Urgent Review - Exam 3 Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

Symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A
  • Severe myalgia
  • high fever
  • rash (including palms and soles)
  • headache
  • cough
  • confusion, ataxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ causes bronchopneumonia

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ causes tracheobronchitis

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PCR used to diagnose:

A
  • B. pertussis
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Mycoplasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Legionella pneumophila best seen with:

A

Silver stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ affects unvaccinated/incompletely vaccinated children

A

H. influenzae b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ produces beta lactamase

A

Legionella pneumophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ is linked to arteriosclerosis

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pasteurella multocida often causes:

A

Cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diphtheria can lead to damage of:

A

Nerve, heart, kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prescription anti-inflammatory medications

A
  • leukotriene receptor antagonists (Singulair)
  • epinephrine or bronchodilators (primatene mist)
  • cromolyn sodium
  • asthma inhaler
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

eosinophils, basophils, mast cells found in:

A

skin, respiratory, GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contact hypersensitivity (type I) examples

A
  • latex gloves
  • dental dam
  • condoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type I hypersensitivity - ingestion

A

Antibiotics (penicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Immediate mediators T1H

A
  • histamines
  • eosinophil chemotactic factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

H4R

A

mediates chemotaxis and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OTC antihistamin

A

diphenhydramine, competes for H1R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Prescription anti inflammatory mediciation

A
  • leukotriene receptor antagonists - singulair
  • epinephrine/bronchodilators (primatene mist)
  • cromolyn sodium
  • asthma inhaler
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rheumatic fever antibody response to

A

Protein M - cross react with cardiac antigens (molecular mimicry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sympathetic ophthalmia

A
  • form of uveitis
  • penetrating injury to eye releases sequestered antigens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

drug induced hemolytic anemia

A

antibodies destroy rbc in presence of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

grave’s disease

A
  • TSI against TSH receptor
  • most common cause of hyper thyroidism in the US
  • exophthalmos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hashimoto’s disease

A
  • most common cause of hypothyroidism
  • weight gain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Goodpasture syndrom

A
  • autoimmune against type IV collagen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Pernicious anemia
- antibodies against gastric intrinsic factor - macrocytic/megaloblastic anemia - glossitis - inflammation and depapillated tongue
26
Myasthenia gravis
- antibodies against nicotinic Ach receptors - neuromuscular disease - ptosis dysphagia - hanging jaw
27
Sjogren syndrome
- dry mouth, dry eyes - pilocarpine used
28
Linear IgA
- type II even though it is IgA - IgA in basement membrane zone
29
Linear IgA bullous dermatosis
- cutaneous presentation
30
EBA
Ig against type 7 collagen
31
Pemphigus
- auto Ab IgG against desmoglein
32
____ against desmoglein 3
pemphigus vulgaris
33
____ against desmoglein 1
pemphigus foliaceus
34
pemphigoid antibodies against
BP-1
35
___ can have bullous or cicatricial presentation
Pemphigoid
36
CIcatricial pemphigoid can cause
Desquamative gingivitis
37
Bullous pemphigoid causes
Skin lesions
38
Type III hypersensitivity diseases
- lupus - rheumatoid arthritis - arthus reaction - serum sickness
39
Lupus antibodies
- anti-snRNP - Anti-smith -Anti-smDNA
40
Lupus clinical presentation
- malar rash - oral ulcers
41
Lupus complication
non-infectious endocarditis membranous glomerulonephritis wire loop
42
Rheumatoid arthritis antibody against
RF autoantibody against IgG Fc portion
43
____ causes granulation at synovial lining (pannus) and ankylosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
44
Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as
delayed type hypersensitivity
45
Type IV H is mainly what response
Th1 (t cell mediated)
46
Type IV happens after
48-72 hours
47
Type IV contact hypersensitivity
- poison ivy, poison oak - hair dyes - latex protein - nickel
48
____ test is classic DTH
PPD
49
Sex-specific predisposition
- age associated B cells - CD11c surface marker - T-bet transcription factor - TLR7, TL9
50
AABCs increase in age with
Females
51
Ankylosing spondylitis happens in what ratio
1:3 (more in males!!)
52
HLA-B27 associated with
anklylosing spondylitis
53
lichen planus mediated by
CD8
54
lichen planus affects
basal keratinocytes
55
lichen planus presentation
- bilateral white lesions - buccal mucosa (reticular lacy white lines) - dorsal tongue
56
Systemic sclerosis
dysphagia
57
Multiple sclerosis
- T-lymphocyte cause damage - CNS macrophages - 32 fold increase after EBV infection
58
Diabetes mellitus - name the HLAs
- HLA-DR3 - HLA-DR4 - DLA-DQ*B1
59
Addison's disease
- primary adrenal insufficiency, 21-hydroxylase - hyperpigmentation of oral mucosa
60
lewis antigen
exocrine epithelial cells
61
Repression of ____ in many oral cancers Activation of ____ results in ____ in oral cancers
DNMT 1 DNMT 3; CIMP
62
TSTA
tumor specific transplantation antigens
63
TATA
tumor associated transplantation antigens
64
TADA
tumor associated developmental antigens
65
carcioembyogenic antigen
- high serum levels in cancers (colon, oral cancers) - predictive value 4-5x normal level
66
glylipican - 3 expressed in
human liver cancers and melanoma
67
glylipican3 is an ___ antigrn
oncofetal antigen