Exam 3 Flashcards

(384 cards)

1
Q

Prescribedinhalersandepinephrine
autoinjectorshaveasimilar
effectonpatientsinthattheycan:

A

Increase heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Epinephrineisanexampleofadrug’s:

A

Generic name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Theclearplastictubingthatconnectsthe
fluidbagtoaneedleorcatheterinintravenous
therapyiscalledthe
______
set.

A

Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Crushingchestpaininapatientwitha
knownhistoryofheart
problemswouldbetreatedbyadministering:

A

Nitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 5 rights of administering drugs

A
Do I have the right patient 
Is this the right medication 
Is this the right dose
Is this the right route
Is it the right time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Common side effects of inhalers

A

Higher heart rate and jitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of prescribed inhalers

A

Albuterol and levalbuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

suspensionusedto

treatapoisoningoroverdoseinwhichthesubstancewasswallowed.

A

Activated charcoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

isadministeredtoa
consciouspatient(abletoswallow)withan
alteredmentalstateandahistoryof
diabetes.

A

Oral glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

drugusedtotreatanypatientwhosemedicalor

traumaticconditioncauseshimtobehypoxicorindangerofbecominghypoxic.

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Manypatientswithrecurrentchestpaincarry pills.

A

Nitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

EverydrugormedicationintheUnitedStatesis
listedinthe __ whichisacomprehensive
governmentpublication.

A

us Pharmacopoeia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Everydrughas__ orspecificsigns,symptoms,or

circumstancesunderwhichitisappropriatetoadministerittoapatient.

A

Indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 names of a drug

A

General
Chemical
Trade (brand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Form of activated charcoal

A

Suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effects of nitro

A

Low blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Constrictsthebloodvesselsandrelaxesairway

passages, Increasedheartrateandbloodpressure

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antidote for a patient who is unconscious and in respiratory failure from narcotic

A

Narcan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bronchodilator inhaler enlarges…

A

Constructed breathing tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nitroglycerin helps

A

Dilate coronary vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epinephrine is a

A

Vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What % of people have an ischemic stroke if they have 1 FAST SYMPTOM

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Force protection medications…

A

Atropine auto injector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An example of a compressed powder or tablet is

A

Nitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
An example of a sublingual spray
Nitro
26
A parenteral route means
Bypassing the GI tract
27
What route makes it difficult to absorb a medication if bad circulation
Sublingual
28
If a medication is absorbed SL its absorbed by the
Vascular soft tissue
29
When giving a drug IN use a
Atomizer
30
Injected into bone marrow cavity
Intraosseous
31
What kind of patients have a difficult time eliminating medications
Geriatric
32
After giving a medications…
Reassess patient
33
Medication that may be prescribed to patient for dolly management of respiratory disease. Not used for emergency treatment
Advair
34
Insufficient flow of an IV can cause
Clots
35
Inspiration is a __ process
Active
36
Air pulled into lungs, diaphragm lowers and ribs move up and out
Inhalation
37
Breaths per minute for adult, school age child, and infant
12-20 18-30 30-60
38
First organ affected by hypoxia
Brain
39
No air into lungs, ominous in children is a
Silent chest
40
What kind of respirations are seen before respiratory arrest
Agonal
41
In children, with their airway they have…
``` Larger tongue Smaller trachea Smaller airway Less developed cricoid cartilage Heavy dependence on diaphragm ```
42
Bag valve ventilations for adult vs child
Adult is 10-12 | Child is 12-20
43
Nonrebreather mask required __ breathing to pull oxygen into lungs
Adequate
44
What won’t vibe ventilation to a patient not breathing or inadequately
NBM
45
Effect of hyperventilating
Constricts blood vessels, elimination of more CO2
46
The pulse rates on adults will. __ when there is a lack of oxygen
Increase
47
__ pulse rates can indicate inadequate artificial ventilation in kids
Decreasing
48
In patients with difficult breathing observe…
Barrel chest, tripod position, altered mental status, work of breathing, pale or cyanosis skin, edema, noisy breathing
49
Crackles and rhonchi are in the
Lower airway
50
Do not put a __ in child’s mouth to examine airway because it can result in spasms or injury
Tongue depressor
51
Decreased heart rate can be a late sign of
Difficulty breathing
52
High pitched, air moving through narrow passage
Wheezing
53
What sound is Heard in inspiration and caused by fluid in alveoli or by opening of closed alveoli
CrackLes
54
Lower pitched, resembles snoring, caused by secretions in airway
Rhonci
55
Upper airway sound, high pitch, obstruction
Strider
56
CPAP is a __ procedure
Noninvasive
57
Blowing oxygen continuously at a low pressure into airway prevents
Alveoli rom collapsing
58
Can prevent fluid from entering alveoli in pulmonary edema
CPAP
59
Depressants are also known as
Barbiturates
60
Mixing ammonia and other chemicals can lead to an
Explosion
61
Never use CPAP in situations where
Artificial ventilations would be indicated
62
Don’t give CPAP if
Lack of normal respiratory rate, can’t sit up, hypotension, upper GI bleed
63
Side effects of CPAP
hypotension, pneumothorax, risk of aspiration, drying of corneas
64
Broad classification of chronic lung disease
COPD
65
Number one cause of COPD
Smoking
66
Bronchiole lining inflamed, excess mucus produced, clubbing digits
Chronic bronchitis
67
Pursed lip breathing, alveoli walls break down , lungs lose elasticity, CO2 trapped in lungs
Emphysema
68
In asthma what breathing phase is longer
Exhalation
69
Chronic disease with episodic exacerbations, bronchioles narrow and muscles overproduced
Asthma
70
Airway flow is restricted in 1 direction
Wheezing in asthma
71
Abnormal fluid accumulation in alveoli
Pulmonary edema
72
Pressure builds up in pulmonary capillaries and patient experiences dyspnea
Pulmonary edema
73
CHF patients often have
Pulmonary edema
74
Treatment of patients with Pulmonary edema
Keep legs in dependent position, CPAP, low sodium
75
Infection in the lungs, results from inhalation of microbes
Pneumonia
76
Rupture of a bleb, lung collapses without injury, decreased or absent lung sounds on injured lung side
Spontaneous pneumothorax
77
Tachycardia, JVD, hypotension, and smoking, tall or thin people are at higher risk
Spontaneous pneumothorax
78
CPAP contraindicated with
Spontaneous pneumothorax
79
Commonly caused by DVT
Pulmonary embolism
80
Blockage in blood supply to lungs
Pulmonary embolism
81
Common reasons for DVT
Laying down in same position for a long time, active cancer, limb immobilized
82
Signs of pulmonary embolism
Breathing worsens in and out, swelling in leg, hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea
83
Primary result of childhood vaccination against haemophilus influenza type B
Epiglottitis
84
Infection causing swelling around and above epiglottis, common with children
Epiglottitis
85
Caused by group of viral illnesses, inflammation of larynx, trachea, and bronchi
Croup
86
Tissues in upper airway become swollen, loud barking cough, inspiratory strider
Croup
87
Croup common in ages
6 months to 4 years
88
Broncholitis is common in the
Fall and winter
89
Small airways inflames because of viral infection
Bronchiolitis
90
Most common cause of bronchiolitis
Respiratory syntactical virus (RSV) kids less than 5
91
Half of people with CF are
18 and up
92
Genetic, appears during childhood, causes thick mucus in lungs and digestive system
CF
93
Viral respiratory infections are common in. ___ and symptoms can last. __
Adults, 1-2 weeks (influenza)
94
With viral respiratory infections what are treatment options
Oxygen with hypoxia and bronchodilator for wheezing, good hygiene
95
The prescribed inhaler is a
Metered dose
96
When giving prescribed inhaler, have patient exhale deeply and hold breath for ___ . Wait ___ between administration
5-10 seconds, 15-30 seconds
97
Small volume nebulizer is a
Metered dose
98
Produced continuous flow of aerosolized medication that can be taken during multiple breaths
Small volume neb
99
Hold breath for __ with nebulizer
2-3 sec
100
First line agent to treat bronchoconstiction
Duo neb
101
Dilates bronchioles passageways by engaging beta receptors with sympathetic NS
Albuterol
102
Blocs bronchoconstriction associated with parasympathetic NS
Ipatropium bromide
103
What numbers are concerning with tachycardia and bradycardia
150, 50
104
In an infant or a child, bradycardia is a sign of:
Respiratory failure
105
A condition in infants and small children in which the movement  of the diaphragm causes the chest and abdomen to move in  opposite directions is called:
Seesaw breathing
106
``` All of the following are contraindications for  C P A P use EXCEPT: A. tachycardia. B. chest trauma. C. hypotension. D. poor mask seal. ```
A
107
muscular structure that divides the chest  | cavity from the abdominal cavity.
Diaphragm
108
patient who uses several pillows to prop himself up when sleeping may be  suffering from  .
Pulmonary edema
109
Blockage due to narrowing of the bronchi that lead from the trachea to the lungs is  known as  .
Bronchoconstriction
110
Shortness of breath
Dysnpnea
111
patient meets nitroglycerin criteria, the maximum number of doses that can be administered is:
3
112
``` Which of the following is NOT a sign of congestive heart failure? A. Jugular vein distention B. Crackles C. Urticaria D. Pulmonary edema ```
C
113
malfunction of the heart’s electrical system will generally result in a(n
Dysrhythmia
114
contraindication for the administration of | nitroglycerin?
Viagra taken
115
Patients suffering from an occlusion or narrowing of the coronary arteries suffer from ______
CAD
116
first organ perfused by oxygenated blood leaving the heart is the:
Heart
117
The V1 lead for a 12-lead E C G is placed: A. in the 5th intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line. B. in the 5th intercostal space on the anterior axillary line. C. at the level of the 4th intercostal space just to the right of the sternum. D. at the level of the 4th intercostal space just to the left of the sternum.
C
118
The blocking of a coronary artery by the formation of a | thrombus or by an embolism is known as
Acute MI
119
two most common sites of aneurysms that you will | encounter in emergency situations are the:
Aorta and brain
120
The blanket term that refers to any time the blood supply to the cells of the heart is blocked or disrupted is ___________________ ___________________ .
Cardiac compromise (ACS)
121
pulse rate slower than 60 beats per minute is
Bradycardia
122
pulse rate faster than 100 beats per minute is
Tachycardia
123
Most heart problems in infants and small children are ___________________ in nature.
Congenital
124
With coronary artery disease, the amount of blood passing through the artery is
Reduced
125
Angina pectoris, literally “a pain in the chest,” is most often brought on by
Stress and exertion
126
The condition that occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood with normal efficiency is called ___________________ ___________________ .
Heart failure
127
Nitroglycerin should only be administered if the patient’s systolic blood pressure is above ___________________ .
90
128
A clot formed of blood and plaque attached to the inner wall of an artery or vein
Thrombus
129
Dilation of a weakened section of an arterial wall
Aneurysm
130
Moving blood clot or plaque that broke loose from an artery wall
Embolism
131
Condition in which part of the heart muscle dies from oxygen | starvation
Acute MI
132
Blockage, as of an artery by fatty deposits
Occlusion
133
Pain in the chest due to reduced supply of blood and oxygen | to a portion of the heart muscle
Angina
134
Acute coronary syndrome, __ BP and __ heart rate
Increased
135
Hypoxia condition of the heart
Ischemia
136
Chest discomfort that radiates to jaw neck shoulders abdomen, dyspnea common in older people and women, irregular pulse
ACS
137
Grabbing clutching chest is
Levine sign
138
Look for __ in physical exam of ACS
Acute pulmonary edema, fluid on left side, swollen ankles and feet on right side
139
12 lead ECG measures the
Anterior part of the heart, last thing to change during heart attack
140
If ECG is normal with chest pains give
Aspirin
141
Order of medications for chest pain
Oxygen Aspirin Nitro
142
Max dose of aspirin
325 mg PO
143
Don’t give aspirin if
GI bleed, blood thinners, allergic, aspiration risk
144
You can __ with nitro if prescribed
Assist
145
Viagra is a
Vasodilator
146
After giving a dose of nitro, reassess and repeat dose in __ if partial relief
5 minutes
147
Risk factors of coronary artery disease
Hereditary, hypertension, obesity’s increase blood cholesterol, smoking
148
Insufficient flow to myocardium
Angina
149
If pain exerts itself and stops once rested, it is known as
Stable angina
150
Nitro __ blood vessels
Dilates
151
Hardened plaque can cause aneurysm of a blood vessel
Acute MI
152
Acute MI can cause
Ischemia, dysrhythmias, carcinogenic shock
153
Disrupts electrical function of heart
Ischemia
154
Right sided heart failure include
Pressure build up in right atrium and SVC jvd Pedal edema Abdomen swelling
155
Left sided heart failure
Pressure build up in pet atrium and pulmonary vein Fluid leaks into alveoli Impaired gas exchange Pulmonary edema
156
Look for ____ with heart failure and acute pulmonary edema
Edema, crackles, swelling in as stomach, JVD, pink frothy sputum
157
Bursting of an aneurysm can cause
Internal bleeding
158
Normal BP by AHA
110/70
159
Arrhythmias to worry about
Ventricular fib and tach
160
Sodium and potassium in the heart make the heart
Squeeze
161
Sodium in heart regulated by
Insulin
162
Pulseless electrical activity indicates
Mechanical failure
163
Are all examples of ___ heart failure: loss of normal heart structure, MI, chronic hypertension, loss of valve function
Mechanical
164
Electrical dysfunction of the heart include
Asystole, unusually slow or fast rhythm, v fib and v tach
165
Complete failure of electrical system
Asystole
166
Abrupt onset of dysrhythmia, oxygen levels normal in beginning
Sudden cardiac arrest
167
Acute blunt trauma to chest
Commotion cordis
168
Heart stopped pumping due to systemic hypoxia , low oxygen levels
Asphyxial cardiac arrest
169
Primal reflex during cardiac arrest
Agonal respiratiojsn
170
Cardiac arrests in children are usually
Asphyxia
171
Cardiac arrest in children caused by
Respiratory problem, choking
172
SUIDS has an __
Unknown cause
173
Accidental suffocation and strangulation can result in
SIDS
174
Late sign of heart failure
Pink frothy sputum
175
Increases temperature is a sign of
Pericarditis
176
Cardiac slowdown and sleep apnea signs of
SUIDS
177
Unless rigor mortis, provide __ in SUIDS
Resuscitation
178
Handplacement of CPR
Lower third of patients sternum
179
CPR With one rescuer and 2 rescuer infant
1 rescuer= 2 finger chest | 2 = thumbs around chest
180
5 elements of improving cardiac arrest survival
1. Recognition and activation of ERS 2. Immediate high quality CPR 3. Rapid defibrillation 4. BAsic and advanced Ems 5. ALS and post arrest care
181
CPR maintains
Cerebral and coronary perfusion pressures
182
Concerned with what with narcan
Breathing
183
Range of blood glucose
70-110
184
Compression depth in adults and infants
2 inch, 1.5 or 1/3 diameter
185
Elbows should be _ during CPR
Locked
186
Pivot point to __ in CPR
Waits
187
Compressions __ CPR
100-120 per minute, aim for compression fraction above 90%
188
Ventilations in CPR for pediatrics with 2 rescuers
15:2
189
Mechanical CPR device
LUCASCPR
190
Sends single shock from negative pad to positive pad
Monophasic AED
191
Sends shock in one direction and then other
Biphasic AED
192
Triangle of life consists of
Compressions, attached AED, and airway management and ventilations
193
Swelling in upper airway
Angioedema
194
It alone while providing compressions, for adults __ for children __
attach AED first then adult compressions | Begin CPR then attach AED for kids
195
Check pulse every __ if resuscitation is successful
30 seconds
196
Once you start resuscitation you continue until
Spontaneous circulation occurs, too exhausted, cease resuscitation order, turn care over
197
Croup can lead to
Epligollistis
198
Cardiac arrest for hypothermia and submersion injuries…
Attempt defibrillation and wait again until core temp is 86 before attempting again
199
The most important component of successful C P R implementation is:
Quality compressions
200
The first step in assessing a patient in cardiac arrest is to:
Verify pulselessness and apnea
201
``` If a patient has an artificial pacemaker, it is usually visible as a lump: A. above the sternum. B. below the sternum. C. above a clavicle. D. below a clavicle. ```
D
202
Pediatric defibrillator pads should be used for defibrillation of any child who is less than: A. 13 years old. B. 6 years old. C. 10 years old. D. 8 years old.
D
203
``` All the following are signs or symptoms commonly associated with a  diabetic emergency EXCEPT: A. an elevated heart rate. B. combativeness. C. seizures. D. hot, dry skin. ```
D
204
``` Glucose is administered by the E M T in the form of a: A. tablet. B. liquid for injection. C. nasal spray. D. gel. ```
D
205
The type of diabetes that requires a patient to inject supplemental doses of  synthetic insulin is:
Type 1
206
If a patient drinks large amounts of water, has  acetone breath, and has  warm skin, you would suspect:
Hyperglycemia
207
The most common cause of seizures in infants  and children six months to  three years of age is:
Hugh fever
208
``` The condition in which a person has a temporary loss of consciousness with  spontaneous recovery is called A. atrophy. B. syncope. C. unresponsiveness. D. dizziness. ```
B
209
``` The type of seizure characterized by unconsciousness and major motor  activity is called: A. complex partial seizure. B. focal sensory seizure. C. Jacksonian seizure. D. tonic-clonic seizure. ```
D
210
The phase of a tonic clonic seizure in which the body jerks about violently is the:
Clonic
211
``` The condition in which a stroke severely limits a patient’s ability to use words is  called: A. ischemia. B. dyspnea. C. aphasia. D. syncope. ```
C
212
``` After convulsions have ceased, a patient with a seizure disorder should be  transported: A. in a prone position. B. on their side. C. with feet elevated. D. in a tripod position. ```
B
213
Blood sugar cannot pass from the bloodstream into the body’s cells without
Insulin
214
The most common medical emergency for patient who is diabetic is a condition  called 
Hypoglycemia
215
often be controlled without supplemental  | insulin through supervised diet and oral medication.
Type 2
216
Two or more convulsive seizures in a row or a single seizure lasting 10 minutes or  more is defined as the condition called ___________________  
Status epilepticus
217
Document level of consciousness or after meds in a patient with altered mental status every
5 minutes
218
Diseases to impact pancreas
Alcoholism
219
Insulin acts as a
Gateway
220
Glucose is large and cannot pass through cell withou
Insulin
221
Pancreas secretes insulin when blood glucose exceeds
90
222
Pancreatic cells don’t function properly, too little insulin
Type 1
223
Need to be __ for oral glucose
A and o x 3
224
Body’s fat cells fail to utilize insulin
Type 2
225
Hypoglycemia caused by
``` Too much insulin Too little sugar intake Increased metabolic rate Vomiting Overexertion ```
226
Onset is __ in hypoglycemia
Rapid
227
Treatment of hypoglycemia
Oral glucose
228
Caused my insulin deficiency, infection, stress, increased dietary intake, slow onset
Hyperglycemia
229
Increased urination is a sigh of
Hyperglycemia
230
Build up of wastes and combined with dehydration
DKA ketoacidosis
231
Signs of DKA
``` Blood glucose around 400 Shock Increased eating drinking and urination Acetone odor Expel molecules through metabolic rate (coos mows rate- on exhalation) ```
232
Continuous glucose meters can test every __ minutes by sensor under skin
5 minutez
233
Less thank 60 mg/dL | Greater than 140 mg/dL
Hypoglycemia | Hyperglycemia
234
Greater than 300 mg/dL
Dehydration
235
Reading of high | Reading of low
500 mg/dL, 15 mg/dL
236
Oral glucose only helps
Hypoglycemic people
237
If normal respiratory rates but snoring use a
NPA
238
Partial seizures affect
1 part of the brain
239
Generalized seizures affect
All Brain and consciousness
240
Steps of a tonic clonic seizure
Tonic Clonic Postictal
241
Patients know, seizures proceeded by a sensation
Aura
242
Most common cause of seizures in adults
Failure to take medications
243
In heat stroke, what organ shuts off first
Kidney
244
What is eclampsia
High blood pressure and excess protein in urine results in sezures in pregnant women or after giving birth
245
If present during seizure…
Don’t try to hold patient still | If vagus nerve stimulator, family members apply magnet
246
Abnormal behavior that includes looking like drunk, fidgeting, glassy stare, no loss of consciousness but no memory of episode
Complex partial sezuire
247
Brief 10 second temporary loss of concentration of awareness, no motor activity
Absence (petit mal) seizure
248
Generalized seizures are
Tonic clonic and absent
249
BlockGs that occurs from clot or embolism obstructing artery
Ischemic stroke
250
Bleeding from ruptured blood vessel in brain
Hemorrhage stroke
251
Results from high blood pressure or weak area of artery bulges and ruptures
Hemorrhage stroke
252
Hemiparesis
1 sided weakness
253
Difficulty communicating
Aphasia
254
Patient knows what they want to say but uses wrong words
Inexpressive aphasia
255
Patient can understand you buy responses don’t make sense
Inreceptive aphasia
256
Patient exhibits stroke signs that resolve in 24 hours
TIA
257
Hypoxia period is short and no permanent damage in
TIA
258
Use CPSS to assess for
TIA
259
Patients criteria for clot busting drugs
Onset of stroke less than 3 hours prior CT scan shows no hemorrhage BP not hypertensive
260
Greatest danger with syncope patient is
Falling
261
During anaphylaxis, blood vessels
Blood vessels dilate rapidly causing hypotension
262
On first exposure of allergic reaction | On second exposure
Antibodies form | Antibodies combine with allergen, release histamine
263
What happens during spectrum of rxn during allergic rxn
Blood vessels dilate Flushing of skin Bronchoconstriction Urticaria (hives)
264
During allergic reaction, heart rate __ and __ BP
Increases, decreases
265
Epinephrine does what for blood vessels and bronchioles
Constricts blood vessels and dilates bronchioles
266
Doses for epi
0. 3 mL adults | 0. 15 mL kids
267
``` Signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the  following EXCEPT: A. itching. B. pale, cold skin, . C. decreased blood pressure. D. watery eyes. ```
B
268
Anaphylaxis is differentiated from an allergic |  reaction by
Respiratory distress
269
``` When administered as a medication, epinephrine will accomplish all  of the following EXCEPT: A. constrict blood vessels. B. lower blood pressure. C. dilate the bronchioles. D. improve perfusion. ```
B
270
Administration of epinephrine needs to be  | carefully documented Because of effects on the
Heart
271
To manage a patient’s airway and breathing during an allergic reaction, an E M T  should apply ___________________  - ___________________  ___________________   through a ___________________  ___________________ .
High concentration oxygen, Nonrebreather
272
epinephrine will ___________________  blood  | vessels and improve the ___________________  of tissues.
Constrict, perfusion
273
A disease that may be passed from one person to another is:
Communicable
274
A microbe that is not a cell and that has a protein coat or shell that encloses what it needs to reproduce is a:
Virus
275
Microbes that can cause yeast infections are:
Fungi
276
The time from exposure to the development of first symptoms is the:
Incubation period
277
``` During the local infection stage of sepsis, the body: A. increases white blood cells. B. produces lactic acid. C. causes vasoconstriction. D. decreases vascular permeability. ```
A
278
``` During septic shock, lactic acid and other chemicals accumulate in the bloodstream, producing ______ and leaky capillaries. A. vasoconstriction B. bronchoconstriction C. vasodilation D. bronchodilation ```
C
279
life-threatening condition that results from an abnormal and counterproductive response by the body that causes damage to tissues and organs is called:
Sepsis
280
A problem involving the gastrointestinal system that can develop into sepsis is:
Pancreatitis
281
Causes of sepsis from lungs
Pneumonia
282
A type of hepatitis spread by the fecal oral route is:
A
283
Each year, an influenza vaccine is released that works against ______ that scientists believe will be most common that season.
Several viruses
284
``` Washing the exposure site is one of the postexposure actions for: A. chickenpox. B. pertussis. C. croup. D. H I V. ```
D
285
``` Antibiotics that used to be effective may no longer work because of bacteria developing: A. resistance. B. virulence. C. toxicity. D. susceptibility. ```
A
286
SIRS criteria
Temp lower than 96.8 and higher then 101 Heart rate over 90 Respiratory rate over 20 Systolic bp lower than 90
287
Quick sepsis related organ failure assessment doesn’t
Predict if someone is septic, predicts if patient will die or has to stay in ICU
288
__cause yeast infections, ___________________ can cause malaria, and ___________________ such as tapeworms live off the body without providing any benefit.
Fungi, Protozoa, parasites
289
Rabies virus infection is almost always fatal if the virus enters the body through the ___________________ , most often from the bite of an infected animal.
Blood steam
290
inflammation of the tissues surrounding the brain and spinal cord, is a well-known cause of death.
Meningitis
291
Patients with chickenpox are isolated to prevent spread of the disease until all of the ___________________ have dried and have crusts on them.
Lesions
292
With measles, small white or bluish-white spots called ___________________ spots may appear on the inside of the cheek.
Koplik
293
disease caused by paramyxovirus that typically starts with vague symptoms such as muscle aches, loss of appetite, and headache.
Mumps
294
with hepatitis A may be asymptomatic, so they can spread the disease easily and unknowingly.
Children
295
Following H I V exposure, ___________________ in the form of antiviral medication can be prescribed for 28 days.
PEP, POSTEXPOSURE PROPHYLAXIS
296
The incubation period for influenza ranges from ___________________ to ___________________ days but is typically ___________________ days.
1-4, 2
297
People with latent ___________________ confirmed by skin or blood testing will be put on one or more antibiotics for 6–9 months.
Tuberculosis
298
H P V causes genital warts and is the causative agent of ___________________ cancer in women.
Cervical
299
strength of the microbe in combating the body’s defenses.
Virulence
300
The incubation period for hepatitis B is __
60-90 days
301
The annual number of poisoning cases in the United States each  year is more than:
2 million
302
Modern treatment of ingested poisoning and overdose consists  primarily of: A. administration of an antidote. B. prevention of absorption. C. inducement of vomiting. D. dilution of a poisonous substance.
B
303
The most frequent victims of poisoning are:
Children
304
Ischemic stroke vitals
200/100 High bp (vasoconstriction), pulse and respiratory rate normal
305
Hemorrhage stroke vitals
High BP, low pulse of 40, pulse fluctuates
306
Number one cause of aneurysm
High bp
307
 treating cases of inhaled poisons, the drug of first choice is: A. activated charcoal. B. syrup of ipecac. C. glucose. D. oxygen.
D
308
All the following are typical signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide  A. cherry red skin. B. cyanosis. C. nausea. D. altered mental status.
A
309
The primary step in treating a patient with absorbed liquid poisoning  is: A. administration of oxygen. B. irrigation of the skin. C. neutralization of the acid or alkali. D. administration of an antidote.
B
310
Mind affecting drugs that act on the central nervous  system to distort  sensory perceptions are known as:
Hallucinogens
311
When a patient has ingested a poison, provide ventilations through a(n) 
Pocket face mask
312
The principal prehospital treatment of inhaled |  poisoning consists of 
Maintain airway and support ventilation
313
Alcohol affects the
CNS
314
The patient suffering from alcohol withdrawal may experience seizures, or  .
Delirium tremens
315
Cleaning fluid, glue, and model cement are commonly abused 
Volatile chemicals
316
Adult poisoning from
Accident or deliberate medication overdose
317
Blown pupil affects
Pulse
318
Pressure in head trauma results in
Projectile vomiting
319
Works through absorption allowing substances to attach to its surface
Activated charcoal
320
Contradictariona of activated charcoal
Can’t swallow, mental status altered, ingested acids or alkalis, active vomiting, or swallowed gas
321
What used to be the preferred treatment for poisoning
Syrup of ipecac, induces vomit with one dose
322
Dilution amount for adults and children
``` Adults= drink 1-2 glasses of water or milk Child= drink. 1/2 to 1 glass ```
323
Water may __ while milk may
Slow absorption, soothe stomach
324
Acetaminophen poisoning effects
4-12 hours= loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting | 1-2 days= right upper quadrant pain and jaundice
325
Give antidote with acetaminophen positing in the first
12 hours
326
Vasodilation __ BP
decreases
327
A band around the head, headache is a symptom of
CO poisoning
328
Always check the ¥¥ with ischemic stroke
Time since last normal
329
Remove powder of an absorbed position by brushing it off and irrigating it with clean water for at least
20 minutes
330
Any disease or condition that arises spontaneously or where cause is unknown
Idiopathic
331
Stimulants such as cocaine or meth that affect the CNS and excite user
Uppers
332
Depressants such as benzodiazepines that depress CNS
Downers
333
Roofies or rohypnol are
Dormers
334
GHB is a
Downer
335
Georgia Home Boy or goop, produces sense of euphoria and hallucinations, causes reparatory depression
Downers, GHB
336
Ecstasy is a
Hallucinogen
337
CO if inhaled will cause
Prevents normal carrying of oxygen on red blood cells, hypoxia
338
Pain that originates in the walls of the hollow  | organs is called:
visceral
339
Thin membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering each organ
Peritoneum
340
Attached to the abdominal wall
Parietal peritoneum
341
Covers each organ
Visceral peritoneum
342
Fewer nerve endings allow for only diffuse sensations of pain, dull or achy
Visceral pain
343
Described as sharp, localized to a specific area, many nerve endings allow for pain that’s easier to locate
Parietal pain
344
Pain that is felt in a place other than where it  | originates is called:
Referred
345
``` Which of the following signs indicates internal bleeding? A. Greenish emesis B. Sweet smell to emesis C. Mucous in emesis and feces  D. Coffee-ground-like emesis  ```
D
346
``` Which type of medication can cause bleeding in the stomach? A. Diabetes medication B. Aspirin C. Epinephrine D. Albuterol ```
B
347
What term is used to indicate voluntary or involuntary protecting  of the abdomen to prevent further pain upon palpation? A. Guarding B. Reacting C. Checking D. Auscultation
A
348
``` The best position in which to place a conscious patient with  acute abdominal pain is: A. the recovery position. B. prone. C. a position of comfort. D. guarded. ```
C
349
``` retroperitoneal space contains which of the following  organs? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Spleen D. Gallbladder ```
A
350
patient with pain in the right lower quadrant |  (R L Q) is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Appendicitis
351
Tearing pain that is felt in the back is a symptom of what serious medical problem?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
352
Severe flank pain suffering from
Renal colic
353
Irritation of peritoneum, usually by foreign material, sensitive and especially to acidic substances
Peritonitis
354
Hole in muscle layer of abdominal wall, allowing tissue or organs to protrude up against skin
Hernia
355
Fertilized embryo implants outside the uterus
Ectopic pregnancy
356
Older people have a __ ability to perceive pain
Decreased
357
What quadrant is a position of comfort for airway protection
LLR
358
Stay at least __ feet from psycho patient
3
359
Tenth leading cause of death US
suicide
360
``` The medical condition most likely to cause a rapid onset of erratic behavior,  dizziness, and profuse perspiration is: A. low blood sugar. B. lack of oxygen. C. head trauma. D. stroke. ```
A
361
A medical condition that can closely mimic a psychiatric condition is: A. low blood sugar. B. depression. C. psychosis. D. catatonia.
A
362
In talking with a behavioral patient, an E M T should take all of the following  actions  EXCEPT: A. identifying himself. B. avoiding direct eye contact. C. being as honest as possible. D. standing at least three feet from the patient.
B
363
highest suicide rates have been found in people  | ages:
15-25
364
Patients who have been improperly restrained  may die of a type of breathing  impairment known as 
Positional asphyxia
365
Extremely agitated or psychotic behavior
Excited delirium
366
```  disease caused by a genetic defect in a patient’s hemoglobin is called: A. sickle cell disease. B. coagulopathy. C. anemia. D. hemophilia. ```
A
367
Renal patients whose blood is filtered through a specialized  machine are undergoing:
Hemodialysis
368
The vibration that can be felt by the E M T when a patient’s A-V fistula is gently palpated is called:
Thrill
369
``` End stage renal patients who miss their dialysis treatments are  at high risk for: A. acute C O P D.  B. cardiac arrest. C. acute bronchoconstriction. D. cardiac tamponade. ```
B
370
liquid part of the blood that transports nutrients.
Plasma
371
E S R D patients who miss a dialysis treatment may have symptoms very similar to 
CHF
372
Most commonly transported organ
Kidney
373
Sickle cell patients are at higher risk of having  | the destroyed by the disease.
Spleen
374
Common age of sickle cell anemia
30s and 40s
375
Common potassium levels for
3-3.5
376
UTI most common in
Elderly female
377
UTI caused by __ can result in
Bacteria, pylonephritis
378
Kidney stone pain is __ and made of __
Retropareitemal Calcium
379
Renal failure Results from shock or toxic ingestion
Acute
380
Renal failure inherited or secondary to damage from uncontrolled diabetes or hypertension
Chronic
381
What percent recieve hemodialysis
90
382
Special fluid infused into abdominal cavity to absorb waste
Peritoneal dialysis
383
Gravity exchange process repeated several times a day
CAPD
384
Machine used to fill and empty abdominal cavity while person sleeps
CCPD