Exam 1 Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
Who first discovered X-rays?
A
Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
2
Q
When did Roentgen discover X-rays?
A
November 8, 1895
3
Q
When and who was the first x-ray death do to exposure?
A
Charles Dally (1904) (Thomas Edison’s assistant)
4
Q
What was the first device to produce x-rays?
A
Crookes tube
5
Q
Who developed interrutperless transformers?
A
H.C. Snook
6
Q
Who designed the Coolidge tube?
A
William Coolidge
7
Q
Who developed the first fluoroscope?
A
Thomas Edison
8
Q
When x-ray photons exit the patient and strike the IR, this “invisible” image is created:
A
latent image
9
Q
This is the image that is viewed after processing (viewed on a monitor)
A
manifest image
10
Q
Four basic requirements for the production of x-rays:
A
-a vacuum (x-ray tube)
-electron source (filament)
-a target for the electrons (anode)
-a high potential difference (voltage) between the electron source and the target
11
Q
What is the primary source of occupational exposure?
A
scatter radiation
12
Q
Radiation travels in:
A
a straight line at the speed of light
13
Q
True or False: radiation does not affect photographic emulsions
A
False
14
Q
When radiation affects biological tissue, what is occurring?
A
ionizes atoms
15
Q
True or False: radiation cannot be refracted by a lens
A
true
16
Q
Can radiation be detected by human sense?
A
no, it cannot
17
Q
What is the response to the strain of dealing with constant demands and problems of people under our care?
A
burnout
18
Q
What does appropriate use of equipment demonstrate?
A
ethical behavior
19
Q
What is personal morality based on?
A
lessons of right or wrong, often taught at an early age
20
Q
What does group morality refer to?
A
principles that apply specifically to certain groups of people
21
Q
What is a sensitivity to others that allows you to meet their needs constructively?
A
empathy
22
Q
Where are the moral duties of physicians defined?
A
The Hippocratic Oath (Ancient Greece)
23
Q
What is the moral principles that govern a person’s behavior or the conducting of an activity?
A
ethics
24
Q
What is an example of group morality for today’s health professionals?
A
duties to provide due car and to maintain confidentiality of patient information
25
Who created The Standard of Ethics for Radiographers?
ARRT and ASRT
25
What are the two parts of the Standard of Ethics?
Code of Ethics and Rules of Ethics
26
Explain the difference between the Code of Ethics and Rules of Ethics:
-the code of ethics is an aspirational document
-rules of ethics are enforceable, mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct
27
Nonconsequentialism vs Consequentialism is a class debate over:
wether "the end justifies the means"
28
The belief that an action is right if the outcome is good
Consequentialism (consequences)
29
What is the ethical theory that the rightness and wrongness of conduct is determined solely by the goodness or badness of the consequence
Nonconsequentialism (nature of action)
30
The ethics of care reflect a viewpoint that could be considered situational ethics. What does this theory recognize?
right actions for a patient in any given situation may be wrong for other patients or other circumstances.
31
Related to care ethics, this theory places value on virtues (admirable character traits such as caring, faithfulness, trustworthiness, compassion and courage)
virtue-based ethics
32
Rights-based ethics emphasizes the:
individuals rights of persons
33
What is a potential conflict of rights-based ethics?
what professionals see as their duty and what patients claim as their rights
34
What are the principle-based ethics?
use of moral principles as a basis for defending a chosen path of action in resolving ethical dilemma
35
What are the six principles of principle-based ethics?
-Beneficence: actions that bring about good are considered right
-Nonmaleficence: an obligation not to conflict harm
-Veracity: an obligation to truth
-Fidelity: an obligation to faithful
-Justice: an obligation to fairness
-Autonomy: respecting the independence of others, and action with self-reliance
36
This is the process of evaluating situations in which the correct action is in question?
ethical analysis
37
What are the four basic steps for Ethical Analysis?
-identify the problem
-develop alternate solutions
-select the best solution
-defend your selection
38
What are requirements for informed consent?
-patient must be competent
-only parents/legal guardians can sign for a minor
-consent form must be signed before procedure
-can be revoked at any time
39
Informed consent is necessary for any procedure that involves:
substantial risk or is considered experimental
40
What are two types of crimes?
felonies and misdemeanors
41
What is a serious crime that can be punished by imprisonment?
felony
42
What is a less significant crime and is usually punishable by a fine or by imprisonment, usually in a jail for less than 1 year?
misdemeanor
43
What is a civil wrong, committed against a person or their property?
tort
44
What are the two categories of torts?
intentional misconduct and unintentional
45
Intentional Torts include:
-assault: threat of touching
-battery: unlawful touching of a person
-false imprisonment: unjustifiable detention of a person
-invasion of privacy: intrusion into a patients private affairs, disclose patient information
-libel: false accusation written or printed
-slander: any word spoken with malice that are untrue
46
Unintentional Misconduct includes:
negligence and malpractice
47
What is the neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution?
negligence
48
What type of misconduct is it when a patient injury is caused by professional negligence
malpractice
49
Res Ipsa Loquitur
the thing speaks for itself
50
Respondent Superior
let the master answer
51
Vicarious Liability "borrowed servant"
liability falls on one person or agency for the actions of another
52
Why is charting important?
because it can substantiate or refute charges of negligence or malpractice and can also serve as a record of behavior
53
What is the Radiology Information System?
documentation and recording system for imaging
54
This requires radiographers to put aside all personal prejudice and emotional bias, rendering services to humanity with full respect for the dignity of humankind:
The ASRT Code of Ethics
55
What are examples of non-verbal communication? (can be interpreted based on culture)
-eye contact
-touch
-appearance
56
What are important listening skills?
-more than waiting for your turn to speak
-give speaker full attention and focus
-respond appropriately
57
_______ cues communicate attitude
nonverbal
58
Verbal skills include:
the ability to use language & content that is appropriate for your patient
59
An indication of a clear understanding of the message:
validation of communication
60
_____ interferes with our ability to process information accurately and appropriately
stress
61
What are ways to improve communication in a crisis?
-lower your voice, speak slowly and clearly
-be nonjudgmental in both verbal and nonverbal cues
-don't allow another's inappropriate actions or speech change your response
-request confirmation of listener's understanding
62
This is a process in which healthcare professionals consciously influences a client to a better understanding through verbal or nonverbal communications:
therapeutic communication
63
What is an advantage of therapeutic communication?
it encourages a patient to express feelings and ideas
64
What is subjective data?
what a patient tells you (history)
65
What is objective data?
what you see/observe
66
What is AIDET?
acknowledge, introduce, duration, explanation, thank you
67
Alternatives that are acceptable to the healthcare professional and provide patient with a sense of participation in their care:
valid choices
68
How do you determine patient's ability to cooperate?
combining observation with therapeutic communication
69
What are examples of special circumstances that may affect communication?
language barrier, hearing impairment, deafness, impaired vision, inability to speak, impaired mental function, altered states of consciousness
70
Federal law guarantees that patients have the right to _______
effective communication
71
What are useful tips for communicating with patients who have hearing loss?
-get the patient's attention before speaking
-face the person
-hearing loss is frequently in the upper register so speak lower & louder
-speak clearly at a moderate pace & do not shout
-avoid noisy background
-rephrase when you are not understood
-be patient
72
When using an interpreter, where should you look?
at the patient so they don't feel excluded
73
Certified interpreters are usually necessary for ______
effective communication
74
How can you assist a patient with vision impairment/loss?
some will prefer you guide them and others will prefer a description of surroundings (ask their preference)
75
A deficit or loss of language function in which comprehension or expression of words is impaired because of injury to language centers in the brain is known as the _______
aphasia
76
When dealing with a patient in an altered state of consciousness:
-important to communicate as if the patient can hear and respond
-constant observation is required to avoid accidents
-can't rely on patient to remember or listen to instructions
77
A discriminatory attitude toward the elderly that includes a belief that all elderly are ill, disabled, worthless, and unattractive is known as the ______
ageism
78
Neonate and infant (birth to 1 year)
watch tone and touch
79
Toddler (1-2 years)
2-3 word sentences, may need to immobilize
80
Preschooler (3-5 years)
conversation, use praise
81
School Age (6-12 years)
give honest, concrete information
82
Adolescent (13-18 years)
can still be emotional during distress, show empathy
83
Young Adult (19-45 years)
involve them in the decision making process
84
Middle Adult (46-64 years)
onset of chronic issues, memory issues, hearing loss, sight changes start to appear, involved in decisions
85
Late Adult (65-79 years) & Old Adult (80+)
can have dementia, Alzheimer's, allow them to make choices when possible
86
Kubler-Ross Stages of Grief
1. Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Depression
5. Acceptance
87
Provide complete health care at the cost of premium and copay:
Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO)
88
Private physicians/hospitals provide private services while also providing care through insurance plans that operate as HMOs and PPOs:
managed care systems
89
System that offers care at reduced rates within an established network of providers:
preferred provider organization (PPO)
90
What are the Federal Health Insurances?
-affordable care act (ACA or "obamacare")
-medicare (coverage for 65 and older)
-medicaid (coverage for indigent patients)
91
What are the professional organizations for radiographers?
-American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
-International Society of Radiographers and Radiological Technologists (ISRRT)
-American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)
92
This is the oldest and largest national professional association for technologists in the radiologic sciences:
American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
93
This is one of more than 70 national organizations of technologists around the world:
International Society of Radiographers and Radiological Technologists (ISRRT)
94
This organization tests new graduates for skills and set standards for what needs to be done in clinical and how students are taught:
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)
95
This organization developed a written statement that describes the radiographer's duties and responsibilities:
American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
96
What defines the clinical practice, technical activities and professional responsibilities of imaging and therapeutic professionals?
The Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy (document)
97
This organization conducts qualifying examinations that entitle applicants who pass exams to use the designation "Registered Technologist" RT in association with their name:
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)
98
This organization accredits hospitals:
The Joint Commission (TJC)
99
This organization accredits educational programs in imaging sciences:
The Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JCERT)
100
Most hospital fires are caused by:
1. spontaneous combustion
2. open flames
3. cigarette smokers
4. electricity
101
Spontaneous Combustion
-chemical reactions near a flammable material
-infrequent cause of hospital fires
-concern regarding recycling hazardous materials & regulatory requirements for safe disposal of wastes
102
Oxygen supports:
combustion
103
What is a concern in radiology department because of electrical equipment?
electrical failures
104
How to be prepare for a fire:
-know the fire plan of your facility
-know evacuation route and alternative route
-locate fire alarms, extinguishers, and fire doors/exits
105
What is RACE? (4 essential steps to take if you discover a fire)
rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
106
What is PASS? (How to properly operate a fire extinguisher)
pull, aim, squeeze, sweep
107
What are the types of fires?
class a, class b, class c
108
Class A fires involve:
solid combustibles such as paper and wood
109
Class B fires involve:
flammable liquids or gases
110
Class C fires involve:
electrical equipment or wiring
111
Dry chemical extinguishers are suitable for _____ classes of fire
all 3
112
_____ access to the area of a chemical spill and evaluate
limit
113
Healthcare facilities have ______ and _______ to follow in determining appropriate action in the event of a chemical spill
written policies, procedures
114
OSHA requires this for all hazardous materials be on file and easily accessible to personnel:
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
115
This is a first aid station for chemical eye splashes that spray water into the eye from a convenient height:
eyewash station
116
This is the study of the human body in relation to the working environment:
ergonomics
117
Workplace safety: things to watch out for:
-musculoskeletal disorders
-repetitive motion injuries (RMIs)
-repetitive strain injuries (RSIs)
-cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs)
118
Body Mechanics is the principles of:
proper body alignment, movement and balance
119
What are the rules of body mechanics?
1. provide a broad base of support
2. work at a comfortable height
3. when lifting, bend your knees and keep your back straight
4. keep your load well balanced and close to your body
5. roll or push a heavy object. avoid pulling or lifting
120
The point where the mass of the body is concentrated:
center of gravity
121
What does it mean if a patient is ambulatory?
the patient can walk
122
Moving patients from one place to another in a hospital requires _____
wheeled transport
123
This is used if a patient can sit upright safely:
wheelchair
124
If a patient is too weak to sit-up, use this for transport:
stretcher
125
Cribs are used to transport:
small children
126
Incubators are used to transport:
infants
127
Bed to Wheelchair Transfer position of bed:
lower to wheelchair level and elevate head of the bed
128
In Bed to Wheelchair Transfer, wheelchair should be:
positioned 45 degrees to the bed with wheels locked and footrests out of the way
129
In Bed to Wheelchair Transfer, when the patient is in the supine position how can you assist them so that they are sitting with feet off the bed?
place one arm under the knees and the other under the patient's shoulders. In a single, smooth motion, raise and turn the patient
130
In Bed to Wheelchair Transfer, how can you help the patient stand from the bed?
instruct the patient to place hands on your shoulders and put arms under their armpits
131
What is a transfer belt which provides a secure hold and should be used with weak, unsteady patients?
gait belt
132
When do falls most commonly occur?
when the patient sits in the wheelchair
133
Anxiety may be caused by:
-fear about possible diagnosis
-effect of illness on family
-concerns over modesty
134
Reassurance is provided by:
professional touch and attitude, details of procedure
135
Psychological needs include:
water and elimination
136
Before giving a patient water, what should you do?
-check the chart to ensure fluids are allowed
-make sure patient isn't NPPO (nothing by. mouth)
-record amount
-offer straw
137
You should ask a patient if the restroom is needed before:
beginning procedures
138
You should check the patient chart for special instructions such as:
-specific collection container (might need sample)
-recording input/output
139
If a patient has a urinary catheter, what must be kept in mind?
collection bag must be kept below bladder to prevent back flow and contamination of bladder
140
What kind of position is similar to oblique but patient supports self without a sponge, same knee and elbow bent, rear end raised
Sims Position
141
What type of position has head raised well above feet
Fowlers Position
142
What type of position has head raised slightly above feet
Semi-Fowler Position
143
What position has the patient's feet and legs are higher than the head?
Trendelenburg Position
144
What position has the patient lying face down with hips bent so that the knees and chest rest on the table?
Knee-chest Position
145
What position has patient lying on back with legs raised and feet in stirrups
Lithotomy Position
146
What should you consider when caring for Elderly and Debilitated patients?
-increased fall risk
-decreased subcutaneous fat layer
-fragile skin
147
What are restraints and immobilization for?
-used to ensure patient's safety
-prevent motion during imaging exams
148
Safety straps and side raise are used on:
beds & stretchers
149
Rails on beds should ______
always be up
150
Restraints should be applied by institutional policy when applied to an adult patient and MUST also be ordered by a _______
physician
151
Temporary radiology immobilization ______ require a doctor's order
does not
152
TJC (The Joint Commission) requires:
less restrictive methods used first
153
Effective method of avoiding the use of restraints:
therapeutic communication
154
Restraint/Immobilization Application:
-patient must be allowed as much mobility as possible
-padded to prevent injury to the skin
-maintain normal anatomic position
-knots that will not become tighter with movement
-can be removed quickly
155
Types of Restraints:
-limb holders
-ankle/wrist
-vest
-waist
156
Radiology immobilization is used to:
reduce radiation exposure
157
When is it appropriate to apply restraints:
-trauma
-pediatric
-geriatric
-uncooperative
158
To help with patient comfort, sponges or cushions can be strategically placed for support:
-heat
-under knees
-under the head to help with nausea
-during oblique projections
159
What are causes of issues related with skin care:
-immobility: blood flow restricted
-pressure
-shearing force: back and forth movement
-urine and fecal material
160
What are the early signs of issues with the skin?
-blanching (pale) & coldness: ischemia
-heat & redness: reactive hyperemia
-tissue necrosis (dying tissue)
161
Which patient's are susceptible to these skin concerns?
-malnourished
-elderly
-chronically ill
162
Common areas for skin issues:
scapula, sacrum, trochanters, knees, heels
163
How can you prevent skin issues?
-provide assistance in moves
-change position
-keep pressure off of susceptible areas
-clean and dry
-prevent skin abrasions in transfers
164
What is also termed battered child syndrome and non accidental trauma (NAT)?
child abuse
165
Bruises, pressure marks, broken bones, abrasions, and burns on an elderly patient may indicate:
elder abuse
166
What are the essential skills of patient assessment?
-observation
-evaluation
-assessment
-communication
167
When taking the patient's history, what are questioning techniques you can use?
-open-ended questions
-facilitation (say yes or nod)
-silence
-reflection or reiteration
-clarification or probing
-summarization
168
What are the Sacred Seven (Elements of taking a history)?
-onset
-duration/chronology
-quality of symptoms
-severity of pain
-what aggravates/alleviates
169
How can you assess the patient's current physical status?
-check the chart
-physical assessment
-vital signs
170
When performing a physical assessment what should you look for in regards to skin color or temperature?
-cyanotic: bluish coloration in skin
-touch (contact with hands can help make physical observations)
-redness
171
When performing a physical assessment what should you look for in regards to Level of Consciousness (LOC)?
-alert and conscious
-drowsy but responsive
-unconscious but reactive to painful stimuli
-comatose
172
When performing a physical assessment what should you look for in regards to breathing?
changes could signal major changes in a patient's condition
173
Homestasis
the bodies internal environment which maintain homeostasis is the heartbeat, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory rate
174
What describes the bodies maintenance of heat production and heat loss controlled by hypothalamus?
thermoregulation
175
What equipment can be used to take a patient's temperature?
digital, tympanic temp probe, temporal artery thermometer
176
The pulse is measured in:
beats per minute (bpm)
177
What is tachycardia?
rapid heart rate
178
What is bradycardia?
abnormally slow heartbeat
179
How do you check for a pulse?
-hand hygiene before and after
-never use thumb
-normally will check radial pulse or carotid
-count pulse for 30 seconds if it is regular, 60 seconds if it is irregular
180
When counting the number of breaths per minute, what counts as a full cycle?
-Inspiration (breath in) the diaphragm contracts downward
-Expiration (breath out) the diaphragm relaxes to a dome position
181
What is the normal range for respiration?
12-20 breaths per minute
182
What is bradypnea?
slow breathing, fewer than 12 breaths/minute
183
What is tachypnea?
fast breathing, more than 20 breaths/minute
184
What measures blood pressure?
sphygmomanometer
185
Blood pressure is expressed as:
systolic over diastolic
186
The systolic phase is the:
working phase of the heart (contraction)
187
The diastolic phase is:
the relaxation phase
188
What are the normal ranges for blood pressure?
Systolic = 95-119 mmHg
Diastolic = 60-79 mmHg
189
What is Hypertension?
high blood pressure
190
What are the two stages of hypertension?
-Stage 1: 140-150 mmHg systolic and 90-99 mmHg
- Stage 2: 160 mmHg or greater systolic and 100 mmHg or greater diastolic
191
What is Hypotension?
low blood pressure (may indicate shock)
192
What is the range for hypotension?
less than 90 mmHg for systolic or less than 50 mmHg for diastolic
193
When taking blood pressure, you must effectively coordinate:
what you're hearing with what you're seeing
194
What is mmHg?
millimeters of mercure
195
What is the aneroid sphygmomanometer dial?
blood pressure dial
196
The thumping sounds you hear when taking blood pressure are called:
Korotkoff sounds
197
The first thump you hear is recorded as the:
systolic pressure
198
The last thump you hear is recorded as the:
diastolic pressure
199
When pumping the sphygmomanometer, it is common to pump to:
160-180
200
Deflation of the sphygmomanometer should be at:
2-3 mmHg per second
201
Oxygen levels are checked using:
pulse oximeter
202
Because oxygen is considered a drug, it requires:
doctor's order
203
Oxygen is delivered by this quantity:
liters per minute (LPM)
204
What are delivery methods for oxygen?
nasal cannula, simple face mask, non-rebreathing mask, high flow mask, tent
205
This delivers high amounts of humidity and oxygen and often used for pediatric patients:
tent
206
This high flow mask has an attached reservoir that fills with 100% oxygen and has a one way valve to prevent exhaled gas from being inhaled (10 L/min):
non-rebreathing mask
207
A venturi mask that can deliver precise oxygen rates of 34-60%, recommended for COPD:
high-flow mask
208
Used for longer term use, it is most common and delivers at a rate of 1 to 6 L/min for adults, it can provide 24-45% oxygen:
nasal cannula
209
This is used for short therm therapy and can be somewhat uncomfortable, it delivers oxygen and humidity at a flow rate of 6 to 10 L/min and delivers 40-60% oxygen:
simple face mask
210
Oxygen depresses the respiratory drive and the patient stops breathing so high flow rates of oxygen are toxic to:
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) patients
211
COPD patient's respiration is controlled by higher levels of _____
carbon dioxide in the blood
212
This places an ET tube into the trachea and delivers high concentrations of oxygen to the patient:
intubation
213
Ventilator-mechanical respirator controls:
rate, volume, oxygen content
214
What are the organs of the respiratory system?
nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs-alveoli
215
This is a surgical opening through the anterior of the neck into the trachea:
tracheostomy
216
When transporting patients with oxygen:
-never remove patients oxygen to transport them
-portable oxygen tanks can be used
-make sure you set the rate as the same the patient is on
-always check the amount of O2 in the tank so you don't run out and compromise the patients care
217
What is the average heart rate in adults?
60-100 bpm
218
Tachycardia rate:
greater than 100 bpm
219
What are common laboratory tests for patient assessment?
Complete blood count (CBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate, blood-clotting assessment, blood chemistry tests
220
What is a pulse oximeter?
an external monitor placed on the patient's finger or earlobe to measure the oxygen saturation level in the blood and pulse rate
221
What is the arterial catheter?
one comprehensive way to monitor cardiac activity; provides continuous measurement of heart rate and blood pressure
222
What is the device that measures the electrical activity of the heart; displays the information graphically in the form of waves on a paper tracing or on a monitor?
Electrocardiograph monitor (EKG or ECG)
223
What is the device for recording of the electrical activity of the brain?
Electroencephalography (EEG)
224
Cardiac output is determined by two key factors:
-heart rate
-left ventricular output (stroke volume)
225
Electrocardiography is an electric assessment of the heart's ability to:
perform vital function
226
EKG and ECG can be used _____
synonymously
227
What is the function of the heart?
to pump blood through vessels to vital organs and tissues
228
The heart generally requires a systolic pressure greater than:
90 mmHg
229
What are the four heart chambers?
left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle
230
What is a cardiac cycle?
cardiac events that occur from the beginning of one ventricular contraction (systole) to the beginning of the next
231
What two principal cell types is the heart composed of?
-working cardiac cells (myocardium)
-specialized neural conductive cells
232
Cardiac tissue is unique in its ability to generate its own action potential:
polarization, depolarization, repolarization
233
The Sinoatrial node (SA node) is:
pacemaker of the heart
234
What does the cardiac conduction system consist of?
SA Node, Atrioventricular node (AV node), Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
235
What do abnormalities of the heart's conduction system cause?
arrythmia
236
These cells originate in and transmit electrical impulses across the myocardium and regulate the rhythm of a cardiac cycle:
specialized neural cells
237
Specialized neural cells are independent of:
nerves and hormones
238
What does an ECG tracing represent?
an electrical graphic display of changes in cardiac membrane potentials as a function of time
239
What is the P Wave?
represents depolarization of the atrial muscle cells
240
What is QRS Complex?
represents depolarization of ventricular muscle cells
241
What is the T Wave?
depolarization of ventricular muscle
242
What are common arrhythmias?
-bradycardia
-tachycardia
-fibrillation (A-fib and V-fib)
-PVC
-ventricular tachycardia
-ventricular fibrillation
243
What does Normal Sinus Rhythm look like?
(CHECK WORD DOC)
244
What does Bradycardia look like?
(CHECK WORD DOC)
245
What does Tachycardia look like?
(CHECK WORD DOC)
246
What does A-Fib look like?
(CHECK WORD DOC)
247
What does V-Fib look like?
(CHECK WORD DOC)
248
What does ventricular tachycardia look like?
(CHECK WORD DOC)
249
What are treatments for arrhythmia?
-antiarrhythmic medications
-cardioversion therapy
-cardiac surgery
-cardiac ablation
-implantable devices
250
What are the types of implantable devices?
-cardiac pacemaker
-implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
251
Treatments of arrhythmia are varied on the basis of:
severity and location of the disorder
