Exam 2 Juice Flashcards by Aditi Iyer

Of the following, which would be most resistant to sterilization?
A. Bacterial spores
B. Cryptosporidia
C. Mycobacteria
D. Enveloped viruses
E. Gram negative bacteria

A. Bacterial spores

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What cells are responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity?

Th1 cells, macrophages

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Predominant effect of histamine released by basophils and mast cells in immediate hypersensitivity

Bronchoconstriction

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Which lymphocytes are typically found in a tuberculous granuloma

Th1 (macrophages)

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Which of the following antibacterial agents is an inhibitor of nucleic acid synthesis, is bactericidal, and has good activity against oral facultative and obligate anaerobes?
A. Metronidazole
B. Vancomycin
C. Sulfonamides and trimethaprim
D. Chloramphenicol

A. Metronidazole

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Lumpy jaw is a dentoalveolar infection most often associated with which of the following teeth?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 19
D. 25

C. 19

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Other than its toxin, the major virulence factor of Bacillus anthracis is the:
A. capsule
B. endotoxin
C. teichoic acid
D. fimbrial adhesion factors

A. capsule

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Which class of beta-lactamases is the MOST COMMON and generally contains mainly penicillinases?

Class A

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Congenital vaccinia is a potential complication of immunization during pregnancy for prevention of:
A. Smallpox
B. chicken pox
C. pertussis
D. tetanus
E. pneumococcus

A. smallpox

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Which antimicrobial interacts with 30S bacterial ribosome?
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Clindamycin
E. Fusidic acid

A. Tetracycline

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Which of the following NAM pentapeptide terminal residues confers intrinsic resistance to Vancomycin?
A. D-ala-D-ala
B. D-ala-D-serine
C. D-serine-D-serine
D. D-lysine-D-serine

B. D-ala-D-serine

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Opisthotonos is a characteristic manifestation of the effects of which toxin?
A. Alpha toxin
B. Shigatoxin
C. Tetanospasmin
D. Botulinum toxin A
E. Endotoxin

C. Tetanospasmin

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Mycobacterium tuberculosis is capable of surviving in:

Macrophages

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Mechanism of action of vancomycin

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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Certain strains of E. coli produce shigatoxin when lysogenized. This means that the toxin protein is coded for by a:

Bacteriophage

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Drug of choice for cervicofacial actinomycosis

Penicillin

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Which genus other than Clostridium includes medically important Gram positive, spore forming rods

Bacillus

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Which of the following antibacterials would never be used systemically?
A. Vancomycin
B. Bacitracin
C. Cycloserine
D. Gentamycin
E. Chloramphenicol

B. Bacitracin (it is a topical only!)

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A child presents with rash, fever, strawberry tongue. Toxin responsible is:
A. Pyrogenic exotoxin
B. Streptolysin S
C. Exfoliatin
D. Enterotoxin A

Pyrogenic exotoxin

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Which class of immunoglobulin can be transferred transplacentally, leading to hemolytic disease of the newborn?

IgG

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Which of the following organisms is associated with “sulfur granules”
A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Candida albicans
D. Rhizopus arrhizus
E. histoplasma capsulatum

A. Actinomyces israelii

other one is A. viscosus

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An eschar is a cutaneous form of which disease?
A. nocardiasis
B. tetanus
C. anthrax
D. actinomycosis
E. Aspergillus

C. anthrax

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Which of the following may contribute to evasion of the immune system by a tumor?
A. lack of MHC expression by the tumor cells
B. mononuclear infiltrate of the tumor
C. Expression of oncofetal antigens by the tumor cells
D. Expression of viral antigens by the tumor cells

A. lack of MHC expression by the tumor cells

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In the spleen, T cells are found primarily in the:

Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)

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Which of the following anti-microbials is an RNA synthesis inhibitor? A. rifampin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. metronidazole

A. rifampin

A mutation in bacterial DNA gyrase is likely to result in resistance to which of the following antimicrobials? A. amphotericin B B. ciprofloxacin C. penicillin D. streptomycin E. ceftriaxone

Which of the following is a common initial manifestation of botulism in an adult? A. diplopia B. watery diarrhea C. spasm of the muscles of mastication D. myonecrosis E. epiglottis

Diplopia

Approximately 10% of patients who demonstrate allergy to penicillins are also allergic to a similar class of compounds known as:

Cephalosporins

A third year dental student is found to have a positive PPD skin test. Six months ago the test was negative. Chest x-ray reveals no abnormality. The student should be trated with 6-12 month course of

Isoniazid

The profound clinical effect of superantigens is due to their ability to activate huge numbers of:

T lymphocytes

Antibiotic-associated colitis is caused by an exotoxin elaborated by:

C. difficile

C. perfringens food poisoning is most often associated with:

Poultry

Which antibiotic can cause staining of developing teeth?

tetracycline

Which of the following antimicrobials inhibits folic acid synthesis? A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Tetracyclines D. Aminoglycosides E. Sulfonamides

E. sulfonamides

What is the mechanism of action of the botulinum neurotoxin?

Prevents the release of acetylcholine from the alpha motor neuron

Current standard for water quality using in routine dental treatments is below ____ of heterotrophic water bacteria

500

Erythromycin, a macrolide, acts by inhibiting bacterial:

Protein synthesis

Which of the following lymphokines secreted by Th2 cells is required for class switching resulting in IgE synthesis?

IL-4

Among the carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae, which most commonly causes disease?

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Which of the following Gram-negative organisms can cause disease characterized by gangrene and septic shock, and has a high fatality rate? A. Yersinia enterocolitica B. Vibrio vulnificus C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli

Erysipelas is a skin infection caused by:

S. pyogenes

Which of the following T lymphocyte product acts by forming pores in target cell membranes? A. perforin B. granzyme C. complement D. collagenase E. interferon-beta

Perforin

All children older than one month with definite or probable bacterial meningitis should be initially treated with:

Vancomycin plus cephalosporin

The single greatest source of salmonellosis in the US is

Chickens

Recognition of antigen by CD8 t cells requires the presentation of antigen in association with

MHC I

The most reliable means of diagnosing typhoid fever is:

Bone marrow culture

Positive selection of T cells in the thymus involves selection of only those cells which: A. are self-tolerant B. react to self peptides C. do not react to self peptides D. recognize MHC

D. recognize MHC

The most common cause of bacillary dysentery is: A. campylobacter jejuni B. E. coli C. Vibrio cholerae D. Shigella sonnei E. Salmonella enteritidis

Shigella sonnei

Streptococcal toxin shock syndrome is due to which bacterial product? A. endotoxin B. pyrogenic exotoxin C. hyaluronidase D. serine protease E. streptokinase

B. pyrogenic exotoxin

Which serotype of Haemphilus influenzae causes the most serious disease?

Which organisms can be distinguised from similar organisms by the fact that they can produce H2S from thiosulfate?

Salmonella typhi

The family of enzymes responsible for TCR gene rearrangements would be:

VDJ recombinase

Which is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in a newborn?

Streptococcus agalactiae

Subjects who lack MHC class II would be most likely to result in a deficiency of:

CD4+ T cells

In the designation of E. coli O157:H7, the H refers to antigens of the:

Flagella

Effective immunity to S. pneumoniae is conferred by antibodies directed against:

Capsular polysaccharide

An organism that forms smooth, pale yellow colonies on blood agar, is catalase positive and coagulase positive is most likely to be:

S. aureus

In the US, the most common cause overall of bacterial meningitis is:

S. pneumoniae

Which cytokine is produced by monocytes stimulated by endotoxin and is responsible for the fever production in septic shock? A. GM-CSF B. IFN-gamma C. IL-12 D. TNF-alpha

D. TNF-alpha

The spinal fluid in bacterial meningitis is characterized by:

Increased numbers of neutrophils

Target cells present peptide fragments derived from the endogenous pathway using:

Class I MHC

Strains of E. coli that cause pyelonephritis are characterized by the possession of: A. Unique P fimbrial antigens B. Phase variation of flagellar antigens C. Specific O antigens D. Production of shigatoxin

A. Unique P fimbrial antigens

Which of the following cells express both class I and class II MHC? A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils C. Buccal mucosal epithelium D. erythrocytes E. resting t lymphocytes

A. macrophages

In the process of negative selection, an auto-reactive thymocyte is eliminated as a consequence of its interaction with a thymic epithelial cell which:

Presents self antigen in association with an MHC molecule

The human MHC is located on chromosome:

Growth of which organism is inhibited by optochin?

S. pneumoniae

In MHC II molecules, antigen peptide fragments are accomodated in a groove between the:

alpha 1 and beta 1 domains

The organisms that cause plague belong to which genus?

Yersinia

Patients with cystic fibrosis are particularly susceptible to pulmonary infections caused by which organism?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The bacterium that is strongly associated with gastric ulcers and gastric cancer is characterized by the production of:

Urease

Currently, the drug of choice for treatment of systemic infections with MRSA is:

vancomycin

Growth of S. pneumoniae on blood agar is characterized by which type of hemolysis?

Alpha

Which S. pyogenes antigen is responsible for the induction of protective antibody? A. hyaluronidase B. streptolysin C. Polysaccharise capsular antigen D. M protein E. G protein

D. M protein

Rheumatic fever is a sequela of S. pyogenes infection of the: A. heart valves B. bones or joints C. central nervous system D. skin E. Pharynx

E. pharynx Rest are areas where antibodies cross react with these tissues

In a patient with intestinal infection, the finding of neutrophils in the feces is indicative of:

Invasive bacteria

A 25 year old female presents with fever, flank pain, dysuria. Examination of the urine reveals many neutrophils, >200,000 CFU/mL, and many white cell casts. The presence of casts indicates which infection?

Pyelonephritis

Which interleukin triggers DNA remodeling (and more specifically TCR locus de-methylation)

IL-7

Currently, Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly associated with: A. Immune deficiency B. tampon use C. wound infection D. Concurrent STD

C. Wound infection

The toxin responsible for the pathology of Scalded Skin Syndrome is:

Exfoliatin

The major function of the CD3 seta (z) chain is:

Signal transduction

The vast majority of cases of osteomyelitis are caused by:

S. aureus

Which cytokine is produced primarily by Th1 cells?

IL-2

Which of the following is a Class II MHC gene product? A. HLA A2 B. HLA B C. HLA CR D. HLA DQ E. HLA E

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be involved in subacute bacterial endocarditis? A. Group A Strep B. S. agalactiae C. Group B Strep D. Viridans Strep

D. Viridans

Which of the following has been implicated in the etiology of dental caries? A. S. mutans B. S. agalactiae C. S. pyogenes D. S. pneumoniae E. S. fecalis

S. mutans

A six year old child presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatic fever. His mother reports that he complained of a sore throat about three weeks ago, but he was not very ill with it and she did not take him to the pediatrician. Which test would determine if the sore throat has been due to S. pyogenes infection?

Anti-streptolysin O (ASO) titer

A child presents with lesions on her face and legs that are oozy and covered with a honey colored crust. Culture of the lesions reveals Gram positive cocci that are catalase negative. A zone of hemolysis is noted around the colonies on the blood agar plate. This is reported by the lab to be of which type of hemolysis? A. alpha B. beta C. gamma D. delta

Beta

The hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by a strain of E. coli that produces a toxin similar to that produced by which genus?

Shigella

Immunogenicity, or the ability of a vaccine to stimulate an effective, specific, adaptive immune response, is inversely correlated with:

Attenuation

Which of the following is/are examples of natural passive immunity? A. Placental IgG transfer B. IgA in breast milk C. Lactoferrin in breast milk D. all of the above

In an immunocompetent adult, the most common manifestation of S. pneumoniae infection is:

Lobar pneumonia

Streptococcal species found as normal oral flora usually produce which sort of hemolysis in culture?

Alpha

A 31 year old bank teller presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and a fever. Microscopic examination of the stool shows the presence of many neutrophils and erythrocytes. The most likely causative organism is: A. H. pylori B. Salmonella Enteritidis C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Shigella sonnei E. Vibrio cholerae

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (Spe) function as:

Superantigens

The CDC recommends that water used for routine dental treatment should: A. Contain less than 500 CFU/mL B. be dionized C. Be distilled D. exceed the regulatory standards for drinking water

S. pneumoniae can best be distinguished from S. pyogenes by which test?

Optochin test

The currently approved HPV vaccine for both boys and girls (Gardasil) is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types:

6, 11, 16, 18

The currently recommended poliomyelitis vaccine consists of:

Killed virus

Which would be the most likely non-suppurative sequela of streptococcal impetigo? A. rheumatic fever B. Endocarditis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Erythema nodosum

Glomerulonephritis

The hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes is a virulence factor because it inhibits:

Phagocytosis

Three days ago, a patient received her third immunization with tetanus toxoid. What class of antibodies specific for tetanus toxoid would one expect to find in her serum?

Low IgM; High IgG

Which bacterium is thought to be associated with gastric carcinoma?

H. pylori

Which part of the IgG molecule can bind to a specific membrane receptor on a phagocytic cell?

Fc fragment

Which of the following cells express both class I and class II MHC

B lymphocytes also macrophages. depends what answer is available

The spinal fluid in bacterial meningitis is characterized by

Increased protein levels also high neutrophils low glucose wbc 0-60,000

The antigenic component upon which Lancefield grouping of Streptococci is based is a:

Cell wall polysaccharide

T independent antigens include: A. tetanus toxoid B. human albumin C. Streptococcal M protein D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide

D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide

In general, live virus vaccines should not be administered to individuals who are: A. immune deficient B. pregnant C. being treated with cytotoxic drugs D. Receiving radiation therapy E. all of the above

The cardiac inflammation that occurs in rheumatic fever is probably due to:

Antibody cross reactivity between streptococcal and cardiac tissue antigens

Which organism if gram negative, motile, and ferments lactose? A. Shigella sonnei B. Salmonella paratyphi C. Vibrio vulnificus D. E. coli E. C. jejuni

The drug of choice for prevention of recurrent rheumatic fever is

Penicillin

Which of the following streptococcal products is responsible for beta hemolysis of blood agar? A. Erythrogenic toxin B. streptokinase C. Streptolysin B D. Hyaluronidase

The administration of Hep B immune globulin results in which type of immunity?

Artificial passive

The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is:

it provides immediate protection

Enterotoxins are bacterial products that induce vomiting and diarrhea when ingested in microgram amounts. Which organism below produces them? A. E faecalis B. S pyogenes C. S. aureus D. S. epidermidis

A patient develops explosive, watery, high volume diarrhea 24 hours after eating seafood imported from South America. No blood is visible in the stool. Which bacterium is most likely involved?

Vibrio cholerae

The major virulence factor of Group A, beta hemolytic Streptococcus is

M protein

A confirmatory test for the ID of E. coli is

Indole test

In humoral immunity, memory cells are formed as a result of differentiation of

Antigen activated B cells

In healthy carriers of S. Typhi, the organism is found in which site

Gallbladder

MMR vaccine consists of:

Live attenuated organisms

The drug of choice for Staphylococcal infections is

Methicillin

Exam 2 Juice Flashcards

(122 cards)