Exam4

Question 1

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

Answer 1

Duffy

Question 2

Which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

Answer 2

Anti-I, anti-M, anti-N, anti-P₁

Question 3

Which autoantibody specificity is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

Answer 3

autoanti-P

Question 4

What test discussed in lecture is used to detect autoanti-P?

Answer 4

Donath-Landsteiner test

Question 5

Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes?

Answer 5

M, N, S, Fy^a, Fy^b

Question 6

Which antigens are enhanced by enzymes?

Answer 6

I, Jk^a, i, P₁, Rh (not anti-D), Lewis

Question 7

What procedure might help you distinguish between an anti-Fy^a and an anti-Jk^a?

Answer 7

Ficin-treated panel

Question 8

Which antibody is destroyed by a ficin-treated panel?

Answer 8

Fy^a

Question 9

Which antibody is enhanced by a ficin-treated panel?

Answer 9

Jk^a

Question 10

Which blood group is produced in the tissues?

Answer 10

Lewis

Question 11

What is the McLeod phenotype?

Answer 11

absence of Kx antigens

Question 12

Which of the antibodies from the other blood group systems require teh AHG for in vitro detection?

Answer 12

S, s, M, N, Lu^b, Kell, Duffy, Kidd

Question 13

What is the rarest phenotype of the Lutheran system?

Answer 13

Lu (a- b-)

Question 14

Which antigen is X-linked?

Answer 14

Xg^a

Question 15

Which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mono, lymphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

Answer 15

anti-i

Question 16

Which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR?

Answer 16

Kidd

Question 17

Fy (a- b-) is found primary in what type of population?

Answer 17

black (68% frequency)

Question 18

Which antigen is found primarily in South Central and North American Indians and Asians?

Answer 18

Di^a

Question 19

Which blood group systems are known for showing dosage?

Answer 19

M, N, S, Kidd, Duffy, Rh (other than D)

Question 20

What is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank other than ABO and Rh antibodies?

Answer 20

anti-K

Question 21

Which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

Answer 21

i becomes I

Question 22

Can a pateint with blood group Ss be immunized by genotype SS, Ss, or ss?

Answer 22

no

Question 23

Which antigens are actually WBC antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on RBCs and can cause confusing reactions in serological tests?

Answer 23

Bg

Question 24

Which antigens are well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

Answer 24

M, N

Question 25

Name the 3 most common antibodies that are most likely to react at 37C?

Answer 25

Anti-D, anti-E, and anti-K

Question 26

What is the most practical manner for preventing transmission of malaria by blood transfusion?

Answer 26

do not accept blood from people that have lived in or recently traveled from a high malarial incidence area

Question 27

Why might a prospective donor might be permanently rejected for donation of blood products?

Answer 27

AIDS, hepatitis, HTLV, IV drug user, homosexual sex since 1977, "do not use" sticker, relative with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Chagas disease, MS, heart attack, stroke, hemopiliacs

Question 28

Why might a prospective donor be temporarily deffered?

Answer 28

tattoo/piercing, antibiotics, aspirin, low hematocrit, STD, transfusion, slept with prostitue, recent vaccines, pregnancy, Lyme disease, abortion, miscarriage, jail more than 72 hours

Question 29

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a tattoo/piercing?

Answer 29

1 year

Question 30

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following taking antibiotics?

Answer 30

until course is completed

Question 31

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following taking aspirin?

Answer 31

3 days

Question 32

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following low hematocrit?

Answer 32

next visit

Question 33

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a positive test for a STD?

Answer 33

12 months following diagnosis and treatment

Question 34

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a transfusion?

Answer 34

1 year

Question 35

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following having slept with a prostitute?

Answer 35

1 year

Question 36

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a recent vaccine?

Answer 36

4 to 6 weeks

Question 37

Can unused autologous blood be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended?

Answer 37

no, it was not screened by the usual procedures

Question 38

Why must donor units be tested for a weak D antigen?

Answer 38

if the patient is D^u positive, then they are considered Rh positive and should be labeled as such

Question 39

What are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

Answer 39

polyspecific and broad spectrum

Question 40

A transfusion that replaces approximately a patient's blood volume within a 24-hour period is called what kind of transfusion?

Answer 40

massive

Question 41

What is it called when a physician signs an order for uncrossed-matched blood and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of such products?

Answer 41

emergency release

Question 42

Why are homozygous cells used for "ruling out"?

Answer 42

shows if certain antibodies show dosage

Question 43

Why should a patient's serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

Answer 43

So that it can be retested if there are any concerns with original testing

Question 44

Leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what types of transfusion reaction?

Answer 44

febrile reactions

Question 45

Which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

Answer 45

IAT

Question 46

How is the shelf life for blood determined?

Answer 46

70% viability of RBCs post-transfusion

Question 47

What is the purpose of the albumin/LISS of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

Answer 47

detect IgG antibodyes

Question 48

What is an example of IgG antibodies?

Answer 48

Rh antibodies

Question 49

A positive DAT would give you what kind of information on the patient?

Answer 49

in vivo RBC sensitization, RBC coated with gamma and/or beta globulins

Question 50

A patient that has had multiple transfusions is most likely to have what type of transfusion reaction?

Answer 50

febrile

Question 51

What does CPDA stand for?

Answer 51

citrate phosphate dextrose adenine

Question 52

What is the shelf life of a unit of blood with CPDA-1 as the anticoagulant?

Answer 52

35 days

Question 53

What is the shelf life of a unit with the additive of AS-1?

Answer 53

42 days

Question 54

How often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

Answer 54

every three days

Question 55

incomplete antibodies are usually?

Answer 55

IgG

Question 56

What does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

Answer 56

recipient plasma/donor cells are tested together for compatibility

Question 57

Cells are "washed" how many times in an antibody screen?

Answer 57

Three times

Question 58

What is the purpose of washing cells three times in an antibody screen?

Answer 58

prevents neutralization of AHG from globulins in blood samples

Question 59

What is the therapeutic phlebotomy?

Answer 59

bloodletting

Question 60

Why is bloodletting used?

Answer 60

remove blood from a patient with a certain disease

Question 61

What are some conditions in which bloodletting might be used?

Answer 61

polycythemia vera, hemachromatosis, porphyrias

Question 62

What type of transfusion is it when a recipient serves as his/her own donor?

Answer 62

autologous

Question 63

What is the "three in, three out" rule?

Answer 63

when doing an antibody panel, and you suspect a specfic antibody, pick three bottles of cells that are positive for the antigen, and three bottles that are negative; test against the plasma

Question 64

Why is the "three in, three out" rule used?

Answer 64

will confirm antibody, should get the reaction that you're expecting

Question 65

Explain why and when an antibody screen is done?

Answer 65

this is done to detect clinically significant antibodies prior to transfusion

Question 66

What are the stages of an antibody screen?

Answer 66

immediate s pin, 37, AHG, check cells

Question 67

What happens if an antibody screen is positive?

Answer 67

run an antibody panel

Question 68

Why is there a control in an antibody screen?

Answer 68

detects in vivo sensitization

Question 69

What does TRALI stand for?

Answer 69

transfusion related acute lung injury

Question 70

Explain TRALI

Answer 70

reaction to leukocyte antibodies that causes the plasma to leak into the lung and cause pulmonary edema

Question 71

What is the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths?

Answer 71

TRALI

Question 72

What is directed or specific donation?

Answer 72

donated blood intended for a specific recipient

Question 73

What blood group system does anti-Di^a correlate to?

Answer 73

Diego

Question 74

What blood group system does anti-Sc₂ correlate to?

Answer 74

Scianna

Question 75

What blood group system does anti-Xg^a correlate to?

Answer 75

XG

Question 76

What blood group system does anti-Co^b correlate to?

Answer 76

Colton

Question 77

What blood group system does anti-Ch₃ correlate to?

Answer 77

Chido/Rogers

Question 78

What blood group system does anti-Ge₃ correlate to?

Answer 78

Gerbich

Question 79

If you do an antibody panel and all cells are positive, including the control, what should be the first thing you should think may be the problem?

Answer 79

presence of a warm or cold auto-antibody

Question 80

What is the preferred storage temperature for RBCs?

Answer 80

1-6C