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Immunohematology > Exam1 > Flashcards

Exam1 Flashcards

(94 cards)

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1
Q

Define vaccination

A

Any procedure of injecting immunogenic material into the body in order to induce immunity

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2
Q

Define chemotaxis

A

process in which cells tend to move in a certain direction under stimulation of chemical substances

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3
Q

Define immunology

A

the study of the reactions of a host when foreign substances are introduced into the body

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4
Q

Define opsonins

A

Serum proteins that attach to a foreign substance and help prepare it for phagocytosis

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5
Q

Define antibodies

A

group of plasma proteins that are formed as a result of exposure to a foreign substance

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6
Q

What is another term for antibodies?

A

immunoglobulins

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7
Q

Define nonsusceptibility

A

absolute protection against particular diseases associated with species characteristics

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8
Q

Define natural immunity

A

ability of the individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions

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9
Q

Define immunity

A

the condition of being resistant to infection

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10
Q

Define serology

A

study of the noncellular portion of the blood known as serum

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11
Q

Define phagocytosis

A

engulfment of cells or particulate matter by leukocytes, macrophages, and other cells

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12
Q

Define antigen

A

foreign substance that induces such an immune response

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13
Q

Describe active immunity

A

induced by the exposure to an infectious agent as a result of natural infection or through vaccination

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14
Q

Give an example of active immunity

A

vaccination

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15
Q

Describe passive immunity

A

transfer of antibodies derived from another individual

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16
Q

Give an example of passive immunity

A

mother’s milk, IVIg

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17
Q

Describe adoptive immunity

A

produced by the transfer of antigen sensitive lymphocytes from an actively immunized donor to a nonimmune recipient

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18
Q

4 examples of opsonins

A

C-reactive protein, complement components, antibodies, mannose binding proteins

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19
Q

Define lymphokines

A

end product of T-cell antigen recognition that regulates the functions of other cells and tissues

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20
Q

Define adjuvant

A

substance administered with an antigen that increases the immune response; extends the period of antigen exposure

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21
Q

Define immune tolerance

A

foreign antigen fails to elicit the formation of antibodies in the recipient by repeated exposure to the antigen

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22
Q

Where are T-lymphocytes modified?

A

thymus

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23
Q

What type of immunity are T-lymphocytes responsible for?

A

cellular immunity

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24
Q

Where are B-lymphocytes modified?

A

bone marrow

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25
What type of immunity are B-lymphocytes responsible for?
humoral immunity
26
Which is the predominant type of lymphocyte in the blood?
T-lymphocytes
27
Name two types of T-cells
T-regulatory, T-helper, T-cytotoxic
28
Which cells differentiate into plasma cells?
B-lymphocytes
29
What do plasma cells secrete?
antibodies
30
Describe primary antibody immune response
occurs when individual first encounters a foreign antigen; there is a lag period before IgM appears
31
Describe secondary antibody immune response
occurs on second and subsequent contact with the same antigen; IgG is the dominant Ig that reaches much higher levels
32
Explain the role of memory cells
formed after first exposure to an antigen to be activated rapidly upon second exposure to the same antigen
33
What is the immunodeficiency disease where a decrease in IgG results in a greater susceptibility to infection?
acquired agammaglobulinemia
34
Describe what happens in multiple myeloma
Monoclonal gammopathy in which plasma cell tumors in the bone marrow overproduce a single class of immunoglobulins
35
What immunoglobulin is overproduced in 50-60% of multiple myeloma cases?
IgG
36
Which fragment of an immunoglobulin directs biological activity?
Fc fragment
37
Which fragment of an immunoglobulin possesses antigen-binding ability
Fab fragment
38
Which two types of immunoglobulin light chain can occur
Kappa or Lambda, never both
39
Define epitope
the small part of the antigen that is recognized in an immune respons
40
What is epitope also known as?
determinant site
41
What molecular weight does an antigen have to be to be recognized?
10,000 Daltons or more
42
What is the proper sequence of the complement cascade in the classical pathway?
C1 C4 C2 C3 C5 C6 C7 C8 C9
43
Which complement component is the cytolytic component?
C8
44
Which complement component accelerates the process for rapid lysis?
C9
45
Describe IgG (6)
primary in the secondary immune response, cross the placenta, immunity for newborns, fixes complement, highest concentration, virus neutralizing antibodies
46
Describe IgM (7)
first in primary response, largest, first antibody formed by infants, opsonin, fixes complement, pentameter formed by a J chain, most often formed in response to Gram negative bacteria
47
Describe IgA
main Ig in various body secretions
48
Describe IgE (5)
allergic reactions, eosinophils, parasitic infections, RAST test, capable of binding to receptors on mast cells and basophils
49
What is IgE also called?
reagin
50
Describe IgD
may play a role in B cell activation, not much else is known
51
What are the two immunoglobulins that can fix complement?
IgG and IgM
52
Which complement components are bypassed in the alternate pathway?
C1 C4 C2
53
What is the third pathway to complement activation called?
Lectin pathway
54
Is the Lectin pathway antibody dependent?
no
55
What is the major constituent of Lectin pathway?
mannose binding lectin
56
Which element holds together the C1 complement component?
calcium
57
Which element is required for the C2 complement component to become involved in the cascade?
magnesium
58
Which complement component is the most abundant?
C3
59
Describe natural killer cells
null cells, mediate cytolytic reactions and kill target cells without prior exposure, do not express T or B cell markers
60
How many Fc fragments are needed to activate complement?
2 Fc fragments
61
Two ways to inactivate complement in a serum sample
Heat to 56C or age for a few weeks
62
What are heterophiles antigens?
Exist in unrelated plats or animals but are either identical or closely related in structure so that antibody to one will cross-react with antigen of the other
63
Define HLA
antigens found on granulated leukocytes found to play a key role in the immune response
64
What does HLA stand for?
human leukocyte antigen
65
What is the system of genes that control the expression of HLA?
MHC
66
What does MHC stand for?
major histocompatibility complex
67
Describe Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
overproduction of IgM, a non-Hodgkin's lymphoma that affects B-cells
68
What are haptens?
non-immunogenic materials that, when combined with a carrier, create new antigenic determinants
69
Describe Jenner's first contribution to immunology
inoculated a boy with pus from a cowpox lesion, then after recover was inoculated with infections smallpox pus
70
What phenomenon did Jenner's contribution to immunology demonstrate?
cross-immunity
71
Metchnikoff is known for first describe what process in the immune response?
phagocytosis
72
Describe Pasteur's work with the first attenuated vaccine
he found that old cultures that were weakened could still elicit an immune response but not cause the disease
73
Name 5 ways the body has and uses its natural immunity
skin lysozymes, lactic acid, cilia, acid, normal flora, inflammation, phagocytosis, acute phase reactants, cells
74
Define lysozyme
enzyme found in saliva and tears that attacks bacterial cell walls, especially those that are Gram positive
75
Which defense mechanism is lysozyme apart of?
external defense system
76
Describe the process of inflammation
increased blood supply to the area, WBC migration, appearance of acute phase reactants, and increased capillary permeability
77
What is a phagolysosome?
structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell
78
At what point in phagocytosis is a phagolysosome formed?
third step
79
What WBC is capable of further differentiation in the tissues?
monocytes
80
What WBC is the primary agent in the defense of the body against parasitic infections?
eosinophils
81
What WBC is the primary agent against bacterial infection?
neutrophils
82
What WBC is the primary agent against viral infection?
lymphocytes
83
How does normal flora work as a defense mechanism for the body?
keep pathogens from establishing themselves by competing with the pathogens for nutrients
84
What area is considered to be the equivalent, in humans, as the bursa of Frabricius in birds?
bone marrow
85
Sheep red blood cells demonstrate rosetting due to which T cell receptor?
CD2
86
Which well-known acute phase reactant is a non-specific indicator of inflammation and is known to appear before antibodies?
C-reactive protein (CRP)
87
Which class of cells does the Epstein-Barr virus selectively invade?
B cells
88
The CD4 antigen is found on which subset of T cells?
Helper T cells (T-inducer cells)
89
What cells are the most potent phagocytic cells in the tissue?
dendritic cells
90
Why do kidneys fail in blood transfusion?
free hemoglobin not picked up fast enough by haptoglobin
91
What is C1 mainly produced?
intestinal epithelial cells
92
Where is factor D made?
adipose tissue
93
What two elements are required for the classical pathway?
Calcium and magnesium
94
Define natural resistance
the ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normal present body functions

Immunohematology (7 decks)

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