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Immunohematology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the best temperature range for agglutinins to react?

A

0-5C

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2
Q

Three infections that may cause cold agglutinins to develop.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infections mononucleosis, primary atypical pneumonia

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3
Q

What is desensitization?

A

Process in which a hypersensitive animal is given several very small subcutaneous injections of antigen at closely-spaced intervals and may then be able to tolerate an ordinarily shocking dose without severe reaction

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4
Q

Explain Graves’ disease

A

hyperthyroidism; characterized by goiter, weight loss, tachycardia, increased T3 and T4 and decreased or absent TSH

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5
Q

Explain what agglutination means in a hemagglutination inhibition test.

A

negative reaction

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6
Q

Explain what lack of agglutination means in a hemagglutination inhibition test

A

positive reaction

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7
Q

Which organ is thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed?

A

thymus

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8
Q

The Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?

A

FTA-ABS

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9
Q

When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?

A

between first and third week following appearance of primary lesion

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10
Q

Secondary syphilis serological test to detect syphilis results.

A

positive

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11
Q

How long after treatment does the serological test for syphilis become nonreactive in secondary syphilis?

A

12 months after treatment

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12
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6 to 8 weeks after the first chancre

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13
Q

Pharmacologically active mediators of anaphylaxis

A

Histamine, neutrophil chemotactiv factor, tryptase, chimase, and ECF-A

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14
Q

Is latent stage of syphilis contagious between mother and fetus?

A

usually noncontagious

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15
Q

P24 is a viral antigen that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV

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16
Q

Name three means of transmission of the HIV virus

A

body fluids, sexual activity, mother to fetus

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17
Q

Needles that dispense antigen for the VDRL test must be calibrated to deliver how much?

A

1/60 mL

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18
Q

How often should the needle for the VDRL test be QC’d?

A

each batch

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19
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?

A

18th week

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20
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test identify in the patient’s serum?

A

Treponemal antibodies

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21
Q

What does the fluorescein labeled antihuman globulin do for the purposes of interpreting FTA-ABS?

A

anti-human globulin makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible

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22
Q

What is labeled with fluorescent dye in the direct fluorescent antibody test?

A

antibody

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23
Q

The serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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24
Q

7 examples of an autoimmune disease

A

Myasthenia gravis, Addison’s, insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, MS, Grave’s, SLE, RA

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25
What organs are affected in Myasthenia gravis?
nerve-muscle synapse
26
What organs are affected in Addison's disease?
adrenal glands
27
What organs are affected in insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
pancreas
28
What organs are affected in MS?
myelin sheath on axons of neural cells
29
What organs are affected in Grave's disease?
thyroid
30
What test requires a flat-bottomed bottle?
VDRL
31
Explain flocculation test
specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations
32
2 examples of flocculation test
VDRL and RPR
33
What test is always read macroscopically?
RPR
34
A modified VDRL antigen is used in what type of testing?
RPR
35
Synonyms for Type B viral hepatitis
serum hepatitis, Hepatitis B, Hep B, viral hepatitis, HBV
36
What is a chancre?
primary inflammatory lesion of primary syphilis
37
What should the rotator speed be at in order to properly perform the RPR test?
100 rpm
38
Why do you get false negative results with a postzone reaction?
the quantity of antigen exceeds the quantity of antibody
39
The antibody to tissue lipids is called?
reagin
40
Why would you get false negative results with a prozone reaction?
The quantity of antibody exceeds the quantity of antigen
41
Explain the zone of equivalence
antibody and antigen are precipitated to the max
42
What is tannic acid used for in serologic testing?
allows proteins to complex with RBCs as antigen carriers
43
What is serum sickness?
reaction caused by injection of therapeutic foreign serum usually made from horse or cow found in tetanus, diphtheria, and gangrene vaccinations
44
How does the Western blot test differ from ELISA tests?
ELISA is a screening test that identifies antibodies; WB uses antibody to individual antigen for specific identification so it is confirmatory
45
What is an agglutinin?
substance that causes particles to coagulate to form a thickened mass
46
Why is cholesterol added to the antigen that is used in the flocculation test for syphilis?
it is the absorption center for tissue lipids
47
Does treating a pregnant woman with syphilis cure the fetus?
yes
48
Are congenital, primary, and secondary syphilis best treated by repeated doses of penicillin?
no
49
Does treatment alter any tissue damage that has already occurred?
no
50
Is it necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment for syphilis?
no
51
Can tertiary syphilis be treated?
yes
52
Loss of self-tolerance results in what type of disease?
autoimmune
53
Explain cross reactivity and what kind of results it can lead to
antigens that are closely related in structure can cause false positive results
54
The presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease?
SLE (lupus)
55
Exposure to group A hemolytic Streptococci can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a patient's serum?
anti-streptolysin O
56
Define anaphylaxis
severe systemic allergic reaction that results when the organs involved are primarily blood vessels and smooth muscles of the circulatory system
57
What is a xenograft?
transplant of tissue from one species to another
58
What is a xenograft also known as?
heterograft
59
Transplanting from one individual to a genetically nonidentical person of the same species is called what?
homograft or allograft
60
Define contact dermatitis.
hypersensitive reaction caused by direct contact of a substance to the skin
61
Give three examples of things that can cause contact dermatitis.
metals, drugs, and plants
62
Which type of screening test is most widely used to detect HIV?
ELISA
63
Which type of confirmatory test is most widely used to detect HIV?
Western blot
64
Which disease of Hep C, HIV, Hep G, and Hep B is most virulent?
Hep C
65
Why is Hep C more dangerous than Hep B?
85% of cases of Hep C convert to chronic hepatitis, whereas 10% of Hep B convert; 2 out of 3 infected Hep C become carriers that can transmit
66
What is the first antigen to appear in the serum of a person infected with HBV?
Hep B surface antigen
67
How is Hep A transmitted?
oral-fecal
68
Type IV hypersensitivity is the only type that involves which type of cells?
T cells
69
Is testing for the p24 antigen useful as a screening test for blood products?
no
70
On average, how long does it take an individual to develop HIV antibodies after exposure?
6 to 12 weeks
71
What antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from hepatitis B or who have received the hepatitis B vaccination?
Hep B surface antibody; also known has Hep Bs or HBsAb
72
Which form of hepatitis is responsible for the most post-transfusion reactions?
hepatitis C
73
If a patient has an immune response to his/her own IgG, they would mostly likely have a positive or negative RA test?
positive
74
Which set of antigens would be represented on a positive Western blot?
GP41, GP120
75
The antigen in a precipitin reaction must be..?
soluble
76
What does ANA stand for?
anti-nuclear antibody
77
How is testing for ANA useful?
found in >95% of SLE patients
78
What does HLA stand for?
human leukocyte antigen
79
Why is HLA important?
most important immunologic barrier to the survival of transplanted organs and tissues?
80
Which hepatitis virus requires hep B infection?
Hep D
81
What is the primary mode of transmission for EBV and IM?
contact with salivary secretions from infected individual
82
What % of lymphs would be expected to be seen as atypical on a peripheral blood smear of a patient infected with EBV or IM?
10% of lymphs presenting as atypical
83
Which malignancy has been associated with EBV?
Burkitt's lymphoma and Hodgkin's disease
84
Which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years?
cytomegalovirus (CMV)
85
Examples of antiretroviral drug therapies.
nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, coreceptor antagonists, and integrase inhibitors.
86
How do antiretroviral drug therapies work?
block various steps in viral replication
87
Which cells are the main target for the HIV virus?
T helper cells
88
Why are T helper cells the main target for the HIV virus?
high number of CD4 antigens
89
What is one method for determining the progression to the AIDS stage of HIV infection?
CD4 T-cell count lower than 200 per microliter
90
How is CD4 T-cell enumeration done (the gold standard)?
flow cytometry
91
Shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?
Varicella Zoster virus
92
Which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly bloody in regards to HIV transmission?
saliva, sputum, nasal secretions, tears, sweat, urine, vomitus, and feces
93
What is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing?
transcribes viral RNA into DNA
94
What is the gene that codes for the enzymes necessary for HIV replication?
pol gene
95
Describe the latency period of HIV infection.
decrease in viremia, clinical symptoms subtle or absent, gradual deterioration of immune system
96
What is the medium length of time the latency period of HIV infection can last?
10 years
97
Symptoms of primary infection of HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?
mono
98
What are the advantages of chemiluminescent assays?
excellent sensitivity, reagents are stable and relatively nontoxic, inexpensive, faster turnaround time
99
What are the disadvantages of chemiluminescent assays?
false results possible from lack of precision in injection of the hydrogen peroxide, urine and plasma may cause quenching of the light emission
100
What is turbidimetry?
measure of the turbidity or cloudiness of a solution, measures the reduction of light intensity due to reflection, absorption, or scatter
101
Describe nephlometry.
measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes through a suspension
102
The antibody that is rheumatoid factor belongs to which Ig class?
IgM
103
What is the test anti-CCP?
cyclic citrullinated peptides
104
What is anti-CCP used for?
lead marker for RA, much more specific than RF
105
What does VDRL stand for?
venereal disease research lab
106
What does RPR stand for?
rapid plasma reagin
107
What is precipitation?
combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible

Immunohematology (7 decks)

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