Exam 2 Flashcards Preview

Musculoskeletal > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam 2 Deck (57)
Loading flashcards...
1

What determines the muscle fiber type

neuron that innervates it

2

what are the 3 types of muscle fibers? Include their speeds of contraction & relationship to fatigue

Type 1-- slow contracting

Type 2a-- fast twitch; fatigue resistant

Type 2b--fast twitch; fatigue sensitive

*As you move from type 1 to 2b, mitochondria # decreases, myosin ATPase activity increases

3

What are muscle's 5 responses to injury

degeneration
necrosis
regeneration
atrophy
hypertrophy

4

Muscular dystrophy in dogs has what type of inheritance?

X-linked

5

Most common form of MG in dogs; describe the pathogenesis (briefly)

acquired

Abs form against acetylcholine receptors

6

Which clostridial diseases cause:
1) tissue damage/necrosis
2) no tissue damage

1) malignant edema, blackleg, gas gangrene

2) botulism, tetanus

7

Ideal environment for growth of clostridium in wounds? (2 things)

Anaerobic environment
alkaline pH

8

Blackleg is due to what type of infection with which spp. of clostridium?

latent infection with C. chauvoei

**rancid butter odor**

9

How does C. botulinum produce its effects? What type of paralysis does it cause?

prevents release of ACh

*FLACCID paralysis

10

Most common cause of abscess in:
1) cattle
2) cat-bite wounds

1) T. pyogenes

2) Pasteurella Multocida

11

Masticatory muscle myositis in dogs is due to immune-mediated destruction of?

2m muscle fibers (masticatory muscles)

12

Because both these diseases present with muscle atrophy of the masticatory and temporalis muscles in dogs, you must biopsy to differentiate

Masticatory muscle myositis & Polymyositis

13

Most common location of Rhabdomyosarcoma

trigone region of urinary bladder

14

The net result of ionophore toxicity that causes the clinical signs?

Ca overload of muscle cells

15

Which spp. is most sensitive to ionophores? Least?

Horse
Poultry

(pig, dog > sheep. goat > cattle)

16

White muscle disease is due to deficiency of? What types of lesions would you expect on muscles?

Selenium and/or Vitamin E

lesions are multifocal, multiphasic

17

With corticosteroid myopathy affects type ___ muscle fibers. We expect CK to be _____ because it causes muscle ______.

2b muscle fibers

expect CK to be normal because it causes atrophy (not necrosis)

18

How do malignant hyperthermia and exercise-induced collapse differ (2 ways)

1) with EIC muscles are FLACCID; with MH they are rigid

2) EIC animals will spontaneously recover
MH requires immediately cooling therapy

19

Episodes of muscle weakness, fasiculations, and excessive sweating triggered by stress in horses is indicative of what disease? What type of inheritance does it show?

HYPP

Autosomal dominant (Impressive bloodline)

20

Which disease is associated with gradual progressive atrophy of the hindlimbs and tail and occurs primarily in draft horses

Shivers

21

Collagen & ground substance give bone its _____ while minerals give bone its ______

strength; hardness

22

Difference btwn bone modeling and bone remodeling

modeling--formation and resorption NOT coupled (young, growing animals)

Bone remodeling= formation and resorption coupled

23

Rickets and osteomalacia is most often cause by?

Deficiency of PO4 or vitamin D

24

What dictates where an amputation is done?

the tumor

25

When doing amputation, when would leaving excess tissue/structures be indicated?

If you planning to use a prosthesis

26

Most common protocol for radiation palliative therapy for OSA

consecutive day dosing

27

Elevation of which enzyme on serum chemistry is a poor prognositc indicator for OSA?

ALP

28

4 most common locations for canine OSA

*AWAY FROM ELBOW, TOWARD KNEE*

distal radius
proximal humerus
distal femur
proximal tibia

29

MST for canine OSA with:
1) extirpation + chemo
2) amputation alone
3) palliative radiation

1) ~1yr

2 & 3) 4-6 months

30

Location of OSA where would be assoc. with a better prognosis and why?

Mandible/maxillary region

Lower met rate (50% compared to 90%)

31

How is feline OSA different?

Met rate is much lower and amputation alone can produce good long-term survival

32

Horses can develop compensatory lameness on the ______ ______ limb due to overloading

diagonal paired limb

33

Which important structure/area is not blocked by the palmar digital nerve block?

Dorsal hoof

34

Bruised sole involving the bar is called

corn

35

Which nerve block would be best for diagnosis of bruised sole?

Abaxial sesamoid

36

Pedal osteitis is most common in which breed of horse? Which feet?

Standardbred

Most commonly forefeet

37

The most common cause of lameness in horses

subsolar abscess

38

2 instances when antibiotics would be indicated for tx of sub solar abscess

1) it's a foal or weanling

2) P3 involvement (or joint sepsis)

39

Most common presentation for a horse with navicular syndrome

chronic bilateral forelimb lameness

40

T/F: radiographs are an important tool in the diagnosis of navicular syndrome

FALSE

rads are important for PROGNOSIS only

41

Most common complication of palmar digital neurectomy?

Neuroma formation

42

Most common presentation for fracture of navicular bone

acute to chronic unilateral forelimb lameness

43

What dose of triamcinolone is toxic to horses and can result in laminitis?

>16mg IM or in joint

44

A deep digital flexor tenotomy is considered a salvage procedure for horses affected with?

chronic laminits

*only pasture sound

45

Which salvage procedure for a horse with chronic laminitis would allow them to have an athletic career?

Inferior check ligament desmotomy

46

Classic radiographic finding assoc. with keratoma?

resorption of P3

47

Puncture wounds in which location can lead to infection of the navicular bursa

near mid-point of frog (or more caudal)

we don't worry about anything more cranial (i.e. point of frog)

48

What are the 6 types of P3 fxs?

type 1--wing (non-articular)
type 2-- wing, articular
type 3-- down middle (most common)
type 4-- extensor process
type 5--comminuted
type 6--toe/margin

49

As far as side bones are concerned, what is the limiting factor that can lead to lameness?

if they become immobile

50

What is quittor?

when the lateral cartilages of P3 become infected and necrose

51

Most important goal of mandibular fx repair?

maintaining occlusion

52

Tension side of the mandible is?

ORAL surface

53

Craniomandibular osteopathy is assoc. with which breed?

West highland white terriers (Westie jaw)

**young (4-8m)

54

Contraindications for laser therapy (2)

cancer
open growth plates

55

principles for aqua therapy (5)

buoyancy
thermal effects
resistance
turbulence
osmotic pressure

56

what areas are included in a multi-modal approach to rehab? (4)

pain control
weight management
environmental concerns
underlying health issues
nutrition & exercise

57

what are the precautions when developing a rehab plan? (5)

CV disease
resp disease
wounds
catheters
skin infection