Final Exam Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin in primary response?

A

IgM

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2
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin in secondary response?

A

IgG

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3
Q

What immunoglobulin is also known as incomplete or blocking antibodies?

A

IgG

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4
Q

What is the predominant immunoglobulin type found in the Rh system?

A

IgG

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5
Q

What is Landsteiner’s Law?

A

antibodies are present in plasma only when the corresponding antigen is not present on the red blood cells

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6
Q

What is genotype?

A

an individual’s actual genetic make up

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7
Q

What is phenotype?

A

the outward expression of genes

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8
Q

Where are antigens found?

A

on the red blood cells

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9
Q

Where are antibodies found?

A

in the serum/plasma

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10
Q

What is an alloantibody?

A

antibody formed after exposure to genetically different antigens from the same species

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11
Q

What is an autoantibody?

A

antibodies produced to self-antigens, usually have autoimmune disease

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12
Q

List the order of decreasing H substance.

A

O, A2, B, A2B, A1, A1B

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13
Q

What does forward ABO grouping demonstrate?

A

detects antigens on the red blood cells

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14
Q

What does the reverse grouping demonstrate?

A

detects antibodies present in the serum/plasma

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15
Q

What is the purpose of performing an absorption?

A

to remove an antibody from serum or plasma

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16
Q

Give five examples of factors influencing antigen-antibody reactions.

A

temperature, antibody size, incubation time, proximity of antigen sites on the RBCs, ionic strength of the surrounding medium

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17
Q

Why don’t labs perform reverse blood groupings on newborn infants?

A

antibodies in their serum/plasma are not well formed

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18
Q

What is the antisera used in an ABO/Rh

A

anti-A, anti-B, and anti-D

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19
Q

Anti-A1 is most often found in individuals of what blood group?

A

A2

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20
Q

What is one of the best ways to test a patient to see if they have a subgroup or variant of the A blood type?

A

test plasma/serum with A1 cells

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21
Q

What are the two types of AHG?

A

polyspecific and monospecific

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22
Q

The lectin from which plant has a specificity for anti-H?

A

Ulex europaeus

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23
Q

What is the main purpose of washing red blood cells used for testing in an antiglobulin test?

A

prevents neutralization of AHG from globulins in blood sample

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24
Q

The extract from what plant is used to distinguish type A1 cell from other type A cells?

A

Dolichos biflorus

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25
What does the IAT indicate?
detects antibodies or complement (gamma or beta) attached to RBCs in vitro
26
What does DAT indicate?
detects antibodies and/or complement attached to RBCs in vivo
27
Who can cold agglutinins be excluded in a crossmatch?
perform a prewarmed crossmatch and a cold autocontrol
28
What is the purpose of anti-A1 lectin?
demonstrates presence of A1 antigen
29
What is the purpose of anti-A,B antisera?
detecting subgroups of A other than A1
30
What type of test would demonstrate that group A or B fetal cells have been coated with maternal group O antibodies?
DAT
31
What type of antibodies does an antiglobulin test detect?
IgG
32
Which rare blood type produces natural anti-H antibodies?
Bombay (Oh)
33
What is contained in the polyspecific AHG?
anti-IgG and anti-C3D
34
What is contained in the monospecific AHG
either anti-IgG or anti-C3D
35
What is IgG also known as?
blocking or incomplete
36
What is a procedure you could perform in the blood bank to remove rouleaux formation?
saline replacement technique
37
ABO and Rh antibodies are most often implicated in what serious condition that affects newborns and fetuses?
HDFN
38
What must be done to a donor unit to firmly establish that it is indeed Rh negative?
weak D
39
When is Rh immunoglobulin given to Rh negative mothers?
28 weeks gestation and within 27 hours after birth of Rh positive baby
40
What causes kernicterus in newborns?
infiltration of the brain and spinal cord with unconjugated bilirubin which causes permanent damage to CNS
41
What type of blood bank testing is used to detect weak D?
IAT
42
Before testing, what must be done to call cord cells?
washed three times
43
Why are cord cells washed three times prior to testing?
to remove Wharton's Jelly
44
What causes HDFN?
maternal cells lack antigen that fetal cells have, which causes sensitization
45
What type of donor blood would you give a patient that has developed Lewis antibodies?
Le (a- b-)
46
What percentage of the caucasian population are secretors?
80%
47
What are the components used for testing in a major crossmatch?
donor red cells and recipient plasma
48
What is the purpose of a major crossmatch?
select red cells for the recipient to ensure the safety of the transfusion
49
Which antibodies can show up as cold agglutinins?
M, N, I, P1, and Lewis
50
Which antibodies belong to the Kidd blood group system?
anti-Jka and anti-Jkb
51
Which antibodies are known for showing dosage when reacting with heterozygous red cells?
Kidd, Duffy, MNS, and Rh other than D, and Lutheran
52
What antigen is known to be sex-linked?
Xga
53
The i antigen is most prevalent in what type of population?
babies
54
Which antibodies are most known for delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
Kidd
55
Why is the transfusion of specific blood components preferable to the use of whole blood?
concentrated form of the required fraction can be administered, reduces the risk of circulatory overload, many patients can be effectively treated with a single donation
56
What are some of the routine tests generally performed on donor blood?
ABO Rh, antibody screen, HIV, HEP, CMV, weak D if Rh negative, syphilis
57
What is autologous donation?
donating for yourself
58
What is the biggest advantage of an autologous donation?
if they have a rare blood type
59
What is directed donation?
donating for a specific recipient
60
What is emergency release?
doctor authorizes the use of emergency O neg blood that has not been crossmatched
61
What is the normal temperature for packed red blood cells in CPDA-1?
1-6C
62
What is the shelf life of packed red blood cells in CPDA-1 stored at 1-6C?
35 days
63
What is the temperature for frozen red cells?
-65C to -120C
64
What is the shelf life of frozen red cells stored at -65C to -120C?
10 years
65
What is the temperature for fresh frozen plasma?
-18C
66
What is the shelf life for fresh frozen plasma stored at -18C?
1 year
67
What is the temperature for CRYO?
-18C
68
What is the shelf life for CRYO stored at -18C?
1 year
69
What is the temperature for platelets?
20-24C
70
What is the shelf life for platelets stored at 20-24C?
5 days with continuous gentle agitation
71
What are some conditions in which you might use therapeutic phlebotomy?
polycythemia vera, hereditary hemochromatosis, porphyrias
72
How long should someone wait between whole blood donations?
every 8 weeks
73
How often should a new sample be collected on a blood recipient when a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of time?
every three days
74
When transfusing packed red cells, what is the total amount that is routinely transfused?
280 mL +/- 10%
75
Why is there a storage limit of 21 days put on CPD blood stored at 5C?
preserve the 70% viability of red blood cells post transfusion
76
What is plasmapheresis?
plasma is removed from the whole blood and RBCs are reinfused
77
What is the most common of all the transfusion reactions?
febrile or allergic reaction
78
What usually causes febrile reactions to occur?
leukocyte antibodies, pyrogins, platelet antibodies from platelet transfusion
79
What are two acceptable methods for thawing FFP?
FDA approved microwave and water bath
80
Which government agency is the regulatory agency providing licensure for blood banking reagents?
FDA
81
What is the expiration for packed red cells where the hermetic seal has been broken but the nit has been refrigerated?
24 hours
82
What is the expiration for six units of platelets that have been pooled together in an open system?
4 hours
83
What is the expiration of FFP that has been thawed and is being kept refrigerated?
24 hours
84
What is the temperature limit for shipping packed red cells?
1-10C
85
What does refractory mean?
unresponsive
86
Which blood component is refractory associated with?
platelet transfusions
87
Why are patient specimens kept in the lab after testing is completed?
so retesting can occur if there are any questions regarding initial testing?
88
How long are patient specimens kept in the lab after testing is completed?
7 days
89
How long are most blood bank records kept in the lab?
12 months
90
What are some methods of good record keeping in the bank?
indelible ink, circle or cross off with a single line followed by date and initials of person making the correction
91
What is the number one source of error in blood banking?
clerical issues
92
What is the blood component of choice for factor VIII deficiency?
CRYO
93
What is the blood component of choice for marked thrombocytopenia?
platelets
94
What is the blood component of choice for factor V deficiency?
FFP
95
What is the blood component of choice for exchange transfusions?
fresh whole blood
96
What is the blood component of choice for severe burns?
human serum albumin
97
What is the blood component of choice for chronic anemia?
packed red blood cells
98
What is the blood component of choice for acute blood loss?
whole blood
99
What is the blood component of choice for hemophilia?
CRYO