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Flashcards in Exam 1 (Everything) Deck (111)
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1

When a lame forelimb is placed on the ground, how does the dog's head move?

Head will elevate as painful leg bears weight

2

Most of the
1) radius
2) tibia
3 femur
Can be palpated....... (name where each can be felt best)

1) medially
2) medially
3) laterally

3

When checking for patella luxation, how do you rotate to get:
1) medial luxation
2) lateral luxation

1) internally rotate during extension

2) externally rotate during extension

4

Ortlani's sign is a movement that checks for?

laxity associated with hip dysplasia

5

2 most common causes of lameness in MATURE dogs with no hx of trauma?

DJD
CCL rupture

6

Most common juvenile disease found in large, immature breeds with no hx of trauma?
1) in front leg
2) in rear leg

1) OCD of shoulder (or FCP)

2) hip dysplasia

7

3 blood supply sources for long bones?

1) nutrient artery (85% of diaphyseal blood supply)

2) periosteal vessels (can compensate if intramedullary (nutrient) vessels become compromised

3) metaphyseal vessels (penetrate cortex in metaphyseal region)

8

Briefly describe the function of:
1) osteocytes
2) osteoblasts
3) osteoclasts

1) maintain osteon

2) formation of bone (produce osteoid)

3) resorption of bone

9

Which property of bone allows it to sustain a sudden impact (strong when rapidly loaded)

Viscoelasticity

10

Describe which charge is released with the following forces and which cells are subsequently activated:
1) compression
2) Tension

Which property of bone is this?

1) compression--negative charge released; stimulates osteoblasts

2) releases positive charge; stimulates osteoclasts

Piezoelectric property

11

The ability for bone to better withstand loads on its long axis than on it's short axis is which property?

Anisotrophy

12

A complex fracture with significant tissue injury would be indicative of what type of loading?

Rapid loading (high amount of energy produced)

13

Where do the following forces act:
1) axial
2) shear

1) act parallel to long axis (tensile, compressive)

2) parallel to surface

14

Describe the difference btwn Cantilever bending and three point bending.

Cantilever--bone is fixed at one end and load is placed on opposite end (like a lever)
**forces is highest at fixation point

Three point bending equal loads in same direction on each end and an additional load in the middle going opposite direction

15

What type of fx typically results from:
1) compressive force
2) tensile forces
3) bending forces
4) bending + compressino
5) torsion

1) oblique fx
2) transverse
3) transverse
4) butterfly segment
5) spiral

16

Name 4 causes of pathologic fractures

neoplasia
disuses osteopenia
osteomyelitis
implant removal

17

3 basic factors that support bone healing?

blood supply
alignment
stability

18

For bone healing to occur, interfragmentary strain should be....

<25%

19

Mechanism by which long bone grows in:
1) width
2) length

1) intramembranous bone formation

2) endochondral bone formation

20

Primary bone healing requires _____ _____ ______

rigid internal fixation

21

Name the 5 components of articular cartilage

1) Hyaluronic acid
2) collagen
3) GAGs (keratin sulfate & chondroitin sulfate)
4) chondrocytes
5) water

22

What are the components of proteoglycan?

1 link protein
2 core proteins
GAGs

23

How does Ortalni sign differ btwn young and older dogs with hip dysplasia

In younger dogs, the joint has laxity and ortlani sign will be positive

With older dogs, there is DJD present but not laxity (thickened joint capsule); no ortlani sign

24

More common direction of coxofemoral luxation?

craniodorsal

25

Which tx option for coxofemoral luxation has highest re-luxation potential?

Closed reduction

26

Describe the idea behind the toggle pin option of open reduction

used when there's poor joint capsule integrity

--create a synthetic round ligament to anchor femoral head into acetabulum

27

How should the hindlimb be positioned when making your bone cut for FHNE?

limb must be externally rotated with patella pointing straight at ceiling

28

Which procedure would be indicated for young dogs (12-16 weeks) with minimal hip laxity?
*This procedure is NOT for luxated hips*

Juvenile pubic symphysiodesis

*pubic symphysis no longer grows, causing acetabular rims to grow outward over femoral heads

29

Which tx for coxofemoral disease is indicated for DJD and traumatic luxations?

Total hip replacement

30

A coxofemoral disease of young (4-12months) SMALL BREED dogs

Legg-Calve-Perthes

31

Deep cartilage injuries are repaired with?

Fibrocartilage

32

Normal synovial fluid:
1) cell count
2) predominant cell type

1) low (<2 X10^3)

2) mononuclear cells (94-100%)

33

Most common form of arthritis in dogs and cats?
Which form affects which species?

Osteoarthritis (non-inflammatory)

Primary--cats
Dogs--secondary

34

Pain associated with OA arises from which tissue?

Synovium (synovitis)

35

How does the synovial fluid count change with OA?

Doesn't change drastically

may see a slight increase in total cell count

36

Most common route of infection with bacterial infective arthritis?

direct inoculation

37

Which type of dogs (sex and size) commonly get bacterial arthritis? And how do they typically present?

Large, males

Severe, SINGLE LIMB lameness (non-weightbearing) with swollen joint

38

What types of synovial changes are expected with bacterial arthritis?

MARKEDLY increased cell count (40-267)

predominantly neutrophils

39

How does the APPEARANCE of synovial fluid change with RA?

yellow and turbid

40

Which drug is most commonly associated with drug-induced IMPA

Sulfonamides

41

Which stifle stabilizers are lax in flexion?

Caudolateral band of CCL
lateral collateral ligament

42

Describe the location of the CCL in relation to the joint space

intra-articular but extrasynovial

43

Which menisucs lacks a femoral attachment?

Medial

*Lateral attached by meniscofemoral ligament

44

4 functions of CCL?

1) prevents cranial tibial thrust
2) prevents stifle hyperextension
3) prevents internal rotation of tibia during flexion
4) proprioception

45

What location and type of tear is most common in mesincus?

Caudal pole of medial meniscus

longitudinal (bucket-handle tear)

46

Describe cranial tibial thrust test

place proximal hand with index finger over patella/tibial tuberosity & thumb behind fabella

grasp metatarsals with other hand and flex hock while maintaining static angle of stifle

47

Which diagnostic test is the gold standard for CCL disease diagnosis?

arthroscopy or arthrotomy

48

What 3 things are used in non-surgical management of OA/CCL disease?

Weight loss
Pain meds
Nutraceuticals

49

What 5 descriptors should be used for fractures?

Which bone
Location
open/closed
Complete/incomplete
direction of displacement

50

Concerning the pathophysiology of osteomyeltitis, what is the major predisposing factor?

Loss of blood supply

51

Osteomyelitis that occurs from hematogenous spread commonly affects which area of the bone?

Metaphysis of long bones

52

Most common infectious agent causing osteomyelitis?

Staphyloccocus intermedius

53

How does the patient's clincal presentation differ between traumatic osteomyelitis and hematogenous osteomyelitis?

Traumatic= LOCALIZED disease; the animals will not present systemically ill

54

Differentiate between a type 1 and type 2 open fracture

Type1 is <1cm and created from inside out

Type 2 is >1cm and created from outside in

55

Open fractures with extensive soft tissue injury are classified as what type?

Type 3

56

Which type of treatment would NOT be indicated for open fractures?

External coaptation

*risk of instability is worse than risk associated with implants

57

IM pins primarily resist which force(s)?

Bending only

58

Cerclage wire + IM pin is indicated for which type of fractures?

Long oblique

59

Concerning cerclage wire, which type of placement (full, hemi, interfragmentary) is indicated for:
1) transverse & short obliques
2) long obliques & spiral fx
3) for fx on flat, non-weight bearing bones

1) hemicerclage

2) full cerclage (with IM pin)

3) interfragmentary

60

T/F: cerclage wire placed as hemicerclage provides excellent mechanical stability

FALSE

*These are not left in!! Only use to improve alignment while placing primary implant

61

For which type of fx is pin and tension band indicated?

Avulsion fractures

62

Describe the general principle/idea behind pin and tension band?

Allows the pull of the tendon to create compression at fx site

63

Which primary implant would be good for tx of a comminuted fracture with closed technique?

Interlocking nails

*resist ALL forces

64

Differentiate btwn anatomic and biologic reduction

Anatomic--all pieces are replaced; full reconstructed bone

Biologic--major fx segments are realigned

65

For which type of fx would biologic reduction be indicated?

Severely comminuted, non-articular fx

66

Anatomic reduction requires which type of surgical approach?

Open

67

Compare cortical vs. cancellous screws
1) where in bone they're used
2) thread description

1) cortical used in diaphysis; cancellous used in metaphysis & epiphysis

2) cortical--shallow threads
cancellous--deeper threads

68

Describe how lag screw placement works?

Screw is place perpendicular to fracture line and grips ONLY the FAR cortex--compresses the fragments together when tightened

69

Concerning locking and non-locking screws:
1) how do the screw requirements differ
2) which is less likely to fail

1) Non-locking= AT LEAST 3 bicortical screws per segment

Locking=2-3 bicortical screws per segment placed at 90* angle

2) locking is less likely to fail

70

What are the 4 functions/applications of plates

1) compression
2) neutralization
3) bridging
4) buttress

71

For which type of fx is bridging plate application indicated?

non-reducible, non-articular, comminuted diaphyseal fx

72

How large should a screw be relative to bone diameter?

should not exceed 40% of bone diameter

73

What are the 3 components of an ESF?

fixation pins
connecting bar
connecting clamp

74

Concerning ESF placement:
1) how many pins per fragment
2) half vs. full pins?

1) at least 2 pins per fragment (max=4)

2) half pins penetrate the skin on one side only; full go through both sides

75

How do you select the correct pin size?

should be 20-25% of the diameter of the fragment it's being placed in

76

For ESF, describe planar/lateral of each type:
1) 1a
2) 1b
3) 2a
4) 2b
5) 3

1) unilateral, uniplanar

2) unilateral, biplanar

3) bilateral, uniplanar

4) modified bilateral, uniplanar

5) bilateral, biplanar

77

How do type 2a and 2b ESFs differ?

2a is ALL full pin

2b is a mix of half and full

78

What are the 5 major categories of wound dressings

Adherent
Non-adherent
Antimicrobial
Hyperosmotic
Hydrophilic

79

When would an adherent wound dressing be indicated?

contaminated wound in early phases of healing (before granulation tissue formation due to non-selective debridement)

80

During which phases of healing are hyperosmotic wound dressing appropriate?

Inflammatory and early repair phases

81

Which type of wound dressing would be indicated for wounds with moderate to marked exudate?

Hydrophilic (hydrocolloid)

82

How can you monitor for swelling with bandages placed on limbs?

leave 3rd and 4th digits visible to monitor for separation (swelling)

83

Most common complication associated with bandage placement?

Dermatitis

84

For which size of dogs and which type of fracture(s) is external coaptation contraindicated?

Small/toy breeds with fractures of distal radius and/or ulna

85

Which type of fx are well-suited for external coap?

minimally displaced, non-articular, stable fx

*cortices should have 50% contact

86

Which type of splint is used to immobilize the sculohumeral or coxofemoral joint?

Spica splint

87

For which type of luxation is an Ehmer sling contraindicated?

caudoventral coxofemoral

88

Which sling is used to maintain thoracic limb flexion and prevent weightbearing (i.e. following shoulder luxation)

Velpeau sling

89

Which elbow dysplasia abnormalities occur in medial compartment?

FCP
OCD
EI
UMHE (ununited medial humeral epicodyle)

90

By what age should the anconeal physis close?

24 weeks

91

Most common surgical approach used for UAP?

Caudolateral

92

An English setter present for forelimb lameness and palpates painfully on medially side of elbow; based on signalment and clinical signs, what's your top DDx?

UMHE

93

When checking for UMHE on radiographs, when should the medial epicondyle physis close?

by 6months

94

A 8month old cocker spaniel presents for forelimb lameness and is painful in elbow; there is minimal joint effusion; You take a radiograph and see a dark line between the humeral epicondyles... your dx?

IOHC

*should be fused by 8-12 weeks

95

Which radiograph view would be best if you suspect FCP?

Distomedial-proximolateral oblique (DMPLO-35 degrees)

96

Where does OCD occur in the distal humerus

medial humeral condyle

97

Where is the articular-epiphyseal cartilage complex located?

on the end of the secondary ossification center (closest to joint)

98

Most common locations for OCD
1) forelimb
2) hindlimb

1) shoulder--caudal aspect of humeral head

2) lateral femoral condyle & medial trochlear ridge of talus

99

What type of tissue fills defects caused by OCD?

fibrocartilage

100

Which 3 breeds are most commonly affected by panosteitis?

GSD
Basset
Labs

101

A 4month old mix breed present with high fever, lameness, and symmetrical enlargement in carpal area (both legs effected). Radiographs show what appears to be a "double physis"...your top ddx?

HOD

*on metaphyseal side of active physes

102

If you sampled a HOD lesion, what would be the primary cell type on cytology?

Neutrophils

103

Concerning treatment/prognosis of HOD
1) which supplements are contraindicated and why
2) what is a potential negatively sequela following recovery

1) Vitamins C & D--promote dystrophic calcification

2) Valgus deformity

104

Concerning long antebrachial growth:
1) what % does distal radial physis contribute
2) what % does distal ulnar physis contribute

1) 60-70% of radial length

2) 100% of ulnar length

105

Concerning the cuff tendons of the shoulder, which is:
1) cranial
2) medial
3) lateral
4) caudolateral

1) supraspinatus
2) subscapularis
3) infraspinatus
4) teres minor

106

Though they both affect toy breeds of dog, how do congenital shoulder luxations present differently from congenital elbow luxations

Shoulder--will be weightbearing lame (may occasionally carry leg)

Elbow--will be unable to extend elbow (bilateral praying mantis)

107

Which congenital anomaly is associated with ectrodactyly

congenital elbow luxation

108

Concerning the femoral head, define:
1) coxa vara
2) coxa valga

1) decreased angle of inclination

2) increased angle of inclination

109

Two major goals of sx correction of MPL?

containment
alignment

110

An anti-rotational suture helps rotate the _____ toward _____

tibia; midline

111

Name 3 types of bone cyst

Subchondral
Simple cystic
Aneurysmal