Exam 2 Cell Mediated Immunity Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
Specific/adaptive immunity involves:
A
B cells (humoral, antibody mediated)
T-cells (CD4) that help humoral or CMI pathways
T cell (CD8) CMI
2
Q
After activation, some B and T cells become:
A
Memory cells (Anamnestic)
3
Q
Adaptive (specific) immunity allows for ______ immune response
A
More rapid and robust
4
Q
All T cells have which CD?
A
CD3
5
Q
Which type of T cells have CD8
A
Cytotoxic T cells
6
Q
Which type of T cells have CD4
A
Helper T cells (Th1 and 2)
7
Q
Which CD is used for T cell signaling?
A
CD3
8
Q
CD4 T helper cells recognize:
A
MHC II
Exogenous or “found” antigens
9
Q
Th2 cells are associated with:
A
B lymphocytes
10
Q
Th1 cells are associated with:
A
Macrophages
11
Q
True or false: HLA and MHC are different things
A
False - they are interchangeable terms
12
Q
What is presented to T cells?
A
Antigen-antibody complex
13
Q
An antigen is internalized into B cell via:
A
Receptor mediated BCR endocytosis via Signal 1 and 2
14
Q
Foreign antigen is presented to T cell as:
A
Non self
15
Q
What are antigen presenting cells?
A
Macrophages
B cells
Dendritic cells
16
Q
B cell activation by CD4 T helper cell is achieved by:
A
Signal 1 and Signal 2
17
Q
Signal 1 consists of:
A
BCR and TCR
18
Q
Signal 2 consists of:
A
B7 and CD28
19
Q
Biomarker of native T cells
A
CD45RA
20
Q
Biomarker of memory T cells
A
CD45RO
21
Q
What is anergy?
A
Partial activation without a co-receptor; unresponsive; sign for apoptosis to occur
22
Q
Anergy prevents:
A
Most types of autoimmunity and unregulated responses
23
Q
In a primary humoral response, the primary antibody response produces __ which takes ____
A
IgM; 7-10 days
24
Q
In a secondary humoral response, the antibody made is ___ which takes ____
A
IgG; 1-4 days
25
IgG class switching requires:
IL-4 and IFN-gamma
26
IgA class switching requires:
IL-4 and TGF-beta
27
IgE class switching requires:
IL-4 only
28
Memory IgA cells and plasma cells are formed near:
Mucosae
29
What are some common features of lymphoid tissues?
- outer cortex, inner medulla
- B cells cluster at the cortex (follicle)
- T cells in paracortex
30
When does germinal center develop in lymphoid tissues?
When antigen enters; at this point B and T cells found in secondary follicle
31
Which cells are part of innate immunity?
- Macrophages
- NK cells
- Neutrophils
32
True or false: T cells are involved in both innate and specific immunity
True
33
Phagocytosis is done by:
Receptor mediated endocytosis
34
Th1 antigen processing and presentation involves what cellular response?
Inflammation (associated with macrophages)
35
Microglia
Macrophages in CNS
36
Kupffer cells
Macrophages in the liver
37
Alveolar cells
Macrophages in the lungs
38
Difference between monocytes and macrophages
- Monocytes found in blood
- Macrophages found in tissue
39
Microglia are activated by:
- IL-1
- IL-6
- IFN-gamma
40
Kupffer cells are activated by:
- IL-1
- IL-6
- IFN-gamma
41
Alveolar cells are activated by:
- IL-1
- IL-6
- IFN-gamma
42
Macrophages can perform what forms of phagocytosis?
- opsonin mediated
- complement mediated (C3b, C5b)
- antibody-mediated phagocytosis
43
True or false: macrophages are antigen presenting cells
True
44
T-helper subsets (Th1, Th2) are defined by:
The profile of cytokines released upon activation
45
Which Th response occurs first?
Th1 - locally
46
IL-2 is for:
Proliferation
47
IL-6 is for:
Inflammatory
48
IL-4 is for:
Class switching
49
What does Th1 typically secrete?
IFN-gamma, IL-2
50
Where is the clonal expansion and class switching happening?
- **germinal centers** in lymph nodes
- mucosal associated lymph tissues **(MALT)** like Peyers Patches and the tonsils
51
Cytokines
a number of substances, such as **interferon**, **interleukin**, and **growth factors**, which are **secreted by T-Cells** and have an effect on other cells.
They aid in the maturation of B-cells, signal T-cells to replicate, and recruit other cells to the area
52
TH1 (in specific tissues) secretes _____ to promote the proliferation of T-cells, it also uses _____ to reduce mRNA activity and also the production of TH2 cells
IL-2, IFN-γ
53
TH2 (found in lymph nodes and mucosal associated lymph tissues) uses _____ to facilitate clonal expansion and class switching, it also uses ____ to aid in the production of IL-4 and keep the production of TH1 at bay
IL-4, IL-10
54
Th2 (CD4) cells are activated by ____ and secrete cytokines ___ upon activation
B cells; IL-10 and IL-4
55
Th1 (CD4) cells are activated by ____ and secrete cytokines ____ upon activation
Macrophages or monocytes; IL-2, IFN-gamma
56
____ suppresses the formation of mRNA to reduce expression of proteins/viral proteins
IFN-gamma
57
Which cytokine inhibits Th2 cytokines (IL-10)?
IFN-gamma
58
Both IFN-gamma and IL-10 are involved with ____ responses and ____ signaling
Localized; autocrine and paracrine
59
IL-10 inhibits:
Th1 cytokines (IFN)
60
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) recognize MHC ___ and ____
MHC I; endogenous antigens like viruses and cancer
61
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) provide a mechanism to:
Check "inside" another cell
62
Complete activation of CTL (CD8) requires:
Both signal 1 and signal 2
63
When CTL (CD8) cells become activated, what happens?
| What do they release, and where?
They release **polarized secretion of lytic granules** that contain cytotoxins, **only towards the target cell** to reduce any damage to neighboring cells
64
What are perforins?
Form transmembrane pores in target cells - similar to MAC attack from complement cascade proteins (C6-C9)
65
What are granzymes and what do they do?
- they are **serine proteases** (trypsin-like) that enter the target cell through perforin pores
- activate nucleases to initiate **apoptosis**
66
Granzymes do not cause ____ of target cells so as to not ____
lysis; release infective particles that are inside the target cell
67
What is a stimulus or "signal" to undergo apoptosis?
| (CTL)
CTL granzymes secreted into perforins
68
In apoptotic cells, _____ is lost so that ___ becomes externalized. This induces a " ___ " signal
PS asymmetry; PS; eat me signal
69
IL-2 induces:
Lymphocyte proliferation
70
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) promotes:
Apoptosis
71
Interferon-gamma function
Limits mRNA production and translation
72
Natural killer cells lack CD_
CD3 (they have CD16 and 56)
73
Natural killer cells are important in:
Cell mediated immunity (viral-infected cells, anti-cancer activity)
74
Many tumors demonstrate ____ activity. ____ is downregulated
DNMT3; DNMT1
| methylation occurs on MHC I genes on chromosome 6p
75
Cancers are associated with lower ____ expression
MHC I (HLA I)
76
Many viruses produce pro-viral transcription factors, which lower ________ expression
MHC I/HLA I
77
Natural killer cells comprise ___ of WBC
10%
78
NK cells are ____ cells
Antigen non-specific lymphoid
79
NK cells are closely related to ____ cells and secrete ____
CTL (CD8); perforin and granzymes
80
What immune cells secrete perforin and granzymes?
CTL and NK cells
81
____ are the first responders and mainly PMN phagocytic cells
Neutrophils
82
____ are associated with acute inflammation
Neutrophils
83
Neutropenia is associated with:
Periodontitis
84
If a patient is taking immunosuppressants or is immune compromised, the 1st cells suppressed is:
Neutrophils
85
Agranulocytosis
100% probability of infection, risk of death is 100%
| <200 uL of neutrophils
86
During phagocytosis, the fusion of phagosome and lysosome forms:
Phagolysosome
87
PMN granules contain ____ and are released during ____
Antimicrobial proteins/proteases; degranulation
88
Primary (azurophilic) granules released during ____. The contents are stored in _____ form, which include ___, ___, ____
Phagocytosis; ACTIVE; lysosome, defensins, cathepsin B
89
Cathepsin B
Inhibits peptidoglycan
90
Secondary degranulation is regulated release following phagocytosis and are stored in ____ form
Inactive
91
What occurs during respiratory burst?
release of **reactive oxygen species**, such as superoxide (O2-), hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl radical
92
True or false: respiratory burst may damage host
True - liquifies anything around it
93
IL-2 is required for:
Proliferation and clonal expansion of activated T cells
94
IL-2 acts in ___ and ___ manner
- Autocrine (binds to receptors on same cell
- Paracrine (binds to other nearby cells including Th, CTL, B cells, NK)
95
Diapedesis
Leukocyte extravasation; movement through intact capillary wall (inflammation)
96
Chemotaxis
Movement along concentration gradient
97
Chemotaxis is ___ mediated
Receptor
(IL-1, IL-6)
98
IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha are:
Bone resorptive
99
IL-1 and TNF-a are produced by:
CTL, macrophages, Th1 cells
100
IL-1 and TNF-a are found in increased levels in patients with:
**periodontitis** GCF and gingival tissues
(Bone loss and resorption)
101
IL-8 serves as a chemoattractant for:
PMN (neutrophils)
102
IL-8 binds to
GPCR to initiate cellular response
103
Cytokine related diseases
Over or underexpression of cytokines
104
Bacterial septic shock involves ____ due to tissue pooling of fluids. Symptoms include:
Hypotension; disseminated intravascular coagulation, fever, multiple organ failure
105
What is responsible for many of the disease processes of septic shock?
**Endotoxins (LPS)** from gram-negative bacteria - stimulate release of cytokines **(IL-1 and TNF-alpha)**
106
Which bacteria produce superantigens that can bypass anergy?
S. aureus TSST-1 and S. pyogenes exotoxin A
107
True or false: No antigen recognition is involved for superantigens to bind
True - many T cells are activated to produce excessive amounts of cytokines (IL-1, TNF-alpha, IL-6)
108
What diseases are related to T-cell deficiency?
XL-SCID
DiGeorge syndrome
MHC deficiency
Omenn syndrome
109
True or false - XL-SCID can be inherited
True
110
Genetic deficiency of XL SCID
IL-2 receptor on X chromosome (required for IL-7R so IL-7 becomes non-functional)
111
Is XL-SCID common or rare?
Rare (but males more commonly affected)
112
XL SCID treatment
Pooled gamma globulins (passive immunization) to treat primary immunodeficiency (PID)
113
Which T-cell related disease is likely not inherited?
DiGeorge syndrome (90% is de novo deletion of 22q11.2)
114
____ is associated with thymic aplasia, cleft palate, and craniofacial disorders
DiGeorge syndrome
115
BLS1
MHC 1 deficiency
116
BLS1 is a mutation of
TAP1
117
BLS II
MHC II deficiency
118
Both Bare lymphocyte syndrome I and II are ____
Rare
119
BLS I is associated with what types of infections
Intracellular parasites, viral infections
120
Does BLS affect CMI?
Yes (both)
121
BLS II and Quie syndrome are a form of ____
SCID
122
______ are non functional in BLS II
Th1 and Th2
123
Chronic Granulomatous disease is also known as
Bridges-Good syndrome or Quie syndrome
124
Quie syndrome is associated with _____
Neutrophil dysfunction (can't do respiratory burst but can do primary degranulation, inflammation, phagocytosis)
125
Kostmann syndrome inheritence pattern
Autosomal recessive
126
_____ is common with Kostmann syndrome
Periodontitis
Also neurological problems, seizures, learning disabilities, developmental delays
127
If you see a kid with periodontitis, it is likely that they have:
Kostmann syndrome
(kids don't usually have periodontitis)
128
Chediak-Higashi syndrome inheritence pattern
Autosomal recessive
129
Chediak-Higashi syndrome - _____ is common
Periodontitis
130
If a patient has red eyes, light skin, hypopigmentation, and silvery hair with atypical recurrent gingivitis or periodontitis, they likely have what syndrome?
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
131
Severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) inheritence pattern
Autosomal dominant
132
Severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) is associated with ____ and is often fatal. and often requires ____ transplant
- common abscesses (cutaneous, internal organs)
- bacterial sepsis
- often requires bone marrow transplant
