Exam 2 Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
Res Ipsa Loquitur
A
the thing speaks for itself
2
Q
Respondent Superior
A
let the master answer
3
Q
Any deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function f any part, organ, or system of the body
A
Disease
4
Q
What must health care practitioners understand about infectious diseases?
A
what they are, how they are spread, and how they are controlled
4
Q
Disease is caused by _____ and can cause ______
A
microorganisms; an absence of health
5
Q
An establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host, resulting in injury to the host
A
infection
6
Q
Infections are caused by ______
A
pathogenic organisms
7
Q
What are the 3 functions of pathogens?
A
-multiply and cause obstructions
-cause tissue damage
-secrete organic exotoxins (cause side effects)
8
Q
What are the different types of microorganisms?
A
bacteria, Ricketts, viruses, fungi, prions, protozoa
9
Q
These are small/microscopic single celled organisms that have cell walls and an atypical nucleus but lack a membrane. They occur in various shapes and groupings
A
bacteria
10
Q
How are bacteria classified?
A
gram stain and acid process
11
Q
These are bacterial forms that are resistant and remain viable for many years
A
endospores
12
Q
These are bacterial forms that lack nuclei and membrane-bound organelles
A
prokaryotes
13
Q
What are other examples of bacteria?
A
staph, bacterial pneumonia, tuberculosis, food poisoning, and salmonella
14
Q
What are bacteria classified as?
A
spheres, rods, and spirals
15
Q
This atypical bacteria grows inside animal cells (particularly rodents) and are transmitted by insect vectors
A
ricketts
16
Q
What is an example of Ricketts?
A
rocky mountain fever
17
Q
These small sub cellular organisms consist of genetic material protected by a protein coating called a capsid
A
viruses
18
Q
Why can’t viruses survive without a host?
A
they lack components for their own survival
19
Q
What are examples of viruses?
A
COVID-19, common cold, HIV, influenza, hepatitis, herpes
20
Q
What do viruses do to multiply?
A
they carry their own DNA or RNA and viral particles (visions) attach to the host cell and inserts its own genetic information. It then redirects host cell to produce new viruses
21
Q
How do you directly observe a virus?
A
through an electron microscope
22
Q
Viruses may lie dormant for extended period of time and then manifest in illness but are also unaffected by _____
A
antibiotics
23
Q
These can occur as single-celled organisms called yeast and form buds to reproduce. They can also occur as long branched filament-like structures (mold) and form spores to reproduce.
A
fungi
24
How many different types of fungi are there?
100,000
25
Fungi are key in the production of ______
alcohol, breads, and penicillin
26
Fungi causes things like _____
athlete's foot, ringworm, tines nigra
27
This type of fungi has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles
eukaryotic
28
The size of fungi, compared to bacteria are _____
much larger
29
This medically important fungi grows into a single-celled yeast and into filamentous hyphae-known as mold
dimorphic fungi
30
What are the 4 classifications of fungi?
-superficial (discoloration of the skin)
-cutaneous (involve the keratinized tissue of the hair, nails, and skin)
-subcutaneous (enters the host due to trauma to the skin)
-systemic (enters the circulatory and lymphatic systems, may be fatal)
31
These are the smallest and least understood microorganism. Method of replication is not understood and are discovered in 1983.
prions
32
Prions are believed to be ______
infectious proteins
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Prions can transform other proteins into prions but have no ______
DNA or RNA
34
What are examples of Prions?
spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) and alzheimer's
35
These complex single-celled animals generally exist in free-living organisms, are eukaryotic, and are larger than bacteria
Protozoa
36
Protozoa are equipped with a digestive system, therefore can _____
ingest food particles
37
Some protozoa are _____ and live within the human body
parasitic
38
Protozoa are classified as
-motile (moving
-non-motile (non-moving)
39
Where can protozoa cause a disease process in?
digestive system, respiratory system, genitourinary, circulatory system
40
What is the cycle of infection?
-infectious organisms
-reservoir of infection
-portal of exit
-susceptible host
-portal of entry
-transmission of disease
41
Infectious organisms are microorganisms capable of causing disease and are called ______
pathogens or pathogenic organisms
42
This distinguish pathogens from nonpathogenic organisms and normal flora
virulence factors
43
Patients are often hosts because of reduce immune system and are considered _______
susceptible host
44
Healthcare workers are also at risk of being susceptible host because _____
-exposure to blood and other bodily fluids
-can also spread a disease (wash hands)
-occupationally acquires
45
The route by which microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host
portal of entry
46
What are examples of portals of entry?
respiratory tract, urinary tract, GI tract, open wound or break in skin, bloodstream, mucous membranes of eyes, nose or mouth
47
This is a place where pathogens can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat to the host, may be human or nonhuman
reservoir of infection (water, food, animals)
48
What must a reservoir of infection have in order for pathogens to thrive?
moisture, nutrients, and suitable temperature
49
This is any route through which blood, body fluids, excretions or secretions leave the body
portal of exit
50
What are examples of portal of exit?
GI tract, open wound, respiratory tract, infected wound, bloodstream
51
The most direct way to break the cycle of infection is to ______
prevent transmission of the infectious organism from the reservoir to the susceptible host
52
What are the 6 main routes of transmission?
-direct contact
-fomites
-vectors
-vehicles
-airborne
-droplet contamination
53
Infected person must touch susceptible host and requires pathogens to be placed in _____ with susceptible tissue (EX: syphilis, HIV, staph infection)
direct contact
54
An object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms
(EX: contaminated gloves, x-ray table, positioning sponges and pens)
fomites
55
An arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infective to a new host. transmission occurs when an infected insect bites host
(EX: mosquitos-malaria, ticks-lime disease)
vectors
56
Any medium that transports microorganisms
(EX: contaminated food, water, drugs, and blood)
vehicles
57
Occurs from dust that contains spores or by means of droplet nuclei. Travel 3 feet or less and can remain suspended in the air for long periods. Can be inhaled.
(EX: TB, varicella viruses)
airborne
58
Occurs when an infectious individual coughs, sneezes, speaks or sings in the vicinity of a susceptible host. Do not travel far. Involves contact of the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth of a host with large droplets that contain microorganisms
(EX: influenza, meningitis, diphtheria)
droplet contamination
59
The body's defense against infection
natural resistance, acquired immunity, passive immunity
60
Provided by mechanical barriers of intact skin and mucous membranes
natural resistance
61
Can be born with this immunity, occurs when an individual develops antibodies to a particular organism as a result of either infection or immunization, can be from previous exposures, is long term.
(EX: chicken pox, measles)
acquired immunity
62
Occurs following an injection or preformed antibodies to a particular infection, newborns are temporarily immune because the antibodies are passed from mother to baby (if mother breastfeeds, antibodies pass from mother to baby), antibodies act immediately but weaken over time; short term
(EX: injections after exposure to a virus like hepatitis A)
passive immunity
63
The body sees as a foreign protein and forms antibodies
antigens
64
What are emerging diseases?
-new diseases appearing in the population
-existing diseases that are rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range
-resurgent or recurrent old diseases caused by an old or mutated pathogen
65
Department of a hospital responsible for keeping up to date on CDC recommendations and WHO data
infection-control department
66
Infection that occurs more than 48 hours after a patient is admitted to the hospital
healthcare-associated infection
67
What HAIs (healthcare-associated infection) are of greatest concern?
those that are multi drug-resistant
(EX: MSRA & VRE)
68
What is a common HAI (healthcare-associated infection) that is a GI infection that causes diarrhea?
C. Diff (clostridium difficile colitis)
69
What causes C. Diff and why is it difficult to control?
gram-positive bacillus; cannot be eliminated by routine asepsis methods
70
Who are most susceptible to getting C. Diff?
patients on antibiotics
71
What's the difference between nosocomial infections and iatrogenic infections?
nosocomial: hospital acquired
iatrogenic: result from activities of physicians
72
Who is most susceptible to nosocomial and iatrogenic infections?
-compromised patients
-medical personnel
-patients with flora issues
73
Factors that encourage nosocomial infections:
-environment
-therapeutic regimen
-equipment
-contamination during medical procedures
74
Factors increasing potential for nosocomial infections:
-age
-heredity
-nutritional status
-stress
-inadequate rest or exercise
-personal choice habits
75
What are disease causing microorganisms present in human blood and are considered nosocomial?
blood-borne pathogens
76
What is the most common cause of transmission of a blood-borne pathogen from patient to healthcare workers?
needle-stick injuries
77
What are the 2 types of blood-borne pathogens that are a concern in a hospital setting?
HIV & HBV
78
What is HIV responsible for?
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
79
After exposure to HIV, how long can a person remain asymptomatic? How long can results of a blood test take to be positive for HIV antibodies?
10 years; up to 1 year
80
How is hepatitis categorized?
A to E
81
How are Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E transmitted?
through food and water contaminated with feces
82
Which hepatitis viruses are blood-borne pathogens?
Hepatitis B, C, and D
83
What is a co-infection of Hepatitis B?
Hepatitis D
84
Which Hepatitis virus is more infectious than Hepatitis C?
Hepatitis B
85
Which hepatitis virus is spread by contact with blood or blood products and leads to yellow skin color (jaundice)?
Hepatitis C
86
When are blood tests positive after symptoms of Hepatitis develop?
2 to 6 weeks
87
How long does it take for patients to recover from Hepatitis?
6 to 8 weeks; blood tests will always show they were exposed
88
What are symptoms of hepatitis?
abdominal pain, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
89
What should you never do with a used needle? *
recap it
90
This is a contagious, airborne lung disease and preemployment screening is required for healthcare workers as well as after known exposure
tuberculosis (caused by m. tuberculosis)
91
Historically, how were infectious diseases contained?
Quarantine: not allowed to leave the house and no one could enter until all members were well
92
When hospitals were first instituted, what was done with infectious patients?
isolation in a single ward
93
What is the current infection-control system and what is it designed to do?
standard precautions; reduce risk of transmission of infections from unrecognized sources of blood borne diseases and other pathogens in healthcare institutions
94
Standard precautions includes transmission-based precautions for:
-airborne
-droplet
-contact
95
The practice of biosafety in medical imaging has standard precautions that apply to:
-blood
-bodily fluids
-secretions & excretions (except sweat)
-non-intact skin
-mucous membrane
96
Biosafety in medical imaging also include:
-hand washing
-gloving
-PPE
-non-needle recapping
-biospills
97
This involves reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual
medical asepsis
98
What are the 3 levels of medical asepsis?
-hand hygiene and other cleanliness measures
-disinfection (destroys a pathogen)
-sterilization (items treated with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ free)
99
What are reasons we don't wash hands?
-sinks inaccessible
-lack of time
-lack of role models
-concern about washing hands will irritate or dry hands out
100
What is the easiest and most effective method to control the transmission of infections?
medically aseptic hand washing
101
What do we wash our hands with?
antimicrobial soap
102
Due to the lack of hand hygiene, what did the CDC do?
in 2002, CDC began recommending alcohol based hand rubs for 15 seconds
103
What can't an alcohol hand rub not destroy?
C. Diff and Bacillus Anthracis
104
This reduces the incidence of airborne infections and the transfer of pathogens by fomites
cleaning
105
As a part of standard precautions, the CDC recommends isolating patients based on:
transmission precautions
106
Airborne precautions for pathogenic organisms that remain suspended in the air like TB, chicken pox, and measles include:
-the patient must be in a negative-pressure room
-you should wear a particulate respirator
-if the patient leaves the room, they should be wearing a particulate respirator
107
This is designed to reduce the contact of large-particle droplets (more than 5 microns) that can come into contact with mucous membranes
droplet precautions
108
What do droplet precautions prevent the transmission of?
diphtheria, pneumonia, influenza
109
Unlike airborne precautions, droplet precautions require no _____
special air flow
110
These are designed to reduce the risk of transmitting disease pathogens by either direct or indirect contact
contact precautions
111
What do contact precautions prevent the transmission of?
MRSE, VRE, E. coli, C. Diff, Impetigo
112
When should contact precautions be used?
when a virulent is spread by direct contact or indirect contact with a contaminated fomite
113
There are designed to reduce the risk of transmitting pathogens by both airborne droplet nuclei and direct skin to skin contact
combination airborne and contact precautions
114
Combination Airborne and Contact Precautions require wearing:
-gloves
-gown
-certain types of PPE
115
What roles will each technologist take when radiographing an isolated patient?
-one has all patient contact (dirty tech)
-other has no patient contact and only handles equipment (clean tech)
116
What is a benefit of having 2 technologists when radiographing an isolated patient?
reduces contamination of equipment, which is difficult to disinfect completely
117
Compromised patients include _____, they may require a modified ______-
neonates, organ transplants, burn victims, and those receiving chemotherapy; surgical aseptic technique
118
The process of creating and maintaining an area that is completely free of pathogens
surgical asepsis
119
The complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures
sterilization
120
The immersion and soaking of clean objects in a bath of germicidal solution followed by a sterile water rinse; not recommended for surgical asepsis
chemical sterilization
121
Device that provides steam sterilization under pressure; the most commonly used sterilization method
autoclaving
122
Method that uses a mixture of gases heated to 135 degrees; used for items that cannot be autoclaved
conventional gas sterilizaiton
123
Safer than conventional gas sterilization
gas plasma technology
124
What method is used more in Great Britain and tropical countries?
dry heat
125
Chemical indicators that change color when sterilization has occurs and used to identify whether a pack has been sterilized
sterility indicators
126
Packs are sterile if:
-they are clean, dry, and unopened
-their expiration date has not been exceeded
-their sterility indicators have changed to a predetermined color, confirming sterilization
127
Microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment
sterile field
128
The standard principles of surgical asepsis include:
-any sterile object or field touched by an unsterile object or person becomes contaminated
-never reach across a sterile field
-if you suspect an item is contaminated, discard it
-do not pass between the physician and the sterile field
-NEVER LEAVE A STERILE AREA UNATTENDED
-a one-inch border at the permitter of the sterile field is considered a "buffer zone" and is treated as if it were contaminated
129
To drop sterile contents onto a sterile field, you should drop the contents gently onto the sterile field _______
about 6 inches above the field at a slight angle
130
How many strokes are used to scrub the nails and skin for a surgical hand scrub?
nails - 30 strokes
10-20 strokes to each area of the skin, which usually takes about five minutes
131
How do you clean the fingernails when doing surgical hand rub?
clean fingernails under running water using disposable nail cleaner
132
what is the difference between closed gloving and open gloving?
closed gloving is used when a gown is necessary, open gloving is used when a gown is not necessary
133
Acceptable adult temperature range
36 degrees to 38 degrees Celsius (96.8 to 100.4 F)
134
Acceptable adult respiration range
12 to 20 breaths per minute
135
Acceptable adult pulse range
60 to 100 bpm
136
What is the normal systolic range?
95-119
137
What is the normal diastolic range?
60-79
138
What are the 2 stages of hypertension?
Stage 1: systolic ranges from 140 to 159 mm Hg; diastolic ranges 90 to 99 mm Hg
Stage 2: (the most severe form) systolic reading is 160 mm Hg or greater and diastolic is 100 mm Hg or greater
