obvious elbow deformity and may present with neurological symptoms into the hand (fifth digit) because of entrapment of the ulnar nerve at the elbow
287
The wrist, hand, and fingers consist of 29 bones:
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a distal ulna, a distal radius, eight carpals, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges
288
bones of the pelvic girdle (pelvis) are
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the sacrum and innominate (os coxae).
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innominate bone includes the
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fused ilium (largest pelvic bone), ischium, and pubis on each side (which typically fuse by the end of puberty).
290
anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) of the ilium is a bony protuberance that provides
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an attachment point for several muscles of the anterior thigh.
291
During anterior pelvic tilt, what happens?Results in?
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the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle.
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292
During Posterior Pelvic tilt, what occurs? Results in what occurence?
the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle.
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293
What muscles cause ant pelvic tilt?
anterior pelvic tilt results from contraction of the hip flexors and lumbar extensors.
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294
What muscles cause post pelvic tilt?
Posterior pelvic tilt results from contraction of the hip extensors and lumbar flexors.
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295
What muscles are resp for lateral tilt at hip?
Lateral tilt results from contraction of the lateral lumbar muscles (e.g., quadratus lumborum) and hip abductor– adductor muscles,hip abductor– adductor muscles,
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296
What muscles are resp for axial rot at hip?
occurs through the action of the hip and spinal rotator muscles
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297
What makes up the iliospoas muscle group?
iliopsoas muscle group, which consists of the psoas major and iliacus muscles,
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298
iliospoas causes what muscle action?
is a strong hip flexor
299
Pectineus muscle assissts in what muscle action?
Pectineus assists in hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation.
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300
Rectus femoris does what muscle actions?
flexes the hip and extends the knee.
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What is Rectus femoris origin?
AIIS Anterior inferior iliac spine
302
What is rectus femoris insertion?
the tibial tuberosity via the petallar ligament
303
What is the longest muscle in the body?
sartorius
304
Sartorius origin
Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
305
Sartorius insertion
medial tibial surface aka pes anserinus
306
sartorius muscle actions
sartorius flexes, abducts, and externally rotates the hip (it also assists with knee flexion).
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tensor fasciae latae origin
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anterior iliac crest of ilium
308
tensor fasciae latae insertion
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anterolateral tibial condyle via a long band of fascia, iliotibial band
309
tensor fasciae latae causes what muscle action
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tensor fasciae latae abducts and flexes the hip and stabilizes the hip against external rotation when the hip is flexed (18) and also assists with extension and stabilization of the knee.
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310
What are medial muscles of the hip?
Medial muscles of the hip include gracilis and the adductors longus, brevis, and magnus.
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Medial muscles of hip primarily cause what muscle action at hip
adduct hip, and may sometime participate in hip flexion (adductor longus and brevis, upper fibers of adductor magnus) or extension (lower fibers of adductor magnus), medial rotation (adductors longus and brevis and magnus
312
Pectinius also participates in hip what?
adduction
313
Medial muscles of hip orginate from
pubis
314
Medial muscles insert on
linea aspera of femur
315
Gracilis inserts where
tibia (pes anserine)
316
Gracilis may assist w/ what muscle?
knee flexion
317
Post msucles of hip
posterior muscles of the hip include gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus; six deep lateral rotators (piriformis, gemellus superior and inferior, obturators internus and externus, and quadratus femoris); and hamstrings (biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus).
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Glut max origin
ilium, sacrum, and coccyx
319
Glut max insertion
gluteal tubersoity located on lateral aspect of femur
320
glut max is a powerful what type of muscle action of hip
powerful hip extensor
321
glut max muscle action
HIP EXTENSION, lateral rot, abd and lower fibers may be involved in add
322
Glut med and minimus muscle action
abd and medial rotators of hip
323
Glue med and mini are vital for what?
they are postural muscles that kept pelvis level with locomotion
324
glut med and mini origin
external surface of ilium
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325
glut med and mini insertion
the greater trochanter of femur with most of the deep lateral rotators.
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326
What muscles make up hams?
semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris
327
Hamstring muscle action
extend hip besides short head of biceps femoris, and flex knee
HEH, HFK
328
Biceps femoris origin
ischial tuberosity (long head) and proximal femur (short head
329
biceps femoris insertion
lateral tibial condyle and fibular head
330
biceps femoris long head muscle action
extends hip, flex knee
| HEH, HFK
331
biceps femoris long head cuases
lateral rot at both jt
332
short head biceps femoris acts only on the
knee
333
The semimembranosus and semitendinosus, 2 muscles of the hamstrings, cause what muscle action?
Extend hip, flex knee, and internally rotate both hip and knee jts
HEH, HFK
334
semimembranosus and semitendinosus origin
ischial tuberosity
335
semimembranosus and semitendinosus insertion
medial aspect of the tibia
336
Iliac crest contusion (“ hip pointer”) is caused by
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a direct blow to the pelvis region.
337
What is the largest joint in the human body?
The knee joint is the largest joint in the body.
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338
what does knee joint consist of ?
The knee joint consists of the distal femur, proximal tibia, and patella.
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 2299). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
339
What does patella provide for knee?
Patella protects the anterior knee
340
What does patella create for quads?
Patella creats an improved angle of pull for the quads resulting in a mech adv for knee extension
341
What are the 2 major ligaments of the knee?
two major pairs of ligaments in the knee: the cruciate and collateral ligaments
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342
Where do cruciate ligaments cross and what do they maintain?
cruciate ligaments cross within the joint cavity between the femur and tibia and are important in maintaining anterior– posterior and rotational stability at the knee.
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343
What is the difference btween the ant and posterior cruciate ligaments in knee?
The anterior cruciate ligament is slightly longer and thinner than the posterior ligament
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 2311). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
344
The collateral ligaments of the knee connect what?
The collateral ligaments connect the femur with the leg bones— the medial collateral with the tibia and the lateral collateral with the fibula.
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345
Function of collateral ligaments of knee
aid in stability of knee by counteracting valgus and varus forces.
346
The medial collateral ligament attaches where
medial collateral ligament attaches to the medial meniscus of the knee
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347
lateral collateral ligament does not attach to the
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lateral meniscus
348
What are joints of the knee?
The knee consists of the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral joints
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349
Quads muscle action
extend knee, flex hip
| QEK, QFH
350
Quad insertion
superior aspect of patella and to the tibial tuberosity by the patellar ligament
351
rectus femoris origin
anterior inferior iliac spine
352
Rectus femoris muscle action
Rectus femoris flexes hip, extend knee
| Rf F H, Rf E K
353
3 vasti muscles origin
proximal femur
354
Vastus lateralis and medialis are what type of muscles that do what?
pennate muscles that pull on the patella at oblique angles
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355
Gastroc muscle action
flex knee and plantarflex ankle
356
Popliteus muscle action
weak knee flexor that unlocks extended knee by laterally rotating femur on the fixed tibia
357
purp of plantar fascia
plantar fascia acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off
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358
Pronation of foot involves what?
Pronation is a combination of talocrural dorsiflexion, subtalar eversion, and forefoot abduction.
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359
Supination of foot involves what??
Supination is a combination of talocrural plantarflexion, subtalar inversion, and forefoot adduction
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360
ankle dorsiflexion muscles
tibialis anterior, peroneus (fibularis) tertius, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus, are ankle dorsiflexors
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361
Muscle action of tibialis anterior
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inverts the foot,
362
Muscle action of peroneus tertius
everts the foot.
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363
The extensor hallucis longus acts to extend the what?
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big toe and extensor digitorum longus extend digits 2 to 5.
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364
lateral muscles, peroneus longus and brevis, do what muscle action??
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 2451). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
evert the foot and assist with plantarflexion
365
What are the ankle plantarflexors?
superficial posterior muscles, gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris, are ankle plantarflexors
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366
Gastroc is prime mover of what muscle action
plantarflexion, but it also helps flex foot
367
what are the deep post muscles and whats there muscle action?
deep posterior muscles are flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus. All except for popliteus are ankle plantarflexors and inverters.
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368
The tibialis posterior does what to foot
tib post inverts foot
369
The major muscles of the cervical region are
The major anterior muscles of the cervical region include the sternocleidomastoid, scalenes (anterior,middle, and posterior), longus capitis, and longus colli muscles.
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370
On unilateral contraction, these muscles laterally flex and rotate the neck and head.
What are these muscles?
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The major anterior muscles of the cervical region include the sternocleidomastoid, scalenes (anterior,middle, and posterior), longus capitis, and longus colli muscles; they laterally flex and rotate the neck and head during unilateral contraction.
371
On bilateral contraction, what muscles flex the neck and head?
the anterior scalene, longus capitis and colli, and sternocleidomastoid
372
The suboccipital muscles, which attach what to what yielding what muscle action?
the upper cervical vertebrae to the occiput, extend the head when they contract bilaterally and laterally bend and rotate the neck when they contract unilaterally.
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373
The rectus abdominis originates from the __(1)___ and inserts at ___(2)______.
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pubic bone (1)
the fifth through seventh ribs and xiphoid process.(2)
374
Rectus abdominis is prime mover of what muscle action, and tilts what where?
rectus abdominis is the primary trunk flexor, and through its attachment to the pubic bone, it also tilts the pelvis posteriorly.
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375
The internal and external obliquus abdominis muscles rotate the what during unilateral and what during bilateral contraction?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Locations 2633-2634). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
trunk on unilateral contraction and flex the trunk on bilateral contraction.
376
Contraction of the transversus abdominis does what muscle action and increases what kind of pressure?
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM's Resources for the Personal Trainer (Kindle Location 2636). Wolters Kluwer Health. Kindle Edition.
stabilizes the lumbar spine and increases intra-abdominal pressure
377
abnormal firing patterns of trans abdmis is related to what?
low back pain
378
How do you isolate the abd muscles during trunk flexion exs'?
shorten the psoas and other hip flexor muscles (active insufficiency by flexing hips and knees
379
post muscles of lumbar spine are 3 major muscles gorups:
erector spinae, multifidus muscles, and intrinsic rotators
380
Although lats considered muscles of shoulder, the muscle also does what in respect to lumbar spine
extends and stabilizes lmbar spine through attachment to the thoracolumbar fascia
381
erector spinae muscle group consist of the
iliocostalis lumborum and longissimus thoracis muscles
382
erector spinae muscle contraction bilateral results in
extension and posterior translation
383
multifidus is prime move to
sagittal rotation via extension w/ posterior translation
384
What movement is possible for both multifidus and E S?
lateral flex and axial rot during unilateral contraction
385
post lumbar muscles are adapted to do what?
maintain posture and stabilize spine and trunk
386
The lateral muscles of the lumbar spine include .
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the quadratus lumborum and psoas (major and minor)
387
The quadratus lumborum originates ________and inserts ______.
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from the iliac crest
at the 12th rib and transverse process of the lower four lumbar vertebrae
388
The quadratus lumborum produces ________________.
lateral bending of the lumbar spine with unilateral contraction and stabilizes the trunk with bilateral contraction.
389
The psoas major muscle originates from _______ and inserts at the _____.
the anterior surfaces of the transverse processes of all the lumbar vertebrae
lesser trochanter of the femur
390
The psoas major does what to the trunk and hip??
flexes the trunk and the hip.
391
A common cause of lumbar disc herniation is
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forceful flexion and rotation of the lumbar spine.
392
The muscles primarily involved in cable fly and dumbbell fly are
the pectoralis major and the anterior deltoid.
393
Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition of prediabetes where blood glucose is elevated between what range?
between 100 and 125 mg·dL–1 following an oral glucose tolerance test on two separate occasions.
394
Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should:
Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. Leaning forward recruits more of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings. By minimizing forward flexion, the quadriceps will be recruited more
395
Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles
to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening.
396
The palmaris longus [as well as the flexor carpi radialis, ulnaris, and flexor digitorum superficialis] are involved in
wrist flexion, which is the movement for a wrist curl.
397
During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist
Quadriceps, hamstrings
The quadriceps function as an agonist to extend the knee joint, and the hamstrings function as an antagonist since it functions to flex the knee joint.
398
The vertical line should fall slightly
anterior to the lateral malleolus
399
What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training?
Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance
Many people have muscular imbalances of the body, which may create postural alignment issues and injury. Thus, posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance are critical assessments to identify indications for strengthening, stretching, and proper movement.
400
Which type of training provides the best results for maximum strength?
Nonlinear periodization
Some studies suggest that daily variations in undulation training has a superior effect on maximizing strength as compared with weekly or monthly variation
401
The most common manifestation of muscle injury is ________.
Delayed onset muscle soreness
The most common manifestation of muscle injury is delayed onset muscle soreness [DOMS]. DOMS symptoms are a first sign that the individual has done too much too soon
402
A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL–1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have?
2
Explanation:
This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.
403
Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strengh training in the lumbo-pelvic region?
Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening.
Explanation:
The lumbar muscles play a small role in trunk extension and torque movements during ADLs. Stabilization exercises provide a more effective strength training effect.
404
When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action?
Eccentric
When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action [e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl].
405
The SAID (Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands) Principle indicates that:
The adaptation will be specific to the demands that the exercise places upon the individual.
Explanation:
One example of the SAID principle is that if a high number of repetitions are used, the muscles will increase their ability to perform a high number of repetitions [muscular endurance]
406
Which of the following predicts behavior change depending on the perceived threats to one's well-being?
Health belief model
Explanation:
Clients must perceive a threat to their health before they take action to change their health behavior.
407
During resistance training, pain is a sign that ________.
The client needs to stop the exercise
Correct
Explanation:
Stop an exercise as soon as a client feels pain in order to prevent injury.
408
Which of the following is an example of a SMART goal?
| You selected:
I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months.
Correct
Explanation:
prepare for a 5K specific], 10 to 40 minutes [measureable], gradually progress my run time [action-oriented], in four months [realistic], 4 days per week [time oriented].
409
Which movement occurs in the frontal plane?
Elevation of the of the scapula
Correct
Explanation:
With the exception of tilt, all other movements of the scapula occur in the frontal plane. Note that elbow flexion and hip flexion occur in the sagittal plane and supination occurs in the transverse plane. (less)
410
Which of the following does NOT require an exercise test or a medical supervised test?
You selected:
An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
Correct
Explanation:
A client who is asymptomatic and has less than two risk factors does not require a medical exam or exercise testing for participation in moderate exercise.
411
A 40-year-old homemaker has come to you to lose weight and reduce back pain. You realize she uses her pain to get attention from her family. Which statement would best motivate her to begin a strengthening program?
You selected: Starting a strengthening program will reduce your back pain and improve your quality of life, enabling you to spend more positive time with your family.
Correct
Explanation:
It may be helpful for the Personal Trainer to address the client's fear of losing family attention by pointing out other positive benefits to participating in an exercise program to alleviate her back pain. (less)
412
Question 2:
(see full question) An advanced client is training with the goal of increasing strength. He has been performing 3 sets, using a 8 to 12 repetition maximum for the past 8 weeks. Which modification will result in the GREATEST strength gains?
You selected: 3 to 5 sets, 5 to 6 reps maximum, for 6 to 12 weeks
Correct
Explanation:
Since the current program has been focusing primarily on muscular endurance, an increase that would be considered progressive and enhance strength would be 5 to 6 reps maximum.
413
(see full question) ________ is performed by moderately forceful attempted exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing one's mouth and pinching one's nose shut while pressing out as if blowing up a balloon.
You selected: Valsalva maneuver
Correct
Explanation:
Valsalva maneuver involves air expiration against a closed glottis.
414
Your client, who is a novice exerciser, wants to begin resistance training in preparation for a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking thorough the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and reps would be appropriate for the first few weeks of training?
Correct response: 1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 reps
Explanation:
For this individual, 1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 repetitions is most appropriate. It will provide an appropriate amount of volume and overload.
415
Consider the following program: Peform a total of six exercises. Select one exercise from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1-2 sets, 8-12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a program best suited?
You selected: Beginner
Correct
Explanation:
Such a program is ideal for a beginning exerciser given the high number of repetitions and few sets.
416
To properly perform static stretching, the muscles should:
You selected: Be held in a stationary position for several seconds at peak tension.
Correct
Explanation:
Static stretching consists of elongating the given muscle to minor discomfort and then holding that stretch for approximately 10 to 30 seconds.
417
During a forward lunge, the shin on the front leg should be:
Vertical.
Explanation:
During a forward lunge, the shin should be vertical to protect the knee.
418
Which type of activity would benefit from having ballistic stretching in the warm-up?
Correct You selected: Basketball
Explanation:
When properly performed, even ballistic or "bouncing" stretches can be as effective as static stretches for increasing joint ROM in individuals engaging in activities that involve ballistic movements such as tennis or basketball. (less)
419
What is the best way to teach a squat to a client who you have identified as a kinesthetic learner?
You selected: Have the client perform the squat as you cue them.
Correct
Explanation:
Communication is more than just verbal; it also includes nonverbal elements such as visual (what is observed) and kinesthetic (what is felt).
420
When performing a stability ball crunch, which of the following movements indicates poor form?
You selected: The ball moves back and forth.
Correct
Explanation:
During a stability ball crunch, the ball should stay stationary so the hip flexors are not doing all the work and requiring a stronger core component .
421
A client who has suffered from whiplash and has been cleared for exercise would most likely benefit from which training routine?
You selected: Stretching the levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoids, strengthening the rhomboids, neck extensors, upper trapezius, and middle trapezius
Correct
Explanation:
When working with a whiplash client, after ruling out fracture, dislocation, instability,
422
Which stretch is most effective for stretching the abdominal wall?
You selected: Modified cobra
Correct
Explanation:
The modified cobra will stretch the abdominal wall
423
You client has an acute hamstring strain. You should AVOID:
Stretching the hamstring for up to 60 seconds per stretch.
Explanation:
The Personal Trainer should encourage injured clients to use the RICE (rest, ice, compression, and elevation)
424
Which of the following is the MOST important safety consideration when working with children?
Correct response: Maintain proper hydration to avoid heat injuries.
Explanation:
Thermoregulatory systems in children are undeveloped compared to an adult and thus are more susceptible to overheating.
425
For a beginning client who displays some minor errors in performing an exercise, what type of cueing is MOST appropriate?
You selected: Provide encouragement for what was done well, and proceed to correct faulty movements.
Correct
Explanation:
There are many different types of cues, including educational, safety, alignment, and motivational cues. In addition, cues may be delivered visually, orally, and through touch (tactile cues). Providing encouragement may help foster emotional support and a positive environment.
426
Which sets, repetitions, and load would result in the GREATEST total training volume?
a) 3 sets x 4 reps with 160 lbs
b) 2 sets x 8 reps with 110 lbs
c) 1 set x 12 reps with 150 lbs
d) 2 sets x 12 reps with 90 lbs
2 sets x 12 reps with 90 lbs
Explanation:
The number of sets performed for each exercise is one variable in what is referred to as the volume of exercise equation. 2 x 12 x 90 lbs results in the highest volume of 2160.
427
For individuals with arthritis, a training session may have been too intense and may need to be modified if the client:
Reports of greater joint pain the following training session.
Explanation:
If the client experiences greater joint pain following a training session, the session may have been too intense and may need to be modified
428
The muscles that are strengthened by dumbbell shrugs are the:
You selected: Levator scapulae and upper trapezius
Correct
Explanation:
Shoulder elevation is the action performed during a shoulder shrug. Thus, the levator scapulae, the upper trapezius, and the rhomboids are prime movers.
429
You client is a 57-year-old male with a history of low back issues. His blood pressure is under control with antihypertensive medication, and he walks daily for 30 minutes. Based on this data he has________ risk factors.
You selected: 2
Correct
Explanation:
The client's age and antihypertensive medication make for two risk factors.
430
The best exercise progression for a sedentary client who wants to begin downhill skiing again would be:
Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing
Explanation:
Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing is the safest progression
431
What is the best plan of action to always practice when spotting a client?
Ask your clients for permission before physically touching them to ensure that they are comfortable with it.
432
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)?
Sedentary
Correct
Explanation:
Not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity (40%–<60% VO2R), at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months, is considered sedentary and a risk factor for CVD
433
Which of the following includes all components of a well-stated exercise goal?
a) Lose 1 to 2 pounds per week over the next ten weeks, through a program of diet, aerobic exercise, and strength training.
b) Increase bicep measurement from 12 to 15 inches in six months through a strength training program of one set of 15 repetitions performed two times per week.
c) Lose 15 pounds in 8 weeks through a program of low-intensity aerobic activity.
d) Increase range of motion in the lower back by performing 40 to 60 abdominal crunches daily for 6 weeks.
Lose 1 to 2 pounds per week over the next ten weeks, through a program of diet, aerobic exercise, and strength training.
Correct
Explanation:
This goal meets the components of a SMART goal: specific, measurable, achievable (or action-oriented), realistic, and time-oriented.
434
Most health benefits occur with at least ________ minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity.
150
Moderate-intensity exercise is recommended at least 30 minutes per day, at least 5 days per week, for a total of at least 150 minutes per week.
435
A general training principle for cardiorespiratory endurance is that it requires:
Activities that involve major muscle groups and is continuous and rhythmic in nature.
Explanation:
Cardiorespiratory endurance training refers to the ability of an individual to perform large muscle, repetitive, moderate- to high-intensity exercise for an extended period.
436
Your client eats a 1,200 kcal/day diet, with 30% of calories from fat. How many grams of fat per day does the client eat?
You selected: 40 grams
Correct
Explanation:
Fat provides 9 kcal/g; 30% of 1,200 is 360 kcal; 40g fat x 9 = 360 kcal.
437
As a source of energy, fat provides:
More than twice the energy of a gram of carbohydrate.
Correct
Explanation:
Fat is a source of energy; fat provides 9 kcal/g.
438
(see full question) Substances that enhance athletic ability through either enhanced endurance or improvement in power are called:
You selected: Ergogenic aids.
Correct
Explanation:
The terms dietary supplements and ergogenic aids are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same thing; ergogenic aids are substances that enhance athletic ability through either improvement in power or enhanced endurance
439
Which of the following is an element of active listening?
Observing nonverbal cues
Explanation:
Personal Trainers are responsible to continually reevaluate the health status of their clients through either formal (direct questions, written, or physical assessments) or informal (casual conversation or observation) means
440
Which of the following is NOT a food group and yet provides essentail nutrients?
a) Refined grains
b) White flour
c) Eggs
d) Oils
Oils
Explanation:
Oils are not a food group, but they do provide essential nutrients and are therefore included in USDA recommendations for what to eat. (choosemyplate.gov)
441
Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of working as an independent contractor?
You selected: The facility allows the Personal Trainer to utilize the facilities' equipment.
Correct
Explanation:
The primary advantage is access to potential clients as well as equipment and facilities.
442
Personal Trainers who provide training to individuals or groups in clients' homes or outdoor settings may need to add a ________ policy to their existing insurance.
Premises liability
Explanation:
Training may take place in a variety of locations, including a health/fitness facility, the outdoors, or in a client's home. The Personal Trainer should take precautions to ensure that every training setting is reasonably safe.
443
The current ACSM Certified Personal Trainer recertification fee is:
$30
444
A Personal Trainer working for a facility that maintains electronic client records should:
Password protect files and never leave the computer with client files open for viewing.
Correct
Explanation:
Personal Trainers must exercise care to protect all client information.
445
Which of the following business structures has the benefit of limited risk and exposure of personal assets?
a) Independent contractor
b) Franchisee
c) S corporation
d) Partnership
S corporation
Explanation:
Benefits of the S Corporation include limited risk and exposure of personal assets, no double taxation on both salary and business income, and freedom for each partner to distribute dividends.
446
One of the benefits of the S corporation is:
Limited risk and exposure of personal assets.
Explanation:
The S corporation, or subchapter corporation, is a popular alternative for small businesses that combines the advantages of the sole proprietorship, partnership, and corporation
447
To enhance training and prevent injury, Personal Trainers should educate clients about appropriate clothing to ensure it allows movement and is comfortable and:
You selected:
Breathable.
Explanation:
Personal Trainers should educate clients about appropriate clothing; clothing should be comfortable, breathable, and allow movement to avoid overheating and to not interfere with exercises.
448
The ACSM Personal Trainer certification is valid for:
3 years.
Explanation:
The ACSM Personal Trainer certification is valid for 3 years .
449
Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to the scope of practice for Personal Trainers?
Conducting a maximal VO2max test to determine a client's need for referral to a physician
Explanation:
A maximal VO2max test should be performed by a medical doctor or other qualified allied health professional. All other scenarios are appropriate as the services being provided are legal and appropriate. (less)
450
Direct marketing sales efforts with signs, flyers, and brochures have a low return on investment because:
They depend on the client to respond to the marketing piece.
Personal Trainers often focus "sales" efforts on creating flyers, brochures, and signs, then hope clients will flock to them; these low-percentage marketing activities are a mistake because they depend on the client to respond to the marketing pieces.
451
A proper cool-down allows the body to help remove ________.
You selected: Lactate
Correct
Explanation:
Cooling down gradually allows the body to remove metabolic waste such as lactate from the body. This reduces muscle soreness and helps prevent injury.
452
Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate?
Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press
Explanation:
A push-up plus off a wall is an example of a closed chain exercise as the arm is fixated to a stationary surface.
453
Which of the following does NOT require an exercise test or a medical supervised test?
a) An individual with metabolic disease wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
b) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
c) An individual with renal disease wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
d) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise
An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
Correct
Explanation:
A client who is asymptomatic and has less than two risk factors does not require a medical exam or exercise testing for participation in moderate exercise
454
Which of the following terms is defined as the relative proportion of fat and fat-free tissue in the body?
You selected: Body composition
Correct
Explanation:
Body composition is defined as the proportion of fat and fat-free body tissue (percent body fat).
455
The five stages of change from the Transtheoretical Model include precontemplation, contemplation, maintenance, action, and:
You selected: Preparation.
Correct
Explanation:
Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance are the five stages of change in the Transtheoretical Model. Your clients may be at various degrees of change readiness, this model tends to predict their ability to change
456
Your client states that she enjoys exercising and feeling the "burning sensation" in her muscles. This statement indicates that she learns best through:
Intrinsic motivation.
Cues may be delivered visually, orally, and through touch (tactile cues). In this instance, the client is getting a "feel" for the movement.
457
Research shows that one of the key factors in behavior change is:
Self-monitoring.
Because research shows that self-monitoring is one of the key factors in behavior change, clients can monitor their own behaviors to assist with goal-setting, problem-solving, feedback, and self-reward.
458
Which of the following is the MOST reliable predictor for exercise participation?
You selected: Previous and positive exercise experiences
Correct
Explanation:
A client who is intrinsically motivated to exercise (i.e., enjoyment, feeling good) is more apt to demonstrate improvements to their self-worth and continue exercise participation long term
459
Failure of Personal Trainers to consider nutrition when working with a client will MOST likely result in which of the following outcomes?
Poor progression and training
Explanation:
Failure to consider nutrition as an integral component of the skills training and conditioning program will increase health risks and result in poor improvement rates.
460
Which of the following best describes active listening?
Listening to verbal and observing non-verbal language
Correct
Explanation:
Active listening is a communication form that is described as a set of verbal and nonverbal skills necessary for communication.
461
Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first two weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects?
You selected: Neural adaptations
Correct
Explanation:
Part of the strength gain resulting from strength training is attributed to changes in the nervous system. This is especially true during the early stages of strength training.
462
Which of the following demonstrates that the Personal Trainer is actively listening to the client?
Nodding the head and making appropriate eye contact
Explanation:
Active listening can consist of nodding the head, making eye contact, and restating important information.
463
(see full question) For most clients, a positive effect of consistent energy deficits is:
Decreased body weight.
Explanation:
Benefits of energy deficits include increasing or maitaining muscle mass, increased metabolic rate, and decreased body weight.
464
Movement resulting in an increase of the joint angle, usually moving posteriorly in the sagittal plane is called __________.
extension
Extension typically occurs in the sagittal plane but can also occur in other planes, provided that the joint angle is increasing
465
Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test?
Thigh
Explanation:
Jackson and Pollock have developed several skinfold formulas that assess the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men and triceps, suprailiac, and thigh for women.
466
Which of the following is a symptom suggestive of pulmonary disease?
You selected: Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area
Correct
Explanation:
Shortness of breath that is abnormal may be indicative of pulmonary disease.
467
Clients will have an understanding of their risk factors based on what theory of behavior change?
You selected: Health belief model
Correct
Explanation:
Individuals who have greater understanding of their health status and risk factors will take action to improve their health.
468
Which of the following statements is ideal for cueing a client as he performs a squat?
a) "Don't lock out your knees."
b) "Be sure to push through your heels."
c) "One, bring your glutes back; two, flex your knees; and three, don't look down."
d) "No, exhale as you straighten your legs."
Correct response: "Be sure to push through your heels."
Explanation:
Remember to phrase all cues positively. Avoid negatively-phrased cues or constant use of the word "no" or "don't." In general, it's best to avoid monotonous counting.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 17, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain III: Exercise Leadership and Client Education, p. 473
469
(see full question) Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the:
You selected: Hip joint
Correct
Explanation:
The hip joint is a multi-axial joint and has 3° of freedom. Thus, it is able to perform action in all planes. Note that circumduction is a combination of adduction, abduction, flexion, and extension. (less)
470
Sending an e-mail to your client concerning strategies to keep active while at work and traveling is an example of:
You selected: Informational support.
Correct
Explanation:
Information support includes sending e-mails from health Web sites about how to incorporate exercise into your client's life.
471
Given the following complete health and medical history, which client has one risk factor?
a) A 21-year-old female who has slight scoliosis with tightness on left hip abductors
b) A 46-year-old male with cholesterol of 208 mg·dL–1 that desires to begin training for his first marathon.
c) A physically active 55-year-old female
d) A 32-year-old male with family history of heart disease and pre-diabetes
A physically active 55-year-old female
Explanation:
The age threshold for females is 55 years of age or older.
472
Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase?
You selected: Prevents blood pooling in the extremities
Correct
Explanation:
A gradual cool-down period will allow heart rate and blood pressure to return to pre-exercise levels and prevent blood pooling.
473
(see full question) Kyphosis is defined as:
The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.
Explanation:
This defines the normal kyphotic curve.
474
When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action?
Eccentric
Explanation:
When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action [e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl].
475
A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration?
Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults.
476
The ulna bone is ________ to the humerus bone.
Distal
Correct
Explanation:
The term "distal" refers to a point away from the midline or further from the point of origin.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 44.
477
(see full question) The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________.
You selected: RPE; resistance; ROM
Correct
Explanation:
There are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement, and the personal trainer should be familiar with other terminology as well.
478
(see full question) What muscle group is strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts?
You selected: Abductors
Correct
Explanation:
The hip abductors include the gluteus medius and gluteus medius which lie deep to the gluteus maximus. These muscles function to abduct and medially rotate the hip joint.
479
Which of the following is not a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise?
You selected: Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms
Correct
Explanation:
Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms is a chronic exercise response.
480
Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane?
You selected: Internal rotation
Explanation:
The transverse plane divides the body from the top and bottom. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a rotation, occurs in this plane.
481
Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels are indicative of prediabetes?124 mg·dL–1
Explanation:
Prediabetes is defined as fasting blood glucose that is between 100 and 126 mg·dL–1
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 19, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 522.
482
A Personal Trainer–Client Agreement must include which of the following policies that also assists with motivation?
No-show
Explanation:
The no-show policy makes it clear to the client that they will be charged for a full session if they do not attend the scheduled session.
483
Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response?
You selected: He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work.
Correct
Explanation:
This individual is utilizing plyometric principles and is not using the proper method for increasing muscle hypertrophy.
484
Which of the following is a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise?
Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms
Explanation:
Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms is a chronic exercise response.
485
(see full question) Which of the following should be avoided in hypertensive clients?
Isometric muscle contractions
Explanation:
Clients with hypertension should primarily engage in aerobic endurance activities and avoid activities that emphasize isometric muscle actions.
486
A client who states that he or she can participate confidently in an exercise program:
Has good self-efficacy related to exercise.
Explanation:
This is a basic definition of self-efficacy; the client believes in hisr or her ability to train regularly and meet goals.
Reference:
487
(see full question) The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip?
Medial
Explanation:
All of the major adductor muscles [adductor longus, adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and gracilis] are located on the medial aspect of the hip joint.
488
You observe a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an exaggerated curve. This postural deviation is known as:
You selected: Kyphosis.
Correct
Explanation:
The thoracic spine has a natural kyphotic curve. A postural deviation here of is technically known as "hyper kyphosis."
489
Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system?
You selected: Alveoli
Correct
Explanation:
The alveoli is the functional unit of the lung.
490
To measure progress toward goals, reassessments should be performed:
Correct response: After approximately 4 to 6 weeks to better reflect a training effect.
Explanation:
A standard for follow-up may be 4 weeks to 3 months depending on the assessment tool.
491
Which of the following statements about flexibility is the MOST accurate?
You selected: With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching.
Correct
Explanation:
With age, the ability to retain full range of motion diminishes due to tighter cross-linkages within and between collagen fibers.
492
Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following?
| You selected: Congestive heart failure
Correct
Explanation:
Chronic venous insufficiency occurs when the veins of the lower leg cannot pump enough blood back to the heart.
493
Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?
| You selected: Sagittal
Correct
Explanation:
Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as a running [flexion/extension of the hip, knee and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion of the ankle joint] occurs in the sagittal plane.
494
Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system?
You selected: Cycling
Correct
Explanation:
Exercises that require oxygen and are done over a long period of time, longer than 3 minutes, work primarily in the aerobic-oxidative system.
495
To build a successful client relationship, you should:
Use a client-centered approach.
Explanation:
The client-centered approach puts the client's needs and goals first and increases the likelihood of affecting behavior change.
496
Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone?
Plyomettric
Impact and weight bearing activities [plyometrics, jumping, resistance training] provide for a stress on the bone to promote positive adaptations in the bone.
497
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding Goal Setting Theory?
Goals bring focus and energy toward the desired behavior
Explanation:
Goal setting theory is based on the premise that setting a particular goal will provide the appropriate attention, energy, and effort needed to reach the goal.
498
The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area?
You selected: Posterior tibial compartment
Correct
Explanation:
These muscles that are responsible for ankle joint plantarflexion are located on the posterior tibial area.
499
The resistance ________ and ________ of training need to be carefully progressed and monitored to limit muscle tissue damage.
Load; volume
Explanation:
Clients need to progress their resistance exercise programs appropriately so they avoid getting injured.
500
Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by ________.
You selected: Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue
Correct
Explanation:
Clients who exhibit signs of rapid muscle breakdown need to be seen by a physician.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for t
501
Because of recent death in his family, a client begins to consider beginning an exercise program. This is known as:
Contemplation.
Explanation:
Contemplation is a stage of change where an individual begins to think about behavior change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consulta
502
Exchange of blood gases and other nutrients within various tissues occur in the ____________.
Capillaries
Explanation:
All exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries at the microscopic level.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 133.
503
What is a potential outcome of maintaining a professional presence and disposition when training clients?
Maintaining a professional presence may also help generate clients, as this is also a form of advertising.
Explanation:
Being approachable by clients and other staff may lead to more interest as it relates to training inquiries.
504
A heart murmur that is clinically significant may be indicative of:
You selected: Valvular heart disease.
Correct
Explanation:
Most heart murmurs are harmless; however, significant murmurs can be a sign of heart valve issues, such as not opening or closing properly.
505
During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should:
You selected: Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible.
Correct
Explanation:
Trainers must assess compatibility with potential clients, and the client's preferences should be taken into account. This assessment also helps with developing rapport and exercise adherence. (less)
506
Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pick-up basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should:
Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity.
Explanation:
The individual has no risk factors and most likely experienced shortness of breath from not playing basketball in a while. Thus, a moderate-intensity exercise program is appropriate
507
Anatomical position of the human body is when the body is in which of the following positions?
You selected: Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended
Correct
Explanation:
The anatomical position is an important point reference in describing joint movement and position
508
Which of the following predicts behavior change depending on the perceived threats to one's well-being?
Health belief model
Explanation:
Clients must perceive a threat to their health before they take action to change their health behavior.
509
Scoliosis is defined as:
You selected: Lateral deviation of the spine.
Correct
Explanation:
Scoliosis is seen when the spine deviates laterally from the midline.
510
(see full question) A Personal Trainer may begin immediately training which of the following clients?
You selected: A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis
Correct
Explanation:
This client is not at any risk threshold for age or health condition. Thus, training may begin immediately without medical clearance.
511
Which of the following strategies will BEST help generate clients?
You selected: Developing a professional network of allied health professionals
Correct
Explanation:
Personal Trainers should become part of a network of mutually referring allied health professionals. This often fosters a win-win situation with respect to referrals.
512
To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________.
extended; flexed
Explanation:
The principles of flexibility require that the muscle be placed in a lengthened position [opposite of the muscle action]. Since the quadriceps functions flex the hip joint and extend the knee joint, it is stretched when the hip joint is extended and the knee joint is flexed.
513
n reviewing your client's medical history, you note that she is on lipid lowering medication and her high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 62 mg·dL–1. Based on her profile, how many total risk factors does she have?
You selected: 0
Correct
Explanation:
While the client's total cholesterol is considered a positive risk factor, this is negated as her HDL-C that is considered a negative risk factor. Thus, the sum total equals zero risk factors.
514
A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration?
Correct response: Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults.
515
(see full question) Which of the following is a chronic response to regular exercise?
Correct response: Reduced blood pressure
Explanation:
A chronic response to exercise is something that occurs usually after 6 to 8 weeks of consitent aerobic training, such as a lower blood pressure at rest.
516
Active listening allows a Personal Trainer to do which of the following effectively?
Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design
Explanation:
Active listening is a necessary skill that demonstrates unconditional acceptance and unbiased reflection of the client's experiences and emotions.
517
(see full question) During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist.
You selected: Quadriceps, hamstrings
Correct
Explanation:
The quadriceps function as an agonist to extend the knee joint, and the hamstrings function as an antagonist since it functions to flex the knee joint.
518
(see full question) A client is exercising once a week and slowly increases to twice a week over the course of a month. This is consistent with which theory of behavior change?
Correct response: Small changes model
Explanation:
The small changes model allows a client to make small changes, which better promotes positive behavior changes and maintenance.
519
Palpitations are BEST defined as:
You selected: An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats.
Correct
Explanation:
Palpitations can vary in sensation but are often described as pounding or racing heartbeats, or that the heart has skipped or stopped beating.
520
A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________.
You selected: Flexion; extension
Correct
Explanation:
A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle.
521
Your client has been performing cardiovascular exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, 3 times per week. During your 3 month assessment you would expect her submaximal heart rate to:
You selected: Decrease by 10%
Correct
Explanation:
Cardiovascular exercise will have a chronic effect of lowering a client's submaximal heart rate over time.
522
(see full question) Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises?
You selected: Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle.
Correct
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius muscle is a biarticulate muscle that acts to flex the knee and plantarflex the ankle. The soleus acts to planarflex the ankle only. When standing, both muscles plantarflex the ankle. When seated, only the soleus plantarflexes the ankle as the gastrocnemius is actively insufficient because it is in a flexed position at the knee joint.
523
(see full question) In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity?
You selected: Shifted over the base of support
Correct
Explanation:
The initial phase of the sit-to-stand movement involves trunk lean and horizontal weight shift to position the center of gravity over the new base of support (feet), placing the lower extremity in a mechanically advantageous position to stand via hip extension, knee extension, and ankle plantarflexion.
524
Higher levels of cardiovascular fitness are associated with:
You selected: Lower mortality rates
Correct
Explanation:
Higher levels of aerobic fitness are associated with lower mortality from heart disease, even after statistical adjustments for age, coronary risk factors, and family history of heart disease.
525
A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least:
30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months.
Explanation:
Participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, for at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months is considered the threshold for an active lifestyle.
526
The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the:
You selected: Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid
Correct
Explanation:
The muscles primarily involved in cable fly and dumbbell fly are the pectoralis major and the anterior deltoid.
527
(see full question) Which of the following should be avoided in hypertensive clients?
You selected: Isometric muscle contractions
Correct
Explanation:
Clients with hypertension should primarily engage in aerobic endurance activities and avoid activities that emphasize isometric muscle actions.
528
Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strengh training in the lumbo-pelvic region?
Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening.
Explanation:
The lumbar muscles play a small role in trunk extension and torque movements during ADLs. Stabilization exercises provide a more effective strength training effect.
529
Which of the following assesses the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and maintaining an activity?
You selected: Decisional balance
Correct
Explanation:
Decisional balance allows assessment of the pros and cons of behavior change
530
(see full question) Muscular strength is defined as:
You selected: A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group.
Correct
Explanation:
Understanding that muscle strength is the maximum force a muscle can exert is important so that you choose the right exercise variables to achieve muscular strength.
531
Question 6:
| (see full question) An example of an open chain exercise is the:
You selected: Leg extension
Correct
Explanation:
Open chain movements occur when the distal segment of a joint moves in space. An example of this is knee extension [leg extension] on a machine.
532
(see full question) Approximately 50% of people who start an exercise program will drop out within the first:
You selected: 6 months.
Correct
Explanation:
Approximately 50% of people who begin an exercise program will drop out within the first 6 months.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 8, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 224.
533
Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency.
You selected: Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult
Correct
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm is created by leaning back and requires more force production at the ankle joint.
534
Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint?
Glenohumeral
Explanation:
An enarthodial joint is a multiaxial joints that permit movements in all directions. This includes the hip joint as well as the glenohumeral joint [shoulder joint].
535
Understanding nonverbal cues is important in establishing a successful client relationship because:
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 293.
You selected: More information is communicated in this manner.
Correct
Explanation:
Body language and other nonverbal cues are believed to be more reliable than spoken words.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 266.
536
Question 11:
(see full question) Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pick-up basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should:
You selected: Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity.
Correct
Explanation:
The individual has no risk factors and most likely experienced shortness of breath from not playing basketball in a while. Thus, a moderate-intensity exercise program is appropriate. (less)
537
Question 18:
| (see full question) Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity?
You selected: Waist of 40 inches for males
Correct
Explanation:
The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 40 inches or greater for males.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 284.
538
Question 20:
| (see full question) A lumbar vertebrae is an example of a ________ bone.
You selected: Irregular
Correct
Explanation:
Irregular bones are oddly shaped [e.g., vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx]
539
Question 19:
| (see full question) An appropriate warm-up for a brisk walk would be?
You selected: A light walk
Correct
Explanation:
Light walking is the best warm-up for brisk walking as it mimics the exercise coming up.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 402.
540
Question 17:
| (see full question) Which of the following BEST fosters exercise adherence and progression toward the client's goal?
You selected: Setting a few attainable short-term goals
Correct
Explanation:
Goals should be structured in a SMART manner that consists of a goal being specific, measurable, action-oriented, realistic, and time-oriented.
541
Question 16:
| (see full question) Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term?
You selected: Horizontal adduction
Correct
Explanation:
Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane is usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90°.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 47.
542
Question 15:
(see full question) Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first two weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects?
You selected: Neural adaptations
Correct
Explanation:
Part of the strength gain resulting from strength training is attributed to changes in the nervous system. This is especially true during the early stages of strength training.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 153.
543
Question 12:
(see full question) Which of the following is a negative risk factor?
t Consultation and Assessment, p. 284.
You selected: High-density lipoprotein 60 mg·dL–1
Correct
Explanation:
High HDL is considered a negative risk factor.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Clien
544
Question 13:
(see full question) Because of recent death in his family, a client begins to consider beginning an exercise program. This is known as:
You selected: Contemplation.
Correct
Explanation:
Contemplation is a stage of change where an individual begins to think about behavior change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 199.
545
Question 14:
| (see full question) Clients will have an understanding of their risk factors based on what theory of behavior change?
You selected: Health belief model
Correct
Explanation:
Individuals who have greater understanding of their health status and risk factors will take action to improve their health.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 213.
546
(see full question) ____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase.
You selected: Systolic blood pressure
Correct
Explanation:
Systole is the force that is produced by the left ventricle as it pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 134.
547
Question 20:
| (see full question) The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________.
Correct response: Cardiac output
Explanation:
Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 134.
548
Question 19:
(see full question) An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change?
```
You selected: Precontemplation
Incorrect
Correct response: Contemplation
Explanation:
An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.
```
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 199.
549
Question 18:
| (see full question) A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:
Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
Explanation:
Pain that occurs during exertion is a cardinal sign of cardiovascular disease.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
550
Question 17:
(see full question) ________ of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is required in order to have beneficial adaptations in cardiorespiratory endurance.
You selected: Overload
Correct
Explanation:
A client needs to overload the cardiovascular system in order to see physiological adaptations.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 400.
551
Question 16:
| (see full question) Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels are indicative of prediabetes?
Correct response: 124 mg·dL–1
Explanation:
Prediabetes is defined as fasting blood glucose that is between 100 and 126 mg·dL–1
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 19, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 522.
552
Question 15:
| (see full question) Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?
You selected: Right ventricle
Correct
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is also known as the right A-V valve which controls blood from the right atrium to the right ventricle.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 132.
553
Question 14:
(see full question) The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________.
You selected: RPE; resistance; ROM
Correct
Explanation:
There are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement, and the personal trainer should be familiar with other terminology as well.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 13, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 347.
554
Question 13:
| (see full question) Which of the following actions takes place in the sagittal plane?
You selected: Dorsiflexion of the ankle
Correct
Explanation:
Dorsiflexion takes place in the sagittal plane.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 52.
555
Question 11:
(see full question) Which of the following theories of behavior change places a great emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings?
You selected: Self cognitive theory
Correct
Explanation:
Clients who believe they can perform a prescribed exercise program, meet goals, or overcome challenges have higher levels of self-efficacy and outcome expectations.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 208.
556
Question 12:
(see full question) Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease?
Correct response: "Heaviness"
Explanation:
"Heaviness" is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
557
Question 6:
(see full question) Which of the following indicates that a client-centered approach is being used?
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 17, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 468.
You selected: The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer.
Correct
Explanation:
Allowing the client to do most of the talking helps establish rapport and is the most important element of the client-centered approach.
558
Question 7:
| (see full question) Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase?
You selected: Prevents blood pooling in the extremities
Correct
Explanation:
A gradual cool-down period will allow heart rate and blood pressure to return to pre-exercise levels and prevent blood pooling.
559
Question 10:
| (see full question) Ischemia is caused by:
You selected: A lack of oxygen.
Correct
Explanation:
Ischemia occurs because oxygen supply cannot meet the oxygen demand for rest or activity. This is usually caused by atherosclerosis, and pain is a commonly reported symptom.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 402.
560
Question 9:
| (see full question) The feeling of chronic muscular fatigue is a sign of:
You selected: Overuse.
Correct
Explanation:
When a client experiences muscle exhaustion, they are most likely overusing their muscles.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 365.
561
Question 8:
| (see full question) Which movement occurs in the frontal plane?
You selected: Elevation of the of the scapula
Correct
Explanation:
With the exception of tilt, all other movements of the scapula occur in the frontal plane. Note that elbow flexion and hip flexion occur in the sagittal plane and supination occurs ... (more)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 43.
562
Question 2:
(see full question) Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the:
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 147.
You selected: Hip joint
Correct
Explanation:
The hip joint is a multi-axial joint and has 3° of freedom. Thus, it is able to perform action in all planes. Note that circumduction is a combination of adduction, abductio ... (more)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 52.
563
Question 3:
(see full question) Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion?
```
You selected: Isometric
Incorrect
Correct response: Isokinetic
Explanation:
The speed of movement is controlled, and the amount of resistance is proportional to the amount of force produced throughout the full range of motion.
```
564
Question 5:
| (see full question) Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity?
Correct response: Waist of 36 inches for females
Explanation:
The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 35 inches or greater for females.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 284.
565
Question 4:
| (see full question) The _________ is responsible for collecting blood from the lungs and pumping it to the body.
You selected: Left atrium and left ventricle
Correct
Explanation:
The left side of the heart functions to pump oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 132.
566
(see full question) A Personal Trainer–Client Agreement must include which of the following policies that also assists with motivation?
Correct response: No-show
Explanation:
The no-show policy makes it clear to the client that they will be charged for a full session if they do not attend the scheduled session.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 275.Question 14:
(see full question) Which of the following is a sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease?
567
Question 2:
| (see full question) A low to high diagonal chop using a medicine ball takes place in:
Correct response: Multiple planes.
Explanation:
A low to high diagonal chop takes place in all three planes.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 43.
568
Question 20:
(see full question) The following statement is a definition of ________: As the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in the stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements.
You selected: Progressive overload
Correct
Explanation:
A client must load themselves progressively because if the load or volume is not increased over time, progress will be limited.
569
Question 19:
| (see full question) Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome?
Correct response: Over-developed anterior deltoid
Explanation:
The anterior deltoid is often more developed than the posterior deltoid in most individuals and may lead to postural abnormalities [shoulder forward and internally rotated] and may ... (more)
570
Question 18:
| (see full question) The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip?
You selected: Medial
Correct
Explanation:
All of the major adductor muscles [adductor longus, adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and gracilis] are located on the medial aspect of the hip joint.
571
Question 17:
| (see full question) To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________.
You selected: extended; flexed
Correct
Explanation:
The principles of flexibility require that the muscle be placed in a lengthened position [opposite of the muscle action]. Since the quadriceps functions flex the hip joint and ex ... (more)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 16, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 443.
572
Question 16:
| (see full question) Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system?
You selected: Cycling
Correct
Explanation:
Exercises that require oxygen and are done over a long period of time, longer than 3 minutes, work primarily in the aerobic-oxidative system.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 141.
573
Question 15:
| (see full question) Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane?
You selected: Adduction
Correct
Explanation:
The frontal plane divides the body from the anterior to posterior. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a adduction, occurs in this plane.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 52.
574
Correct response: Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes
Explanation:
Carrying heavy loads such as suitcases may provoke ischemia and result in discomfort in various areas of the upper extremities.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
F
575
Question 13:
| (see full question) Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST:
Correct response: Determine and establish neutral pelvic position.
Explanation:
Proper posture and alignment must be promoted from the very beginning in activities of daily living as well as exercise.
576
Question 12:
| (see full question) What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise?
Correct response: Past exercise performance
Explanation:
Previous success in exercise is an example of "mastery" which is the most influential component of self-efficacy. Thus, those who have a positive experience often demonstrate self- ... (more)
577
Question 11:
| (see full question) The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the:
Correct response: Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
Explanation:
Specifically, the lower trapezius and pectoralis minor function to depress the scapulothoracic joint.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 69.
578
Question 8:
| (see full question) Anatomical position of the human body is when the body is in which of the following positions?
You selected: Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended
Correct
Explanation:
The anatomical position is an important point reference in describing joint movement and position.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 43.
579
Question 9:
| (see full question) Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training?
Correct response: Mechanical disadvantage
Explanation:
Any resistance exercise is more difficult to perform when there is a mechanical disadvantage.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 369.
580
Question 10:
(see full question) Syncope is defined as:
You selected: Loss of consciousness.
Correct
Explanation:
Syncope is commonly caused by a reduced perfusion of blood flow to the brain.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
581
Question 5:
| (see full question) Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint?
Correct response: Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of weight, plane, and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm with resistance requires more force production at the ... (more)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 369.
582
Question 7:
| (see full question) Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following?
You selected: Congestive heart failure
Correct
Explanation:
Chronic venous insufficiency occurs when the veins of the lower leg cannot pump enough blood back to the heart.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
583
Question 6:
| (see full question) Which of the following is a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise?
You selected: Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms
Correct
Explanation:
Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms is a chronic exercise response.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 401.
584
Question 3:
| (see full question) To build a successful client relationship, you should:
ou selected: Use a client-centered approach.
Correct
Explanation:
The client-centered approach puts the client's needs and goals first and increases the likelihood of affecting behavior change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 268.
585
Question 4:
| (see full question) The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area?
You selected: Posterior tibial compartment
Correct
Explanation:
These muscles that are responsible for ankle joint plantarflexion are located on the posterior tibial area.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 96.
586
Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response?
You selected: He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work.
Correct
Explanation:
This individual is utilizing plyometric principles and is not using the proper method for increasing muscle hypertrophy.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 13, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 357.
587
Question 2:
(see full question) Kyphosis is defined as:
Y
ou selected: The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.
Correct
Explanation:
This defines the normal kyphotic curve.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 98.
588
Question 3:
(see full question) With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change?
Correct response: Preparation
Explanation:
This individual is in the preparation stage as he as developed a specific plan of action toward behavior change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 200.
589
Question 20:
(see full question) Which document acknowledges an "assumption of risk" with regard to the participation in physical activity?
You selected: Informed Consent
Correct
Explanation:
An assumption of risk, also known as an Informed Consent, is a document that explains the risks of participation in physical activity and indicates that the participant acknowledges the inherent risks involved. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 21, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 575.
590
Question 19:
(see full question) During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following?
Correct response: Orthostatic hypotension
Explanation:
The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 19, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 521.
591
Question 18:
| (see full question) Which of the following is an acute response to exercise?
Correct response: Reduced blood flow to the gut
Explanation:
An acute response to exercise is something that happens immediately. Ischemia is an immediate response, versus chronic, which happens over time, such as a lower resting heart rate. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 401.
592
Question 17:
(see full question) Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?
Correct response: Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Explanation:
In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 155.
593
Question 16:
| (see full question) Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia?
Correct response: Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.
Explanation:
Regular exercise improves cholesterol profile by increasing HDL-C levels.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 156.
594
Question 15:
| (see full question) Which of the following does NOT require an exercise test or a medical supervised test?
You selected: An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise
Correct
Explanation:
A client who is asymptomatic and has less than two risk factors does not require a medical exam or exercise testing for participation in moderate exercise.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 293.
595
Question 14:
(see full question) A muscle generates enough force to overcome an external resistance and shorten. This is known as which type of action?
You selected: Concentric
Correct
Explanation:
If force is sufficient to overcome the external resistance [e.g., dumbbell] and the muscle shortens [e.g., the lifting phase of a biceps curl], the muscle action is called concentric]. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 147.
596
Question 13:
| (see full question) The thumb is classified as a ________ joint.
You selected: Saddle
Correct
Explanation:
The thumb is classified as a saddle or sellar joint.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 51.
597
Question 11:
| (see full question) A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least:
You selected: 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months.
Correct
Explanation:
Participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, for at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months is considered the threshold for an active lifestyle.
598
Question 12:
| (see full question) Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint?
You selected: Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings
Correct
Explanation:
The gluteus maximus and hamstrings function to extend the hip joint. Exercises that recruit these muscles include bridging, squats, leg presses, and lunges.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
599
Question 9:
| (see full question) A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement?
You selected: Frontal
Correct
Explanation:
The frontal plane divides the body between the front and back. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a lateral lunge, occurs in the frontal plane.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 44.
600
Question 10:
(see full question) Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease?
You selected: "Heaviness"
Correct
Explanation:
"Heaviness" is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
601
Question 7:
(see full question) Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test?
.
You selected: Thigh
Correct
Explanation:
Jackson and Pollock have developed several skinfold formulas that assess the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men and triceps, suprailiac, and thigh for women.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 12, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 315
602
Question 8:
(see full question) Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion?
You selected: Isokinetic
Correct
Explanation:
The speed of movement is controlled, and the amount of resistance is proportional to the amount of force produced throughout the full range of motion.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 147.
603
Question 4:
| (see full question) Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform?
You selected: F = ma
Correct
Explanation:
The law of acceleration is the 2nd law and states that force is proportional to the product of an object's mass multiplied by its acceleration.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 4, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 111.
604
Question 5:
| (see full question) The study of the mechanics of human movement is called:
Correct response: Kinesiology.
Explanation:
This is a basic definition of kinesiology.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 43.
605
Question 6:
| (see full question) The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________.
Correct response: Cardiac output
Explanation:
Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 134.
606
Question 3:
(see full question) Your potential client has a history of swollen ankles and reports shortness of breath when walking up the stairs. You would classify this as:
You selected: High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance.
Correct
Explanation:
Both swollen ankles [ankle edema] and shortness of breath are major signs of a disease state. Thus, the individual should be classified as high risk and would require medical clearance and testing prior to exercise. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 293.
Question 4:
(see full question) Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint?
You selected: Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended
Correct
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of weight, plane, and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm with resistance requires more force production at the shoulder joint. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 369.
(see full question) Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training?
You selected: Mechanical disadvantage
Correct
Explanation:
Any resistance exercise is more difficult to perform when there is a mechanical disadvantage.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 369.
607
Question 2:
| (see full question) Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint?
Correct response: Scapulothoracic
Explanation:
The scapulothoracic joint is not a true joint, but a physiological [functional] joint.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 61.
608
Question 18:
| (see full question) To demonstrate outstanding customer service during your initial client contact, you should:
Correct response: Arrive early or on time.
Explanation:
An important behavior that communicates your interest and concern for the client is to arrive early and on time.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 264.
609
Question 19:
| (see full question) Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome?
You selected: Over-developed anterior deltoid
Correct
Explanation:
The anterior deltoid is often more developed than the posterior deltoid in most individuals and may lead to postural abnormalities [shoulder forward and internally rotated] and may be related to impingement. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 68.
610
Question 20:
| (see full question) Which of the following program formats would be LEAST appropriate for a beginning exerciser?
You selected: Vigorous-intensity exercise
Correct
Explanation:
A novice exerciser would be better served with endurance activities that require minimal skill or fitness. The rationale here is to promote activity and create a positive experience. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 421.
611
Question 15:
(see full question) A Personal Trainer–Client Agreement must include which of the following policies that also assists with motivation?
You selected: No-show
Correct
Explanation:
The no-show policy makes it clear to the client that they will be charged for a full session if they do not attend the scheduled session.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 275.
612
Question 16:
| (see full question) Exchange of blood gases and other nutrients within various tissues occur in the ____________.
You selected: Capillaries
Correct
Explanation:
All exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries at the microscopic level.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 133.
613
Question 17:
| (see full question) The elbow can performs movements in which plane?
You selected: Sagittal
Correct
Explanation:
Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as a elbow joint flexion or extension, occurs the sagittal plane.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 52.
614
Question 13:
(see full question) Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement?
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 208.
You selected: Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion
Correct
Explanation:
Impingement usually refers to the entrapment of the supraspinatus tendon. This is typically caused by a narrowing of the subacromial space which is located between the acromion and head of the humerus. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 69.
615
Question 14:
| (see full question) A client who states that he or she can participate confidently in an exercise program:
Correct response: Has good self-efficacy related to exercise.
Explanation:
This is a basic definition of self-efficacy; the client believes in hisr or her ability to train regularly and meet goals.
616
Question 9:
(see full question) Which of the following forms may be used if a Health/Medical History Evaluation form is not readily available?
You selected: PAR-Q
Correct
Explanation:
The PAR-Q assesses risk as it relates to heart disease and musculoskeletal symptoms.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 284.
617
Question 10:
| (see full question) In which environmental condition is it MOST important to replace body fluids??
You selected: Exercising in heat
Correct
Explanation:
While fluid loss may occur during cold weather, dehydration must be prevented in hot environmental conditions.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 6, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 179.
618
Question 11:
| (see full question) The ulna bone is ________ to the humerus bone.
You selected: Distal
Correct
Explanation:
The term "distal" refers to a point away from the midline or further from the point of origin.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 44.
619
Question 12:
| (see full question) A lumbar vertebrae is an example of a ________ bone.
You selected: Irregular
Correct
Explanation:
Irregular bones are oddly shaped [e.g., vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx].
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 49.
620
Question 5:
| (see full question) An example of an open chain exercise is the:
You selected: Leg extension
Correct
Explanation:
Open chain movements occur when the distal segment of a joint moves in space. An example of this is knee extension [leg extension] on a machine.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 51.
621
Question 6:
| (see full question) Strength gains during early phases of resistance training are largely due to changes in the:
You selected: Nervous system
Correct
Explanation:
In the early stages of strength training, most strength gains come from changes in the nervous system.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 153.
622
Question 8:
| (see full question) A low to high diagonal chop using a medicine ball takes place in:
You selected: Multiple planes.
Correct
Explanation:
A low to high diagonal chop takes place in all three planes.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 43.
623
Question 7:
| (see full question) In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity?
You selected: Shifted over the base of support
Correct
Explanation:
The initial phase of the sit-to-stand movement involves trunk lean and horizontal weight shift to position the center of gravity over the new base of support (feet), placing the lower extremity in a mechanically advantageous position to stand via hip extension, knee extension, and ankle plantarflexion. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 46.
624
Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 367.
Correct response: Moderate soreness
Explanation:
Reduce the intensity of the workout if the client reports too much muscle soreness, as this can lead to injury. If symptoms are extreme, tissue damage may be more serious, and DOMS is likely to reduce training potential and have a deleterious effect on performance. (less)
625
Question 2:
| (see full question) The most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training is:
You selected: Muscle hypertrophy.
Correct
Explanation:
Hypertrophy is the most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 153.
626
Question 20:
(see full question) Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?
You selected: Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Correct
Explanation:
In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 155.
627
Question 19:
| (see full question) A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:
You selected: Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
Correct
Explanation:
Pain that occurs during exertion is a cardinal sign of cardiovascular disease.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
628
Question 18:
(see full question) Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches?
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
Correct response: Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion.
Explanation:
The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
629
Question 17:
| (see full question) Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability?
Correct response: Glenohumeral
Explanation:
The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 58.
630
Question 16:
| (see full question) Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint?
Correct response: Subscapularis
Explanation:
The subscapularis internally rotates the glenohumeral joint.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 68.
631
Question 15:
(see full question) With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change?
Correct response: Preparation
Explanation:
This individual is in the preparation stage as he as developed a specific plan of action toward behavior change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 200.
632
Question 14:
(see full question) Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency.
You selected: Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult
Correct
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm is created by leaning back and requires more force production at the ankle joint. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 369.
633
Question 13:
(see full question) According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines, significant health benefits can be achieved with ________.
Y
ou selected: A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.
Correct
Explanation:
Through research, ACSM has determined that 3 to 5 days of moderate to vigorous exercise for 30 to 60 minutes per session will improve health.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 399.
634
Question 12:
(see full question) Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage?
You selected: An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood
Incorrect
Correct response: An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise
Explanation:
The precontemplation stage is consistent with not being aware of needing to change behavior or the benefits of such change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 200.
635
Question 11:
| (see full question) Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise?
You selected: 85%–90%
Correct
Explanation:
At rest, 15%–20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85%–90% of cardiac ouput is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 135.
636
Question 8:
(see full question) Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?
Correct response: Erector spinae
Explanation:
The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
637
Question 9:
| (see full question) Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint?
You selected: ATP and creatine phosphate
Correct
Explanation:
The predominant energy pathways utilized for sustained power up to 10 seconds is ATP and creatine phosphate.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 141.
638
Question 10:
| (see full question) Approximately 50% of people who start an exercise program will drop out within the first:
You selected: 6 months.
Correct
Explanation:
Approximately 50% of people who begin an exercise program will drop out within the first 6 months.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 8, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 224.
639
Question 5:
(see full question) The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?
You selected: Latissimus dorsi and teres major
Incorrect
Correct response: Multifidus and erector spinae
Explanation:
The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
640
Question 6:
(see full question) A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort.
You selected: Decrease, decrease
Correct
Explanation:
Regular aerobic training results in a lower heart rate response at rest and during exercise.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 155.
641
Question 7:
(see full question) Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to:
You selected: Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
Correct
Explanation:
Familiarity with the assessment will minimize anxiety and confusion, and practice of the assessment movements will enhance assessment results.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 277.
642
Question 3:
(see full question) An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change?
```
You selected: Precontemplation
Incorrect
Correct response: Contemplation
Explanation:
An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.
```
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 199.
643
Question 4:
| (see full question) The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the:
You selected: Medial deltoid and supraspinatus
Correct
Explanation:
The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 57.
644
(see full question) Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest.
Correct response: Moderate soreness
Explanation:
Reduce the intensity of the workout if the client reports too much muscle soreness, as this can lead to injury. If symptoms are extreme, tissue damage may be more serious, and DOMS is likely to reduce training potential and have a deleterious effect on performance. (less)
645
Question 2:
| (see full question) The most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training is:
You selected: Muscle hypertrophy.
Correct
Explanation:
Hypertrophy is the most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 153.
646
Question 20:
(see full question) Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?
You selected: Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Correct
Explanation:
In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood. (less)
647
Question 19:
| (see full question) A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:
You selected: Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
Correct
Explanation:
Pain that occurs during exertion is a cardinal sign of cardiovascular disease.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 11, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 285.
648
Question 18:
(see full question) Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches?
Correct response: Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion.
Explanation:
The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
649
Question 17:
| (see full question) Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability?
Correct response: Glenohumeral
Explanation:
The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 58.
650
Question 16:
| (see full question) Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint?
Correct response: Subscapularis
Explanation:
The subscapularis internally rotates the glenohumeral joint.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 68.
651
Question 12:
| (see full question) Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage?
You selected: An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood
Incorrect
Correct response: An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise
Explanation:
The precontemplation stage is consistent with not being aware of needing to change behavior or the benefits of such change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 200.
652
Question 13:
| (see full question) According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines, significant health benefits can be achieved with ________.
You selected: A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.
Correct
Explanation:
Through research, ACSM has determined that 3 to 5 days of moderate to vigorous exercise for 30 to 60 minutes per session will improve health.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 15, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 399.
653
Question 15:
(see full question) With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change?
Correct response: Preparation
Explanation:
This individual is in the preparation stage as he as developed a specific plan of action toward behavior change.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 200.
654
Question 14:
(see full question) Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency.
You selected: Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult
Correct
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm is created by leaning back and requires more force production at the ankle joint. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 14, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 369.
655
Question 6:
(see full question) A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort.
You selected: Decrease, decrease
Correct
Explanation:
Regular aerobic training results in a lower heart rate response at rest and during exercise.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 155.
656
Question 7:
(see full question) Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to:
You selected: Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
Correct
Explanation:
Familiarity with the assessment will minimize anxiety and confusion, and practice of the assessment movements will enhance assessment results.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 10, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 277.
657
Question 11:
| (see full question) Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise?
You selected: 85%–90%
Correct
Explanation:
At rest, 15%–20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85%–90% of cardiac ouput is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 135.
658
Question 9:
| (see full question) Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint?
You selected: ATP and creatine phosphate
Correct
Explanation:
The predominant energy pathways utilized for sustained power up to 10 seconds is ATP and creatine phosphate.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 5, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 141.
659
Question 10:
| (see full question) Approximately 50% of people who start an exercise program will drop out within the first:
You selected: 6 months.
Correct
Explanation:
Approximately 50% of people who begin an exercise program will drop out within the first 6 months.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 8, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 224.
660
Question 8:
(see full question) Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?
Correct response: Erector spinae
Explanation:
The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine. (less)
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
661
Question 3:
(see full question) An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change?
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 7, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 199.
Correct response: Contemplation
Explanation:
An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.
662
Question 4:
| (see full question) The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the:
You selected: Medial deltoid and supraspinatus
Correct
Explanation:
The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 57.
663
Question 5:
| (see full question) The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?
Correct response: Multifidus and erector spinae
Explanation:
The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed., Chapter 3, Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014, Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment, p. 59.
664
16 quiz
| (see full question) Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following?
You selected: Congestive heart failure
Correct
Explanation:
Chronic venous insufficiency occurs when the veins of the lower leg cannot pump enough blood back to the heart.
665
Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"?
You selected: Sagittal
Correct
Explanation:
Hyperlordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine that would be viewed in the sagittal plane.
666
Prediabetes is defined as fasting blood glucose that is between
100 and 126 mg·dL–1
667
The muscles primarily involved in cable fly and dumbbell fly are the
pectoralis major and the anterior deltoid.
668
Ischemia is caused by
a lack of o2
669
Ischemia occurs because
oxygen supply cannot meet the oxygen demand for rest or activity. This is usually caused by atherosclerosis, and pain is a commonly reported symptom.
670
As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change?
Transtheoretical model of change
Explanation:
Clients may be in precontemplation when they are not committed to making any behavior changes as they may not be aware there is a need to do so
671
Which of the following theories of behavior change places a great emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings?
self cognitive theory
Clients who believe they can perform a prescribed exercise program, meet goals, or overcome challenges have higher levels of self-efficacy and outcome expectations.
672
A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions?
closed pack
673
A joint is in a "closed pack" position when there is
both maximal congruency of the joint surfaces and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. This offers the most stable position for joint.
674
Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms?
Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent
675
(see full question) Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following?
You selected: Prediabetes
Correct
Explanation:
Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition of prediabetes where blood glucose is elevated between 100 and 125 mg·dL–1 following an oral glucose tolerance test on two separate occasions.
676
Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles?
Rhomboids and mid-trapezius
Explanation:
The muscles that function to retract the scapula are the rhomboids and mid trapezius
677
(see full question) What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise?
You selected: Past exercise performance
Correct
Explanation:
Previous success in exercise is an example of "mastery" which is the most influential component of self-efficacy. Thus, those who have a positive experience often demonstrate self-efficacy as it relates to exercise participation
678
(see full question) During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should:
You selected: Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible.
Correct
Explanation:
Trainers must assess compatibility with potential clients, and the client's preferences should be taken into account. This assessment also helps with developing rapport and exercise adherence
679
While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was:
You selected: Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.
Correct
Explanation:
The infraspinatus and teres minor are external rotators of the shoulder joint, and normal range is 70° to 90°.
680
(see full question) You discover the following information about Rosalyn, your new 54-year-old female client:
BMI = 24.3 (68", 160 lbs)
Total cholesterol: 190 mg·dL–1
HDL cholesterol: 62 mg·dL–1
Blood pressure: 128/84 mm Hg with antihypertensive medication
Former smoker: quit 2 months ago
Family history: Father diagnosed with coronary heart disease at age 54
Walks to work 8 minutes each way
Based on this information above, you determine that Rosalyn has:
Correct response: 3 positive and 1 negative risk factors.
Explanation:
Positive risk factors include hypertension, smoking, and family history. The only negative risk factor is HDL-C levels.
681
17 q
| Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST:
You selected: Determine and establish neutral pelvic position.
Correct
Explanation:
Proper posture and alignment must be promoted from the very beginning in activities of daily living as well as exercise.
682
Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in promoting client ownership of the exercise program?
Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality.
Explanation:
The Personal Trainer should help each client come to the conclusion that taking ownership of his or her behavior change is worthwhile.
683
What are the muscles and joint action required for a dumbbell front raise?
You selected: Pectoralis major and flexion
Correct
Explanation:
The pectoralis major [as well as the anterior deltoid, long head of the biceps brachii, and coracobrachialis] are involved in flexion of the shoulder joint, which is required for a dumbbell front raise.
684
The anaerobic system uses which substrate as its primary source for creating ATP?
You selected: Carbohydrates
Correct
Explanation:
The anaerobic system uses primarily carbohydrates for fuel.
685
(see full question) Which of the following is an endurance exercise training adaptation that benefits those with coronary artery disease?
You selected: Provides relief of symptoms
Correct
Explanation:
Most individuals with CAD have a subnormal functional capacity and may be limited by symptoms at relatively low levels of exertion. Training improves myocardial oxygen supply, decreased oxygen demand, or both and may provide relief of angina pectoris [i.e., chest pain/discomfort].
686
Question 7:
(see full question) Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest.
You selected: Moderate soreness
Correct
Explanation:
Reduce the intensity of the workout if the client reports too much muscle soreness, as this can lead to injury. If symptoms are extreme, tissue damage may be more serious, and DOMS is likely to reduce training potential and have a deleterious effect on performance.
687
Question 8:
| (see full question) To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________.
You selected: extended; flexed
Correct
Explanation:
The principles of flexibility require that the muscle be placed in a lengthened position [opposite of the muscle action]. Since the quadriceps functions flex the hip joint and extend the knee joint, it is stretched when the hip joint is extended and the knee joint is flexed
688
(see full question) Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises?
You selected: Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle.
Correct
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius muscle is a biarticulate muscle that acts to flex the knee and plantarflex the ankle. The soleus acts to planarflex the ankle only. When standing, both muscles plantarflex the ankle. When seated, only the soleus plantarflexes the ankle as the gastrocnemius is actively insufficient because it is in a flexed position at the knee joint
689
What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint?
You selected: Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion
Correct
Explanation:
The rotator cuff's primary role is to stabilize the shoulder joint. When these muscles have good muscular strength and endurance, they help center the head of the humerus in the center of the glenoid fossa which aids with positional control during movement.
690
(see full question) Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should:
Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. Leaning forward recruits more of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings. By minimizing forward flexion, the quadriceps will be recruited more
691
(see full question) Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?
The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine.
692
In general, behaviors are so difficult to change because the client:
You selected: Has maintained this behavior over time and has reinforced it in his or her environment.
Correct
Explanation:
While many factors play a role, it becomes more difficult to change a behavior when it has been reinforced over a long period of time.
693
18
| Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi?
You selected: Levator scapulae
Correct
Explanation:
"Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure. In this instance, the levator scapulae is located above the latissimus dorsi.
694
The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?
You selected: Multifidus and erector spinae
Correct
Explanation:
The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.
695
Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease?
You selected: Endurance exercise training
Correct
Explanation:
Endurance exercise training typically increases myocardial oxygen supply, lowers the demand for oxygen, or both.
696
Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next?
You selected: Self-efficacy
Correct
Explanation:
Self-efficacy and confidence in change are important tools in helping empowering the client to the next stage of change.
697
Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane.
You selected: Extension; sagittal
Correct
Explanation:
Most flexion movements will usually occur in the sagittal plane. Note that extension also occurs in the sagittal plane.
698
(see full question) A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________.
You selected: Flexion; extension
Correct
Explanation:
A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle.
699
(see full question) Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches?
You selected: Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion.
Correct
Explanation:
The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
700
You selected: Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion.
.
Correct
Explanation:
The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation
701
Health risk with respect to waist-to-hip ratio is considered high when
more than 0.86
702
The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip?
You selected: Medial
Correct
Explanation:
All of the major adductor muscles [adductor longus, adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and gracilis] are located on the medial aspect of the hip joint.
703
What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly?
You selected: Horizontal abduction
Correct
Explanation:
A reverse cable fly and reverse dumbbell fly begins with the hands together at the shoulder level. The arms perform horizontal abduction by moving the arms back in the transverse plane.
704
The resistance ________ and ________ of training need to be carefully progressed and monitored to limit muscle tissue damage.
Load; volume
Explanation:
Clients need to progress their resistance exercise programs appropriately so they avoid getting injured.
705
Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise?
You selected: Increase in stroke volume
Correct
Explanation:
An increase in stroke volume is an acute [immediate] response to cardiorespiratory exercise.
706
Which of the following is an acute response to exercise?
You selected: Increase in stroke volume
Correct
Explanation:
An increase in stroke volume is an acute [immediate] response to cardiorespiratory exercise.
707
Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage?
You selected: An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise
Correct
Explanation:
The precontemplation stage is consistent with not being aware of needing to change behavior or the benefits of such change.
708
During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following?
You selected: Orthostatic hypotension
Correct
Explanation:
The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.
709
(see full question) Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following?
Increased force requirements of the quadriceps
Explanation:
A board placed under the heels during a squat increases quadriceps work since a mechanical disadvantage is created.
710
Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint?
Scapulothoracic
Correct
Explanation:
The scapulothoracic joint is not a true joint, but a physiological [functional] joint
711
The foot's most stable position is in __________ due to the overall shape of the __________.
Dorsiflexion; talus
Explanation:
An ankle joint is in a dorsiflexed position which is considered a "closed pack" position since there is maximal congruency of the joint surfaces [talus and calcaneus] and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments.
712
A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains.
75%; 90%
Explanation:
A client needs to have adequate overload [75%–90%] to see improved strength gains.
713
19
| Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to:
You selected: Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
Correct
Explanation:
Familiarity with the assessment will minimize anxiety and confusion, and practice of the assessment movements will enhance assessment results.
714
Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise?
Teres major
Explanation:
The teres major is also known as the "little" lat and has the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension.
715
(see full question) Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise?
You selected: 85%–90%
Correct
Explanation:
At rest, 15%–20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85%–90% of cardiac ouput is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs
716
A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:
You selected: Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
Correct
Explanation:
Pain that occurs during exertion is a cardinal sign of cardiovascular disease.
717
The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions.
You selected: Sagittal plane; flexion/extension
Correct
Explanation:
The lumbar zygapophysial joints [facet joints] are angled to allow flexion and extension and restrict axial rotation
718
Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint?
You selected: Subscapularis
Correct
Explanation:
The subscapularis internally rotates the glenohumeral joint.
719
Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl?
Palmaris longus
Explanation:
The palmaris longus [as well as the flexor carpi radialis, ulnaris, and flexor digitorum superficialis] are involved in wrist flexion, which is the movement for a wrist curl.
720
To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.
Abduction
Explanation:
The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side
721
Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging?
You selected: Serratus anterior
Correct
Explanation:
Winging of the scapula results from weakness or dysfunction of the serratus anterior.
722
(see full question) A lumbar vertebrae is an example of a ________ bone.
You selected: Irregular
Correct
Explanation:
Irregular bones are oddly shaped [e.g., vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx].
723
Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine?
Internal and external obliques
Explanation:
The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
724
(see full question) Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of:
Increased capillary density
Explanation:
Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.
725
Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform?
You selected: F = ma
Correct
Explanation:
The law of acceleration is the 2nd law and states that force is proportional to the product of an object's mass multiplied by its acceleration.
726
Question 18:
(see full question) In reviewing your client's medical history, you note that she is on lipid lowering medication and her high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 62 mg·dL–1. Based on her profile, how many total risk factors does she have?
You selected: 0
Correct
Explanation:
While the client's total cholesterol is considered a positive risk factor, this is negated as her HDL-C that is considered a negative risk factor. Thus, the sum total equals zero risk factors.
727
According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines, significant health benefits can be achieved with ________.
You selected: A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.
Correct
Explanation:
Through research, ACSM has determined that 3 to 5 days of moderate to vigorous exercise for 30 to 60 minutes per session will improve health.
728
Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?
The serratus anterior and pectoralis minor function to protract the scapula.
729
20
| Increased mitochondrial density is a result of:
You selected: Chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
Correct
Explanation:
The mitochondria is the work horse of the cell; therefore, increased mitochondrial density is a result of chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
730
A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains.
You selected: 75%; 90%
Correct
Explanation:
A client needs to have adequate overload [75%–90%] to see improved strength gains.
731
You client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should:
You selected: Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.
Correct
Explanation:
To protect you and the client, have up-to-date information on the client's health and medical history, a signed Medical Clearance Form from their physician, and a signed Informed Consent BEFORE training commences
732
Which rotator cuff muscle(s) externally rotate the shoulder joint?
Teres minor and infraspinatus
Explanation:
The teres minor and infraspinatus are located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and function to externally rotate the shoulder joint.
733
A joint is in a "closed pack" position when there is both maximal congruency of the joint surfaces and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. This offers the most WHAT?
stable position for joint.
734
A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change?
Maintenance
Explanation:
The rationale for suggesting that she train with you for a few sessions is to give her more exercise "tools" to work with, as well as preserve her behavior to exercise.
735
A heart murmur that is clinically significant may be indicative of:
You selected: Valvular heart disease.
Correct
Explanation:
Most heart murmurs are harmless; however, significant murmurs can be a sign of heart valve issues, such as not opening or closing properly.
736
Which of the following best describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles?
There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length.
Explanation:
Total muscle force is maximal when the muscle is slightly elongated and diminished when returned to a normal resting length.
737
Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane?
30° anterior to the frontal plane
Explanation:
The scapula lies in the scapular plane [also known as scaption] that lies 30° anteriorly, relative to the frontal plane.
738
So that clients do not call at the last minute to let you know they will not be able to make a session, the Personal Trainer-Client Agreement must include clear language with respect to the:
You selected: Cancellation policy.
Correct
Explanation:
The cancellation policy makes it clear to the client the financial ramifications of not making arrangements to reschedule an appointment per the agreement.
739
While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was:
Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.
Explanation:
The infraspinatus and teres minor are external rotators of the shoulder joint, and normal range is 70° to 90°
740
Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"?
You selected: Sagittal
Correct
Explanation:
Hyperlordosis is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine that would be viewed in the sagittal plane.
741
21
You are performing a submaximal treadmill test for your client where you are gradually increasing the speed and grade. You observe a normal response to heart rate and blood pressure during the first several stages. During the next increase in speed and grade, you observe that SBP drops about 12 mm Hg. You should:
Terminate the assessment.
Explanation:
Exercise testing should be terminated in persons demonstrating a decrease in SBP during further exercise (exertional hypotension).
742
Obese clients benefit most from which of the following?
You selected: Exercise and dietary restrictions
Correct
Explanation:
Most evidence indicates that exercise alone (without dietary restriction) is fairly ineffective for weight loss in obese clients
743
Which law of motion states that an object at rest will stay at rest and an object in motion stays in motion?
Law of inertia
Explanation:
This is a partial description that refers to the first law of motion, which is the law of inertia
744
Your client, who is a novice exerciser, wants to begin resistance training in preparation for a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking thorough the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and reps would be appropriate for the first few weeks of training?
1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 reps
Explanation:
For this individual, 1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 repetitions is most appropriate. It will provide an appropriate amount of volume and overload
745
Which of the following advanced resistance training techniques should be used only 1 to 2 times per year for 4 to 6 week training cycles?
Forced negatives
Explanation:
Repetitions during traditional sets can be enhanced with force applied to the ECC phase via the Personal Trainer (forced negatives). Heavy ECC training should be used with caution (4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year) to reduce muscle damage and the risk of overtraining or injury
746
(see full question) A 33-year-old male who comes to you with previous weight training experience would benefit from how many reps per exercise?
You selected: 8 to 12
Correct
Explanation:
For healthy adults, 1 to 2 sets of 8 to 12 repetitions is recommended for beginners.
747
An appropriate progression for balance training should transition from:
You selected: Sitting to standing
Correct
Explanation:
Progression in balance training should move from simple to complex such as sitting to standing
748
What is the proper exercise sequence for these advanced exercises?
Squat, lunge, bench press, tricep extension, bicep curl, abdominal crunch
Explanation:
Large muscle groups should be worked before small muscle groups.
749
A key benefit from regular physical activity or exercise is a decrease in:
Another benefit of chronic exercise is a decrease in anxiety and depression.
750
Optimal client goals should be ________.
S.M.A.L.L.
Explanation:
According to the small changes model, goals should be small, (self-selected, measurable, action oriented, linked to your life, and long term).
751
Consider the following program: Peform a total of six exercises. Select one exercise from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1-2 sets, 8-12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a program best suited?
Beginner
Explanation:
Such a program is ideal for a beginning exerciser given the high number of repetitions and few sets.
752
The best exercise progression for a sedentary client who wants to begin downhill skiing again would be:
Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing
Explanation:
Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing is the safest progression
753
Which stretch is best for stretching the iliopsoas?
The best stretch for the iliopsoas is the kneeling hip flexor stretch.
754
Tai chi is considered which type of exercise?
Neuromotor exercises include tai chi, yoga, and Pilates to name a few.
755
Resistance training in cardiac patients improves:
Resistance training in cardiac patients improves muscular strength and endurance while decreasing the cardiovascular demands of a given task.
756
Which muscle is responsible for protraction of the scapula?
The serratus anterior protracts the scapula and is active in reaching and pushing. Winging of the scapula results from serratus anterior dysfunction, which is possibly related to long thoracic nerve dysfunction.
757
Which of the following includes all components of a well-stated exercise goal?
This goal meets the components of a SMART goal: specific, measurable, achievable (or action-oriented), realistic, and time-oriented.
758
22
The upper trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula and the lower trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula.
Fibers of both the upper and lower trapezius function to upwardly rotate the scapula.
759
Your potential 37-year-old client is on medication to control her hypertension and wishes to start a moderate-intensity exercise program. She has no other risk factors. You should:
Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity.
Explanation:
Since the client only has one risk factor of being on antihypertensive medication, a moderate-intensity exercise program with gradual progression would be appropriate, provided that she is monitored for adverse signs and symptoms.
760
Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction?
Examples of exercises that utilize the action of the pectoralis major are the chest fly, pec deck, cable crossover [horizontal adduction], incline bench press, and dumbbell front raise [flexion]. (less)
761
Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client information?
The Client Intake Form should be completed when initial client contact is made.
762
Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next?
Self-efficacy and confidence in change are important tools in helping empowering the client to the next stage of change.
763
The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?
The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.
764
Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine?
The internal oblique [same side rotator] and external oblique [opposite side rotator] are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
765
Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint?
Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of weight, plane, and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm with resistance requires more force production at the shoulder joint. (less)
766
(see full question) The following statement is a definition of ________: As the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in the stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements.
Progressive overload
Correct
Explanation:
A client must load themselves progressively because if the load or volume is not increased over time, progress will be limited.
767
Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise?
Teres major
Explanation:
The teres major is also known as the "little" lat and has the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension
768
Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?
The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine. (less)
769
Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl?
The palmaris longus [as well as the flexor carpi radialis, ulnaris, and flexor digitorum superficialis] are involved in wrist flexion, which is the movement for a wrist curl.
770
Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck towards the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
You selected: Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
Correct
Explanation:
The Personal Trainer must be alert to any and all feedback to ensure that the program is appropriate. As part of the Informed Consent, the client should be informed what can be expected with respect to "normal" sensations and regular responses during resistance training.
771
When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be ________.
The vertical line should fall slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus.
772
Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane.
Most flexion movements will usually occur in the sagittal plane. Note that extension also occurs in the sagittal plane.
773
Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of:
Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.
774
During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with:
Lactate threshold.
Explanation:
In strenuous exercise, when energy demand is high and ventilation is at its peak, lactate accumulates contributing to fatigue and increases ventilation in a nonlinear fashion.
775
23
| Which of the following is considered a normal response to resistance training for the chest?
Mild soreness in the pec major
Correct
Explanation:
Some swelling, pain, and soreness are common and classical signs of muscle tissue adaptation following a workout.
776
What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children when compared with adults?
The physiological response to acute exercise in children is comparable to that in their adult counterparts. An exception here is SBP decreases [usually increases with adults] and DBP decreases [usually no change or slight increase]. (less)
777
Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint?
The long head of the biceps brachii crosses over the shoulder joint and thus assists in shoulder flexion. This occurs via reverse muscle action where the origin moves toward the insertion.
778
Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?
The serratus anterior and pectoralis minor function to protract the scapula.
779
Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint?
The bicep femoris is a prime mover for hip joint extension and knee joint flexion and also externally rotates the hip joint.
780
As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change?
Transtheoretical model of change
Explanation:
Clients may be in precontemplation when they are not committed to making any behavior changes as they may not be aware there is a need to do so.
781
Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system?
Joints are the articulations between bones, and along with bones and ligaments, they constitute the articular system.
782
Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction?
When contracted unilaterally, the erector spinae performs lateral flexion, and the multifidus performs axial rotation.
783
During the concentric phase of a hamstring curl, the hamstrings are __________.
You selected: Flexed
Correct
Explanation:
The hamstrings flex the knee joint when a concentric action occurs
784
What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly?
A reverse cable fly and reverse dumbbell fly begins with the hands together at the shoulder level. The arms perform horizontal abduction by moving the arms back in the transverse plane. (less)
785
The shoulder girdle refers to which specific joint?
The shoulder girdle is also known as the scapulothoracic joint. This is not a true joint, as the scapula has no true bony articulation with the thoracic spine but is instead held in place by muscle attachments.
786
The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.
The posterior deltoid functions to extend the shoulder joint at approximately 40° to 60° in most people.
787
To measure progress toward goals, reassessments should be performed:
After approximately 4 to 6 weeks to better reflect a training effect.
Correct
Explanation:
A standard for follow-up may be 4 weeks to 3 months depending on the assessment tool.
788
25
For a client whot appears to be ready to work with a personal trainer and make other necessary changes, which of the following tools can be utilized to help a client move toward the next stage of change?
Decisional balance
Explanation:
For clients who appear to be ready to make necessary behavioral changes, the use of decisional balance will allow the client to assess the importance of the pros and cons and work through any challenges
789
Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi?
"Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure. In this instance, the levator scapulae is located above the latissimus dorsi. (less)
790
Increased mitochondrial density is a result of:
Chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
Correct
Explanation:
The mitochondria is the work horse of the cell; therefore, increased mitochondrial density is a result of chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
791
Which of the following theories of behavior change has been shown to increase an individual's intention to exercise?
The theory of planned behavior suggests that intention to exercise will most likely result in that specific behavior.
792
Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should:
Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. Leaning forward recruits more of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings. By minimizing forward flexion, the quadriceps will be recruited more
793
You client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should:
Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.
Explanation:
To protect you and the client, have up-to-date information on the client's health and medical history, a signed Medical Clearance Form from their physician, and a signed Informed Consent BEFORE training commences.
794
Which of the following predicts behavior change depending on the perceived threats to one's well-being?
Health belief model
Explanation:
Clients must perceive a threat to their health before they take action to change their health behavior
795
Which rotator cuff muscle(s) externally rotate the shoulder joint?
The teres minor and infraspinatus are located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and function to externally rotate the shoulder joint.
796
During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following?
Orthostatic hypotension
The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.
797
The upper respiratory tract consists of ________.
The upper respiratory tract consists of the nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx.
798
During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with:
Lactate threshold.
Correct
Explanation:
In strenuous exercise, when energy demand is high and ventilation is at its peak, lactate accumulates contributing to fatigue and increases ventilation in a nonlinear fashion.
799
When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action?
You selected: Eccentric
Correct
Explanation:
When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action [e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl].
800
To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.
Abduction
Explanation:
The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side
801
What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training?
26
You selected: Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance
802
27
As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change?
Transtheoretical model of change
Correct
Explanation:
Clients may be in precontemplation when they are not committed to making any behavior changes as they may not be aware there is a need to do so.
803
Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus?
Pectoralis major
Explanation:
The pectoralis major is one of the larger muscles that produces movement about the shoulder joint and thus attaches to the humerus.
804
Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint?
The long head of the biceps brachii crosses over the shoulder joint and thus assists in shoulder flexion. This occurs via reverse muscle action where the origin moves toward the insertion. (less)
805
Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck towards the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
The Personal Trainer must be alert to any and all feedback to ensure that the program is appropriate. As part of the Informed Consent, the client should be informed what can be expected with respect to "normal" sensations and regular responses during resistance training. (less)
806
Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?
The serratus anterior and pectoralis minor function to protract the scapula.
807
What are the muscles and joint action required for a dumbbell front raise?
The pectoralis major [as well as the anterior deltoid, long head of the biceps brachii, and coracobrachialis] are involved in flexion of the shoulder joint, which is required for a dumbbell front raise. (less)
808
The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the:
Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
Explanation:
Specifically, the lower trapezius and pectoralis minor function to depress the scapulothoracic joint.
809
Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine?
Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques
Explanation:
The quadratus lumborum attaches to the posterior ilium, and the internal and external oblique attaches to the medial ilium. All function to laterally flex the spine.
810
Your client is performing a dumbbell lunge with the weight in her right hand and right leg forward. You notice that during the concentric phase, she drops her pelvis on the contralateral side. Which muscle is MOST likely weak?
Right gluteus medius
Explanation:
Gluteus medius is an abductor and medial rotator of the hip joint. If this is weak, it will result in the tilting below horizontal to the contralateral side.
811
What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children when compared with adults?
SBP decreases and DBP decreases.
Explanation:
The physiological response to acute exercise in children is comparable to that in their adult counterparts. An exception here is SBP decreases [usually increases with adults] and DBP decreases [usually no change or slight increase]. (less)
812
Muscular endurance is defined as:
Understanding that muscle endurance is the ability to apply a force repeatedly over time is important so that you choose right exercise variables to achieve muscular strength.
813
Which of the following would help a Personal Trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial interview?
Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean
Explanation:
These positions and body language are powerful non-verbal behaviors that demonstrate attentiveness and interest.
814
Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint?
The muscles that evert the ankle joint include the peroneus longs and brevis.
815
A typical chronic response to improved cardiorespiratory fitness is an increase in:
Maximal oxygen consumption
816
28
Personal Trainers who provide training to individuals or groups in clients' homes or outdoor settings may need to add a ________ policy to their existing insurance.
Premises liability
Explanation:
Training may take place in a variety of locations, including a health/fitness facility, the outdoors, or in a client's home. The Personal Trainer should take precautions to ensure that every training setting is reasonably safe. (less)
817
Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of working as an independent contractor?
The primary advantage is access to potential clients as well as equipment and facilities.
818
A Personal Trainer working for a facility that maintains electronic client records should:
Password protect files and never leave the computer with client files open for viewing.
Correct
Explanation:
Personal Trainers must exercise care to protect all client information.
Reference:
819
Which of the following is a good example of a behavioral interview question?
"Give an example of a goal you reached, and describe how you achieved it."
Explanation:
Behavioral questions are more pointed, more probing, and more specific open-ended questions versus traditional interview questions
820
(see full question) Legally, and according to the IRS, in a sole proprietorship the business and the individual:
Are considered one and the same.
Correct
Explanation:
In the eyes of the law and the U.S. Internal Revenue Service, the business and the individual are one and the same.
821
Which of the following would protect a Personal Trainer by transferring risk to the insurer?
Professional liability insurance
Explanation:
This type of insurance will protect the trainer by claims of negligence
822
A "call to action" in advertising means:
The marketing effort involves an offer with a deadline to create urgency.
Explanation:
An example of a call to action is the "Exercise is Medicine™ on Campus" that was launched in 2009. This initiative was a call to action to create urgency for academic institutions around the country to support the benefits of physical activity. (less)
823
Appropriate professional behavior for certified Personal Trainers includes:
Conservative fitness clothing such as a polo shirt and professional sweats.
Correct
Explanation:
First impressions are important, and it is up to the Personal Trainer to portray a professional appearance that will produce the desired impression for every client and prospective client.
824
Laws and industry standards and guidelines exist to:
Avoid preventable accidents.
825
Which of the following MUST be included as part of every client's screening?
Health-risk apprasial
826
One of the benefits of the S corporation is:
Limited risk and exposure of personal assets.
Explanation:
The S corporation, or subchapter corporation, is a popular alternative for small businesses that combines the advantages of the sole proprietorship, partnership, and corporation.
827
The location of the client consultation is critical because it:
Sets the tone for relationship building and information sharing.
Explanation:
Of utmost importance is the location of the client consultation, as it sets the tone for information sharing and relationship building; Personal Trainers should create a hospitable and private environment.
828
Vigorous exercise, per the ACSM risk classification, is activity at what MET level?
Vigorous exercise occurs at an intensity that causes substantial increases in HR and breathing, at or above 60% VO2R, at or above 6 METs.
829
29
| Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint?
The muscles that evert the ankle joint include the peroneus longs and brevis.
830
The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the:
Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
Explanation:
Specifically, the lower trapezius and pectoralis minor function to depress the scapulothoracic joint.
831
30
(see full question) The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.
You selected: Extension; 40° to 60°
Correct
Explanation:
The posterior deltoid functions to extend the shoulder joint at approximately 40° to 60° in most people.
832
Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint?
biceps femoris
833
Which of the following would help a Personal Trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial interview?
Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean
Explanation:
These positions and body language are powerful non-verbal behaviors that demonstrate attentiveness and interest.
834
31
| what does active listening involve?
Active listening also involves clarifying, repeating, and summarizing what the client has said.
835
Which of the following terms describes an eating disorder where normal-weight individuals repeatedly engage in binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like excessive exercise or fasting?
Bulimia Nervosa
836
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which
affected individuals, usually in the normal weight range, repeat a cycle of overeating or binge-eating and then purging or other compensatory behaviors. (ACSM Female Athlete Triad Position Stand, 2007)
837
32
During an exercise session on the recumbent bicycle, your client has a squeezing and burning sensation down both arms. Your client passed the PAR-Q test, so you should?
You selected: Stop the exercise, and refer the client to a physician.
838
In order for the body to adapt to exercise efficiently, how much rest time should someone allow in between resistance training programs with any given muscle groups?
You selected: 48 hours
At least 48 hours should separate workouts targeting any given muscle group to allow time for adaptations to occur.
839
Consider the following program: Peform a total of six exercises. Select one exercise from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1-2 sets, 8-12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a program best suited?
Beginner
Explanation:
Such a program is ideal for a beginning exerciser given the high number of repetitions and few sets.
840
For an apparantly healthy senior adult, what type of exs is approp?
moderate-intensity exercise should be performed 5 or more days per week. vigorous-intensity activity on 3 or more days per week, or a combination of moderate and vigorous exercise 3 to 5 days per week, would also be appropriate.
841
A 33-year-old female has a bench press weight ratio of .63. What rep range would you start her with?
You selected: 8 to 12
Correct
Explanation:
A score of .63 is good; therefore, the rep range should be 8 to 12.
842
Your client sets a goal of losing 25 pounds before her high school reunion in a month. An appropriate response would be:
You selected: "That's a specific and time-oriented goal. Let's talk about how realistic that goal is with such a short time frame."
843
33
| Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?
You selected: Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Correct
Explanation:
In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood.
844
A chronic response to exercise is something that occurs usually after 6 to 8 weeks of consitent aerobic training, such as a
lower blood pressure at rest.
| lower blood pressure at rest.
845
The muscles that evert the ankle joint include
the peroneus longs and brevis
846
Scoliosis is seen when the spine deviates how?
laterally from the midline
847
Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck towards the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
You selected: Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
Correct
Explanation:
848
Specifically, the lower trapezius and pectoralis minor function to depress what?
the scapulothoracic joint.
849
(see full question) Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise?
You selected: Teres major
Correct
Explanation:
The teres major is also known as the "little" lat and has the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension
850
Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus?
You selected: Pectoralis major
Correct
Explanation:
The pectoralis major is one of the larger muscles that produces movement about the shoulder joint and thus attaches to the humerus.
851
What muscles function to protract the scapula/ scapulothoracic jt?
the serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
852
The shoulder girdle is also known
as the scapulothoracic joint. This is not a true joint, as the scapula has no true bony articulation with the thoracic spine but is instead held in place by muscle attachments.
853
Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint?
The long head of the biceps brachii crosses over the shoulder joint and thus assists in shoulder flexion. This occurs via reverse muscle action where the origin moves toward the insertion.
854
Describe precomtemplation
The precontemplation stage is consistent with not being aware of needing to change behavior or the benefits of such change.
855
34
Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate?
You selected:
Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press
856
Describe how a push up is closed chain exs
A push-up plus off a wall is an example of a closed chain exercise as the arm is fixated to a stationary surface.
857
The muscles that make up the rotator cuff include
the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.
858
Which of the following is considered a gliding joint?
Sacroiliac
Explanation:
The sacroiliac joint connects the sacrum to the ilium on each side and is sometimes described as a gliding joint. It is capable of relatively little movement
859
Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone?
You selected: Plyometric training
Correct
Explanation:
Impact and weight bearing activities [plyometrics, jumping, resistance training] provide for a stress on the bone to promote positive adaptations in the bone.
860
Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint?
Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended
861
The products that make up cardiac output are:
| You selected:
Heart rate and stroke volume
862
Describe Q
Explanation:
Cardiac output is the volume of blood [stroke volume] pumped by the heart per minute [heart rate] in liters. The equation is CO = SV x HR and average CO is approximately 4 to 5 L/min.
863
Restating the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of active listening?
summarizing
864
A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors?
You selected: 1
Correct
Explanation:
This individual is considered as having one risk factor because she is on hypertensive medication.
865
37
Answer Key
Question 1:
(see full question) To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________.
You selected: extended; flexed
Correct
Explanation:
The principles of flexibility require that the muscle be placed in a lengthened position [opposite of the muscle action]. Since the quadriceps functions flex the hip joint and extend the knee joint, it is stretched when the hip joint is extended and the knee joint is flexed
866
Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about and understands the risks associated with being active?
You selected: Informed Consent
Correct
Explanation:
An assumption of risk, also known as an Informed Consent, is a document that explains the risks of participation in physical activity and indicates that the participant acknowledges the inherent risks involved. (less)
867
What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint?
Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion
Correct
Explanation:
The rotator cuff's primary role is to stabilize the shoulder joint. When these muscles have good muscular strength and endurance, they help center the head of the humerus in the center of the glenoid fossa which aids with positional control during movement.
868
(see full question) Which of the following is not a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise?
You selected: Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms
Correct
Explanation:
Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms is a chronic exercise response.
869
(see full question) The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?
You selected: Multifidus and erector spinae
Correct
Explanation:
The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.
870
38
| Palpitiations
An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats.
Correct
Explanation:
Palpitations can vary in sensation but are often described as pounding or racing heartbeats, or that the heart has skipped or stopped beating.
871
Which of the following is an acute response to exercise?
You selected: Reduced blood flow to the gut
Correct
Explanation:
An acute response to exercise is something that happens immediately. Ischemia is an immediate response, versus chronic, which happens over time, such as a lower resting heart rate.
872
A low to high diagonal chop takes place in
all three planes
873
The feeling of chronic muscular fatigue is a sign of:
You selected: Overuse.
Correct
Explanation:
When a client experiences muscle exhaustion, they are most likely overusing their muscles.
874
Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should:
Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. Leaning forward recruits more of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings. By minimizing forward flexion, the quadriceps will be recruited more. (less)
875
Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system?
You selected: Alveoli
Correct
Explanation:
The alveoli is the functional unit of the lung.
876
Specifically, what functions to depress the scapulothoracic joint.
the lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
877
(see full question) A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains.
You selected: 75%; 90%
Correct
Explanation:
A client needs to have adequate overload [75%–90%] to see improved strength gains.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the
878
The muscles that function to retract the scapula are what muscles?
are the rhomboids and mid trapezius.
879
Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?
You selected: Sagittal
Correct
Explanation:
Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as a running [flexion/extension of the hip, knee and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion of the ankle joint] occurs in the sagittal plane
880
39
| During resistance training, pain is a sign that ________.
the client needs to stop the exercise
Explanation:
Stop an exercise as soon as a client feels pain in order to prevent injury.
881
Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency.
You selected: Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult
Correct
Explanation:
This question assesses an understanding of position and the effect of the lever arm on resistance. The longer lever arm is created by leaning back and requires more force production at the ankle joint.
882
Active listening allows a Personal Trainer to do which of the following effectively?
You selected: Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design
Correct
Explanation:
Active listening is a necessary skill that demonstrates unconditional acceptance and unbiased reflection of the client's experiences and emotions.
883
A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration?
Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults
884
The teres minor and infraspinatus are located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and function to
externally rotate the shoulder joint.
885
(see full question) What muscle group is strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts?
You selected: Abductors
Correct
Explanation:
The hip abductors include the gluteus medius and gluteus medius which lie deep to the gluteus maximus. These muscles function to abduct and medially rotate the hip joint.
886
(see full question) Intermittent claudication refers to:
You selected: Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping.
Correct
Explanation:
Pain occurs because of exercise-induced ischemia due to atherosclerosis in the lower extremity.
887
(see full question) In general, elbow injuries are a result of:
You selected: Overuse or repetitive motion.
Correct
Explanation:
The elbow is an important joint involved in lifting, carrying, throwing, swinging, and most upper extremity exercise movements. The elbow is commonly injured and is the second most injured joint from overuse or repetitive motion. (less)
888
40
(see full question) Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding Goal Setting Theory?
You selected: Goals bring focus and energy toward the desired behavior
Correct
Explanation:
Goal setting theory is based on the premise that setting a particular goal will provide the appropriate attention, energy, and effort needed to reach the goal.
889
Question 2:
(see full question) Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?
The erector spinae is an agonist in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine.
890
improvemnts in muscleuar enduro is due to what?
Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.
891
What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly?
You selected: Horizontal abduction
| Correct
892
(see full question) A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement?
Y
Correct response: Frontal
Explanation:
The frontal plane divides the body between the front and back. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a lateral lunge, occurs in the frontal plane.
893
If a client must see a physician prior to starting a moderate-intensity exercise program, which of the following should be completed both by the client and physician?
Medical Clearance Form
894
Question 12:
(see full question) A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________.
Correct response: Flexion; extension
Explanation:
A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle.
895
41
Regarding the goal setting theory, a client that has more ________ selected goals will have greater _________ motivation.
You selected: Self-directed, intrinsic
Correct
Explanation:
Intrinsic motivation will be higher when goals are set with the client's input.
Reference:
American College of Sports Medicine. ACSM’s Resources for the P
896
42
Which of the following best summarizes the Small Changes Model of behavior change?
Y
ou selected: Gradual and cumulative behavior change is achieved relative to baseline activity.
Correct
Explanation:
The Small Changes Model focuses on gradual change that is cumulative and increases self-efficacy to further behavior change.
897
(see full question) Failure of Personal Trainers to consider nutrition when working with a client will MOST likely result in which of the following outcomes?
You selected: Poor progression and training
Correct
Explanation:
Failure to consider nutrition as an integral component of the skills training and conditioning program will increase health risks and result in poor improvement rates.
898
Question 3:
(see full question) Which of the following is the MOST effective exercise strategy for an individual who is extrinsically motivated?
You selected: Establish a reward upon completion of a specified number of exercise sessions.
Correct
Explanation:
Extrinsic motivation is the type of motivation that comes from an external source or outcome—for example, a client who adheres to a program because he or she wants to win a reward, such as a free 6-month club membership
899
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by:
Restrictive eating by individuals 15% or more below expected weight who view themselves as overweight.
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by restrictive eating in which the individual views herself as overweight and is afraid of gaining weight, even though she is at least 15% below expected weight for age and height. (ACSM Female Athlete Triad Position Stand, 2007)
900
Which of the following is an appropriate method for helping motivate a client to lose weight?
Provide links of news articles of individuals who have similar background as your client.
Explanation:
Information support includes sending e-mails from health Web sites about how to incorporate exercise into your client's life.
901
(see full question) Which of the following is an example of informational support?
You selected: E-mails from health Web sites about how to incorporate exercise into your client's life
Correct
Explanation:
Informational support may include knowledge and skills the Personal Trainer provides clients or information and referrals from the Personal Trainer regarding something that has been read on the Internet or in a fitness magazine. (less)
902
Question 8:
| (see full question) Which of the following is the BEST example of a corrective statement?
You selected: "Well done. Now check your knee alignment."
Correct
Explanation:
Remember to phrase all cues positively, as in, "Make sure to always keep a slight bend in your knees," instead of, "Don't lock your knees." Constant use of the word "don't" sounds negative and pejorative
903
Which of the following is the LEAST effective strategy in helping a client get past barriers in his exercise program?
Helping the client predict how he or she will respond to the plateau
Explanation:
Personal Trainers can help their clients understand their personal benefits of exercise and perceived barriers to exercise. In addition, Personal Trainers and their clients can work together to develop strategies clients can use to overcome each barrier and successfully adhere to exercise. (less)
904
43
| Which of the following strategies will BEST help generate clients?
You selected: Developing a professional network of allied health professionals
Correct
Explanation:
Personal Trainers should become part of a network of mutually referring allied health professionals. This often fosters a win-win situation with respect to referrals.
905
44
| Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?
Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Explanation:
In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood.
906
Following the initial client contact, what are the next steps after the client has completed and returned all forms to you?
You selected: Review paperwork and clarify goals.
Correct
Explanation:
A detailed health and fitness history is necessary for screening, appropriate follow-up if needed, and validation of preferences and goals.
907
45
Your client has been performing cardiovascular exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, 3 times per week. During your 3 month assessment you would expect her submaximal heart rate to:
Y
ou selected: Decrease by 10%
Correct
Explanation:
Cardiovascular exercise will have a chronic effect of lowering a client's submaximal heart rate over time
908
A muscle maintains constant force without any change in joint angle. This is known as which type of action?
isometric
909
Which outcome is most likely when performing a safe and effective resistance training program 2 to 3 times a week for 3 months?
Y
ou selected: Muscle hypertrophy
Correct
Explanation:
Clients will see a gain in muscle hypertrophy if they consistently weight train 2 to 3 times per week.
910
Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi?
Correct response: Levator scapulae
Explanation:
"Superior" is a basic descriptive term used to describe position of a body part that is above another body part or refers to an upper surface of an organ or structure. In this instance, the levator scapulae is located above the latissimus dorsi
911
A key benefit of a proper warm-up is that it may:
You selected: Prevent ischemia of the heart.
Correct
Explanation:
A proper warm-up will slowly increase the heart rate and body temperature. These gradual increases may help prevent ischemia [lack of oxygen] of the heart which may occur in clients with sudden strenuous exertion.
912
An appropriate warm-up for a brisk walk would be?
You selected: A light walk
Correct
Explanation:
Light walking is the best warm-up for brisk walking as it mimics the exercise coming up.
913
46
| Which of the following form discusses the risk and benefits of performing assessments and exercise?
Informed Consent
Explanation:
The client must read, acknowledge, and have an opportunity to ask questions regarding potential risk and benefits of assessments and exercise participation.
914
Health and fitness benefits occur with at least ______ minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity.
```
You selected: 150
Correct
Explanation:
Moderate-intensity exercise is recommended at least 30 minutes per day, at least 5 days per week, for a total of at least 150 minutes.
You selected: 150
Correct
Explanation:
Moderate-intensity exercise is recommended at least 30 minutes per day, at least 5 days per week, for a total of at least 150 minutes.
```
915
Which movement occurs in the frontal plane?
Elevation of the of the scapula
Correct
Explanation:
With the exception of tilt, all other movements of the scapula occur in the frontal plane. Note that elbow flexion and hip flexion occur in the sagittal plane and supination occurs in the transverse plane. (less)
916
Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client information?
The Client Intake Form should be completed when initial client contact is made.
917
Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease?
You selected: "Heaviness"
Correct
Explanation:
"Heaviness" is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.
918
You now are ready to proceed with scheduling a fitness assessment with your client tomorrow. To get the most accurate heart rate response, you instruct your client to:
You selected: Refrain from drinking any caffeinated beverages 30 minutes prior to the assessment.
Correct
Explanation:
Caffeine is a cardiac stimulant and may result in an inaccurate assessment of resting heart rate and heart rate response to exercise.
919
47
| During a straight-legged dead lift, which muscle does most of the work as you extend?
Hamstrings
Explanation:
Hamstrings (semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris) are two-joint muscles, which extend the hip (except the short head of biceps femoris) and flex the knee.
920
What is the best way to teach a squat to a client who you have identified as a kinesthetic learner?
Have the client perform the squat as you cue them.
Explanation:
Communication is more than just verbal; it also includes nonverbal elements such as visual (what is observed) and kinesthetic (what is felt).
921
Measuring a client's exercise intensity using the Karvonen formula would be best for which client?
Athlete
Explanation:
The Karvonent method for exercise heart rate calculation should be used by individuals who are able to self-monitor properly with a more precise exercise intensity
922
Obese clients benefit most from which of the following?
Exercise and dietary restrictions
923
What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic aerobic exercise?
You selected: Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
Correct
Explanation:
Benefits of regular physical activity include an increase in oxygen delivery to the working muscles.
924
The study of the mechanics of human movement is called:
KINESIOLOGY
925
An example of variety in training is:
PERIOZded training
926
Which muscles function to elevate the shoulder girdle?
Levator scapulae and upper trapezius
Explanation:
Shoulder elevation is the action performed during a shoulder shrug. Thus, the levator scapulae, upper trapezius, and the rhomboids are prime movers
927
During the supine rotational stretch, it is important to have the abdomen ________.
Oriented toward the ceiling.
Explanation:
During the supine rotational stretch, maintain the upper back against the floor and the abdomen oriented toward the ceiling.
928
The scapulothoracic joint includes
protraction [scapular abduction] and retraction [scapular adduction].
929
48
| The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area?
posterior tibial compartment
930
To measure progress toward goals, reassessments should be performed:
After approximately 4 to 6 weeks to better reflect a training effect.
Explanation:
A standard for follow-up may be 4 weeks to 3 months depending on the assessment tool.
931
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding the socioecological model?
Behavior change is linked to relationships, environment, and community.
932
49
Which of the following is a symptom suggestive of pulmonary disease?
Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area
Explanation:
Shortness of breath that is abnormal may be indicative of pulmonary disease.
Reference:
933
Understanding nonverbal cues is important in establishing a successful client relationship because:
You selected: More information is communicated in this manner.
Correct
Explanation:
Body language and other nonverbal cues are believed to be more reliable than spoken words.
934
Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint?
glutes and hams
The gluteus maximus and hamstrings function to extend the hip joint. Exercises that recruit these muscles include bridging, squats, leg presses, and lunges.
935
52
| Lordosis is defined as:
The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior.
Explanation:
This defines a normal lordotic curve.
936
Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about and understands the risks associated with being active?
Informed Consent
937
Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles?
Rh, mid-T
