Flashcards in Exam 2 Deck (57)
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1
What determines the muscle fiber type
neuron that innervates it
2
what are the 3 types of muscle fibers? Include their speeds of contraction & relationship to fatigue
Type 1-- slow contracting
Type 2a-- fast twitch; fatigue resistant
Type 2b--fast twitch; fatigue sensitive
*As you move from type 1 to 2b, mitochondria # decreases, myosin ATPase activity increases
3
What are muscle's 5 responses to injury
degeneration
necrosis
regeneration
atrophy
hypertrophy
4
Muscular dystrophy in dogs has what type of inheritance?
X-linked
5
Most common form of MG in dogs; describe the pathogenesis (briefly)
acquired
Abs form against acetylcholine receptors
6
Which clostridial diseases cause:
1) tissue damage/necrosis
2) no tissue damage
1) malignant edema, blackleg, gas gangrene
2) botulism, tetanus
7
Ideal environment for growth of clostridium in wounds? (2 things)
Anaerobic environment
alkaline pH
8
Blackleg is due to what type of infection with which spp. of clostridium?
latent infection with C. chauvoei
**rancid butter odor**
9
How does C. botulinum produce its effects? What type of paralysis does it cause?
prevents release of ACh
*FLACCID paralysis
10
Most common cause of abscess in:
1) cattle
2) cat-bite wounds
1) T. pyogenes
2) Pasteurella Multocida
11
Masticatory muscle myositis in dogs is due to immune-mediated destruction of?
2m muscle fibers (masticatory muscles)
12
Because both these diseases present with muscle atrophy of the masticatory and temporalis muscles in dogs, you must biopsy to differentiate
Masticatory muscle myositis & Polymyositis
13
Most common location of Rhabdomyosarcoma
trigone region of urinary bladder
14
The net result of ionophore toxicity that causes the clinical signs?
Ca overload of muscle cells
15
Which spp. is most sensitive to ionophores? Least?
Horse
Poultry
(pig, dog > sheep. goat > cattle)
16
White muscle disease is due to deficiency of? What types of lesions would you expect on muscles?
Selenium and/or Vitamin E
lesions are multifocal, multiphasic
17
With corticosteroid myopathy affects type ___ muscle fibers. We expect CK to be _____ because it causes muscle ______.
2b muscle fibers
expect CK to be normal because it causes atrophy (not necrosis)
18
How do malignant hyperthermia and exercise-induced collapse differ (2 ways)
1) with EIC muscles are FLACCID; with MH they are rigid
2) EIC animals will spontaneously recover
MH requires immediately cooling therapy
19
Episodes of muscle weakness, fasiculations, and excessive sweating triggered by stress in horses is indicative of what disease? What type of inheritance does it show?
HYPP
Autosomal dominant (Impressive bloodline)
20
Which disease is associated with gradual progressive atrophy of the hindlimbs and tail and occurs primarily in draft horses
Shivers
21
Collagen & ground substance give bone its _____ while minerals give bone its ______
strength; hardness
22
Difference btwn bone modeling and bone remodeling
modeling--formation and resorption NOT coupled (young, growing animals)
Bone remodeling= formation and resorption coupled
23
Rickets and osteomalacia is most often cause by?
Deficiency of PO4 or vitamin D
24
What dictates where an amputation is done?
the tumor
25
When doing amputation, when would leaving excess tissue/structures be indicated?
If you planning to use a prosthesis
26
Most common protocol for radiation palliative therapy for OSA
consecutive day dosing
27
Elevation of which enzyme on serum chemistry is a poor prognositc indicator for OSA?
ALP
28
4 most common locations for canine OSA
*AWAY FROM ELBOW, TOWARD KNEE*
distal radius
proximal humerus
distal femur
proximal tibia
29
MST for canine OSA with:
1) extirpation + chemo
2) amputation alone
3) palliative radiation
1) ~1yr
2 & 3) 4-6 months
30
Location of OSA where would be assoc. with a better prognosis and why?
Mandible/maxillary region
Lower met rate (50% compared to 90%)
31
How is feline OSA different?
Met rate is much lower and amputation alone can produce good long-term survival
32
Horses can develop compensatory lameness on the ______ ______ limb due to overloading
diagonal paired limb
33
Which important structure/area is not blocked by the palmar digital nerve block?
Dorsal hoof
34
Bruised sole involving the bar is called
corn
35
Which nerve block would be best for diagnosis of bruised sole?
Abaxial sesamoid
36
Pedal osteitis is most common in which breed of horse? Which feet?
Standardbred
Most commonly forefeet
37
The most common cause of lameness in horses
subsolar abscess
38
2 instances when antibiotics would be indicated for tx of sub solar abscess
1) it's a foal or weanling
2) P3 involvement (or joint sepsis)
39
Most common presentation for a horse with navicular syndrome
chronic bilateral forelimb lameness
40
T/F: radiographs are an important tool in the diagnosis of navicular syndrome
FALSE
rads are important for PROGNOSIS only
41
Most common complication of palmar digital neurectomy?
Neuroma formation
42
Most common presentation for fracture of navicular bone
acute to chronic unilateral forelimb lameness
43
What dose of triamcinolone is toxic to horses and can result in laminitis?
>16mg IM or in joint
44
A deep digital flexor tenotomy is considered a salvage procedure for horses affected with?
chronic laminits
*only pasture sound
45
Which salvage procedure for a horse with chronic laminitis would allow them to have an athletic career?
Inferior check ligament desmotomy
46
Classic radiographic finding assoc. with keratoma?
resorption of P3
47
Puncture wounds in which location can lead to infection of the navicular bursa
near mid-point of frog (or more caudal)
we don't worry about anything more cranial (i.e. point of frog)
48
What are the 6 types of P3 fxs?
type 1--wing (non-articular)
type 2-- wing, articular
type 3-- down middle (most common)
type 4-- extensor process
type 5--comminuted
type 6--toe/margin
49
As far as side bones are concerned, what is the limiting factor that can lead to lameness?
if they become immobile
50
What is quittor?
when the lateral cartilages of P3 become infected and necrose
51
Most important goal of mandibular fx repair?
maintaining occlusion
52
Tension side of the mandible is?
ORAL surface
53
Craniomandibular osteopathy is assoc. with which breed?
West highland white terriers (Westie jaw)
**young (4-8m)
54
Contraindications for laser therapy (2)
cancer
open growth plates
55
principles for aqua therapy (5)
buoyancy
thermal effects
resistance
turbulence
osmotic pressure
56
what areas are included in a multi-modal approach to rehab? (4)
pain control
weight management
environmental concerns
underlying health issues
nutrition & exercise
57
