Exam 5 Flashcards
(215 cards)
1
Q
Whatistheminimumnumberofsafetypinsforeachtriangularbandageona
basiclifesupportambulance?
A
Three
2
Q
Fortonsillarandflexiblesuctioncatheters,
whattwosizerangesshouldbe
equippedonabasiclifesupportambulance?
A
6F−10F;12F−16F
3
Q
Whichreferenceisrecommendedforeverybasiclifesupportambulance?
A
Hazardous Material Guide
4
Q
Whatcolorshouldbiohazardbagsbe?
A
Red
5
Q
Alights-and sirenresponse
toanemergencycallisappropriate
when: A. lossoflifeorlimbispossible. B. nosafetyconcernsarevisible. C. trafficisheavy. D. morethanonevehicleresponds.
A
A
6
Q
Moststatesallowanemergencyvehicleoperatortodoallofthe
followingEXCEPT: A. passaschoolbuswhoselightsareflashing. B. passothervehiclesinano-passingzone. C. proceedpastredlights. D. exceedthespeedlimits.
A
A
7
Q
Toalertavehicleimmediatelyinfrontoftheambulancetoclear
theway,thebestthingadrivercanusuallydoisto:
A. turnonthesiren.
B. usethepublicaddresssystem.
C. usethehorn.
D. usetheflashers.
A
C
8
Q
Whichlightsshouldnotbeusedasemergencylights?
A. Strobes
B. Rotatinglights
C. Four-wayflashers
A
C
9
Q
Thesafestbackingupoftheambulanceisperformedwhen:
A. backupalarmsareoperational.
B. backuplightsarelit.
C. thedriver’smirrorsareproperlyadjusted.
D. thedriverhasaspotter.
A
D
10
Q
Acommondangerwhenanambulancefollowsanescortvehicleis:
A. losingcontactwiththeescort.
B. creatingadditionalstressforthepatient.
C. confusionfortheemergencydispatchers.
D. followingtheescorttooclosely.
A
D
11
Q
Thefirstemergencyvehicleonthesceneatacarwreckshould
park:
A. offtheroad.
B. onthesideofthecrashawayfromtraffic.
C. inawaythatblocksthewreckage.
D. ascloseaspossibletothewreckage.
A
C
12
Q
Thefourstepsoftransferringapatienttoanambulanceinclude
selectingtheproperpatient-carryingdevice,packagingthe
patient,movingthepatienttotheambulance,
and:
A. informingdispatch.
B. contactingthehospital.
C. loadingthepatientintotheambulance.
D. performinganongoingassessment.
A
C
13
Q
Thefourstepsoftransferringapatienttoan
ambulanceinclude
A
selectingtheproperpatient-carryingdevice,packagingthe
patient,movingthepatienttotheambulance,
and loadingthepatientintotheambulance.
14
Q
Ifthepatientislikelytodevelopcardiacarrest,positionashort
spineboardorCPRboardunderneaththe
patient’smattress:
A. priortoinitiatingtransport.
B. ifthepatient’svitalsignsdeteriorate.
C. aftertransporthasbegun.
D. atthefirstsignofarrest.
A
A
15
Q
Atthereceivingfacility,failuretotransfercareofthepatientto
hospitalstaffcouldresultinchargesof:
A
Accosting
16
Q
Anambulancerunisnotoveruntil:
A. careofthepatienthasbeentransferred.
B. thePCRisfiled.
C. thevehicleisreadyforthenextresponse.
D. thevehiclehasreturnedtobase.
A
C
17
Q
Whentheambulanceisreadytoreturnto quarters,thefirststepshouldbe to: A. informthedispatcher. B. completethelogentry. C. refuelthevehicle. D. checkthelightsandsiren.
A
A
18
Q
Whencleaningambulancesurfacesthatwereincontactwith bloodorbodyfluids,use: A. ahigh-pressurehose. B. aninfraredlamp. C. soapandwater. D. anEPA-approvedgermicide.
A
D
19
Q
Thefirststepofcleaninganyequipmentthattouchedthepatientisto: A. hoseitdown. B. sprayitwithagermicide. C. immerseitinsoapandwater. D. brushitclean.
A
D
20
Q
Anoperationalreasontorequestairrescueis:
A. aGlasgowComaScalescoreoflessthan13.
B. prolongedextrication.
C. aheadinjurywithalteredmentalstatus.
D. apenetratinginjurytothebodycavity.
A
B
21
Q
Ifyouhavetosetupahelicopterlandingzone,
itsminimum
sizeshouldbe:
A
100by100feet.
22
Q
TheAmericanCollegeofSurgeonsisoneoftheorganizationsthathascreateda
listofrecommendedsuppliesfor .
A
Ambulances
23
Q
Allemergencyvehicleoperatorsmust
demonstrate___ forthesafetyofthepublicwhen
drivingtheirvehicles.
A
Due regard
24
Q
Anambulanceapproachingastoppedschool
busshouldwaituntilthebus’s flashingredlightsare
A
Turned off
25
The best placement for the speaker of an
ambulance siren is in the vehicle’s
Grill
26
Most accidents involving ambulances occur on
Dry clear roads during daylight and in intersections
27
sequence of operations required to ready the
| Patient to be moved
Packaging
28
Minimum of __ straps on stretcher
3
29
The unconscious patient who is not suspected of having a spinal injury should be
shifted into the __ position once on board the ambulance.
Recovery
30
The minimum staffing for the patient
compartment of an ambulance is
considered to be .
1 EMT
31
If a patient’s personal effects have been transported, the E M T may need to get a ___
from emergency department personnel
Written receipt
32
The ambulance engine must be running if
| coolant levels are to be properly checked.
False
33
If a patient is likely to develop cardiac arrest during transport, place a ___ under the mattress before beginning the trip.
short spine board
34
What solution used to clean up blood
1:100 bleach/water
35
What ambulance most used
Type 1
36
Two components of ambulance readiness
Vehicle (driver) and equipment (crew leader)
37
Vehicle should be easily seen from __ degrees in
| emergency response mode.
360°
38
To speed transport to distant trauma center, When extrication of high-priority patient is prolonged
and air rescue can speed transport, When patient must be rescued from remote location
Operational reasons
39
Call air rescue with GCS
10
40
A __ response means using lights and siren
Hot
41
Area of contamination or danger=
Decontamination corridor=
Where equipment and emergency rescuers are
staged=
Hot zone
Warm zone
Cold zone
42
Decontaminate people in the
Warm zone
43
▪ Residual product contamination ▪ More thorough
Secondary decontamination
44
Decontamination for patients not wearing P P E: Receive __ water rinse, starting at the head.
2- to 5-minute
45
NIMS is in charge of
Command
46
Senior person on first-arriving E M S will assume
Incident Command
47
• Foundation of system is speed, simplicity, consistency of application • Simple commands to patients • Patient evaluation based on R P M
START triage
48
Only three treatments provided during S T A R T triage
– Open an airway and insert an oropharyngeal airway.
– Apply pressure to bleeding.
– Elevate an extremity.
49
If pulse less than __ check pulse
30
50
If respirations more than __, priority 1
30
51
Not breathing and attempts to open airway do not start
| breathing
Priority 4
52
Breathing, no radial pulse
Priority 1
53
Alert=
| Altered mental status=
Priority 2
| Priority 1
54
SALT triage
• Sort • Assess • Lifesaving Interventions • Treatment/Transport
55
Severe injuries who are likely to survive with
| treatment
Immediate (color code red)
56
Serious injuries but are not tagged as Immediate
Delayed (color code yellow)
57
– Unlikely to survive given the available resources
– Receive treatment only after Immediate patients have
been moved forward
Expectant (color code gray)
58
performed at a patient collection point
| or triage area
Secondary triage
59
arranges transport of patients
| from the scene to the hospital
Transportation supervisor
60
The biggest problem in most
| H A Z M A T incidents is
identifying the offending substance
61
You want to block scene
Upstream
62
How long is blockage
One and a half to two lanes
63
Position ambulances, command vehicles, and other
| units
downstream from crash
64
Responders should always exit into the
safe zone
65
In close proximity to fires, emergency responder should
| approach vehicle at a
45-degree angle (not head-on)
66
```
15- or 20-pound class A:B:C dry chemical fire
extinguisher extinguishes almost anything burning.
```
Small fire
67
Utilize 4 × 4 wood blocks to build crib box if
Vehicle on its roof
68
Steps one and two: disentanglement
gain access by disposing of doors
| and the roof
69
Step three: Disentanglement
disentangle occupants by displacing the front
| end
70
Groups or individuals whose terrorist activities are
| directed their own government or population
Domestic Terrorism
71
Groups or individuals whose terrorist activities are foreign
based and/or directed by countries or groups outside the targeted country or whose activities cross national
boundaries.
International Terrorism
72
principal
| targets of terrorist attacks.
Emergency Medical Responders
73
Recognizing O T T O signs may help protect against
| secondary attack.
– Occupancy or location – Type of event – Timing of event – On-scene warning signs
74
Anniversary dates of previous attacks
April 19
75
Caused by lack of oxygen in atmosphere
Asphyxiation
76
Results from any violent event
Psychological harm
77
Secondary and either at the scene or some time after
| the event
Psychological harm
78
Systemic effects
Chemical harm
79
Sudden demand upon public health infrastructure
| with no apparent explanation
Public health emergency
80
▪ Potential or actual point of origin located ▪ Attempts made to prevent or minimize damage and spread
Focused emergency
81
What is an exposure?
Dose or the concentration of the agent multiplied by
| time
82
Four major routes of entry
Absorption, ingestion, injection, inhalation
83
– Material is present where it does not belong
– Material that is harmful to persons, animals, or the
environment
contamination
84
occurs when a substance is taken into the body through one of the routes
Exposure
85
Movement of a substance through a surface or, on
| a molecular level, through intact materials
Permeation
86
Agents classified as poisons
Etiologic harm
87
Scene of clandestine laboratory
Chemical harm
88
Self protection measures at nuclear or radiologic incident
Time, distance, shielding
89
Possibility of extremely dusty conditions
Asphyxiation
90
Typically seen at bombing incidents
Mechanical harm
91
Operations occurring after written or verbal warning
| received but before explosion takes place
Preblast
92
Operations occurring after at least one detonation
Postblast
93
Most effective, most common means
Respiratory Route
94
Weaponization most effective when targeted through
Inhalation route
95
Weaponization particles are __ microns in diameter
3-5
96
Airborne dissemination can be created by applying
energy
| to material
97
__ boiling point and __ vapor pressure will evaporate more readily.
Low, high
98
Nerve agent poisoning acronym
SLUDGEM
99
Classification of chemical agents: choking agents
Predominately respiratory
100
Classification of chemical agents: vesicating agents
Cause chemical changes in cells of exposed tissue
101
Inhibit enzyme critical to proper nerve transmission,
| causing out of control parasympathetic nervous system
Nerve agents
102
Riot control agents
Irritating materials and lacrimators (tear-flow
| increasers)
103
Small, free-living microorganism
Bacteria
104
Organisms that requires a host cell inside which to
| live and reproduce
Viruses
105
Like human body cells, they have an internal cytoplasm
surrounded by a rigid cell wall; unlike human body cells,
they lack an organized nucleus and other intracellular
structures.
Bacteria
106
Anthrax, cholera, plaque, Q fever, and tularemia are all examples of
Bacteria
107
Do not replicate, chemical compounds produced by living organisms
Toxins
108
• Botulinum • Ricin • Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (S E B) • Trichothecene Mycotoxins (T 2)
Examples of
Toxins
109
Simplest microorganisms
Viruses
110
Replicate only inside host cells, not easy to manufacture in large quantities
Viruses
111
• Smallpox • Encephalitis • The Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (V H F s)
Examples of
Viruses
112
Effects of radiation
– Bone marrow
– Gastrointestinal system
– Central nervous system
113
• Use more plausible than the use of nuclear devices • Not hard to obtain or initiate items • Specialized teams generally available to deal with
incendiary devices
114
Blast injury lung injuries
Bradycardia, apnea, and hypotension from blast wave
115
Blast injury for ears
Rupture of tympanic membrane
116
Abdominal blast injury
Rupture of gas-containing section of intestine
117
Blast injury brain
Concussion or MTBI
118
provides information for the common terrorist weapons
D O T Emergency Response Guidebook
119
Broad general plans designed to achieve desired
| outcomes
Strategies
120
Specific operational actions responders take to
| accomplish assigned tasks
Tactics
121
stockpile of
pharmaceuticals and medical supplies to be used when
local resources are used up
Strategic National Stockpile
122
There are many different types of agents and weapons
that can be used by terrorists. ___ is used to
remember the different types. ___ is used to
remember the types of hazards posed by these agents.
C B R N E, T R A C E M-P
123
```
Which of the following routes of entry into the body for a
biologic agent is seldom used
in a terrorist situation?
A. Absorption
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inhalation
```
A
124
```
Tactics are specific operational actions responders take to accomplish their assigned tasks. Which of the following is
considered a tactic in regard to
dealing with terrorism?
A. Process
B. Protection
C. Preparation
D. Protocols
```
B
125
```
Which of the following is the primary harm associated with a nuclear blast?
A. Chemical harm
B. Psychological harm
C. Pressure harm
D. Thermal harm
```
D
126
```
Terrorism that involves groups or individuals whose terrorist activities are directed at their
own government is called:
A. federal terrorism.
B. domestic terrorism.
C. international terrorism.
D. territorial terrorism.
```
B
127
```
A destructive device, such as a bomb, placed to be activated
after an initial attack and
timed to injure emergency
responders and others is
called a:
A. postincident device.
B. primary device.
C. secondary device.
D. tertiary device.
```
C
128
What does TRACEM-P stand for
Thermal harm, radiologic, asphyxiation, chemical, etiologic, mechanical, psychological harm
129
Three causative agents used for biologic weapons
Toxins, bacteria, viruses
130
What does SLUDGEM stand for
```
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI upset
Emesis
Miosis
```
131
Seldom route through biological agents enter the body
Skin
132
```
The recommended method of stabilizing a vehicle on its
wheels is to use:
A. three-step chocks.
B. two-step chocks.
C. stabilization struts.
D. ropes.
```
A
133
When placing cribbing under a vehicle, remember to:
A. kneel down while keeping one hand on the vehicle.
B. squat down and remain on the balls of your feet.
C. kneel down while keeping one hand on the ground.
D. lie down and slip the cribbing in place.
C
134
The two types of vehicle glass
| include:
laminated (contains a plastic
| sheet) and tempered (breaks into rounded pieces).
135
If you “try before you pry,” you can often achieve:
Simple access
136
```
A flathead ax is usually required to:
A. remove a crushed steering
wheel.
B. break through a windshield.
C. pry open a distorted car door.
D. remove seat backs.
```
B
137
The roof support that is between the front door and the back
| door of a four door sedan is called the:
B post
138
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to disposing of a
car roof during extrication?
A. It gives access to the entire interior.
B. It avoids accidental airbag deployment.
C. It provides a large exit for occupant removal.
D. It provides fresh air for patient and rescuers.
B
139
```
The third and last step of the
three part action plan for
disentangling a
patient trapped in a vehicle is
to:
A. displace the doors.
B. dispose of the roof.
C. disentangle the patient.
D. displace the front end.
```
D
140
```
If a car’s battery must be
disconnected, then:
A. disconnect the positive cable
first.
B. disconnect the negative cable
first.
C. disconnect both cables
simultaneously.
D. simply turn off the ignition.
```
B
141
```
Which article of protective equipment provides an acceptable
level of head protection?
A. Bump cap
B. Firefighter’s helmet
C. Uniform cap
D. Bicyclist’s helmet
```
B
142
```
The best eye protection at a vehicle collision is provided by:
A. sunglasses.
B. safety glasses.
C.hinged plastic helmet shields
D.safety goggles with soft vinyl
frames and indirect venting.
```
D
143
```
The first traffic warning device that an E M T usually places at
the scene of a vehicle collision is:
A. a reflective road sign.
B. the flag person.
C. a flare.
D. the ambulance’s flashing lights.
```
D
144
A “ground gradient” at the
| scene of a wreck poses the risk of:
Electrocution
145
```
Which burning material CANNOT be extinguished with an
A:B:C fire extinguisher?
A. A car’s upholstery
B. Fuel
C. Magnesium
D. Electrical components
```
C
146
When encountering an empty vehicle with the engine on fire
and the hood tightly closed, the E M T should:
A. spray a fire extinguisher up from underneath the vehicle.
B. open the hood fully, stand
close to the A post, and spray across the
engine.
C. open the hood up to the safety latch, insert the extinguisher
nozzle in any opening, and spray.
D. leave the hood closed tight, and let the fire burn.
D
147
Getting into a vehicle by opening a door or rolling down a
| window is called
Simple access
148
prevents car doors from flying open during
| impact.
Nader pin
149
There are ___________________ phases of the patient extrication or rescue process.
10
150
Without heavy hydraulic rescue tools, a roof can be removed quickly with
___________________ and a can of spray lubricant.
Hacksaw
151
When the E M T is approaching a scene with wires down, the
E M T may feel a tingling
in the legs as a result of a
phenomenon called ___________________ ___________________ .
Ground gradient
152
Two actions an EMT can take if they encounter a ground gradient is
Turn 180°, shuffle away from danger area
153
According to the Department of Transportation, a hazardous material is a
substance that:
A. can explode.
B. can cause death.
C. poses an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported.
D. does not meet O S H A guidelines for workplace and product safety.
C
154
```
Which minimum level of training should all E M S responders have according
to the federal government?
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist
B. First Responder Operations
C. Hazardous Materials Technician
D. First Responder Awareness
```
D
155
A safe zone should NOT be
| a chemical spill.
Downwind
156
The medical treatment area that E M S is responsible for setting up to receive
decontaminated patients is done in the:
Cold zone
157
Secondary contamination occurs when a: A. noncontaminated person enters the hot zone. B. patient has been exposed to two or more chemicals. C. contaminated person contacts a noncontaminated person. D. change in conditions—for example, a wind shift—enlarges the hot zone.
C
158
The U.S. Department of Transportation requires that vehicles carrying
hazardous materials display:
Labels or place cards
159
```
A common placarding system used to mark fixed structures that contain hazardous materials is the:
A. N F P A 704 System.
B. D O T U N System.
C. C H E M T R E C System.
D. S D S System.
```
A
160
The basic responsibilities of E M T s at a hazardous materials incident are to
take care of the injured and:
A. monitor and rehabilitate
H A Z M A T team members.
B. decontaminate those leaving the hot zone.
C. provide support to
H A Z M A T team members as requested in the hot zone.
D. all of the above.
A
161
The most common M C I (or M C S) is a:
Car crash w three or more patients
162
```
The manageable span of control over people involved in an M C I is:
A. 3–74-8.
B. 4–8.
C. 5–105.
D. 12–15.
```
A
163
During an M C I, as much communication as possible between Command and Command’s direct subordinates should be:
Face to face
164
A quick assessment of patients and assigning of priorities for treatment or
transport is called:
Triage
165
During an M C I, radio communications from the scene of the incident to the
receiving hospitals should be handled by the:
Transportation supervisor
166
The 24-hour emergency chemical information and assistance center reachable at
800-424-9300 is .
CHEMTREC
167
The N F P A 704 System is seen on
| .
Fixed facilities
168
An event that by its nature challenges or hampers an
E M S system’s ability to
respond to it is a(n)
MCI
169
The organizational structure that provides a framework for managing large-scale
M C I s is the
ICS
170
Where does fertilization occur
Fallopian tubes
171
Uterus can hold ml normally and ml during pregnancy
5,500
172
Muscular ring separating uterus and vagina
Cervix
173
How many weeks gestation needed for survival
20
174
Fetal stage begins around
8
175
Heart beat forms
15-18 days after conception
176
How many weeks of pregnancy
40
177
Fluid that allows fetus to float, cushions fetus, maintains fetal body temperature
Amniotic sac
178
During pregnancy, CV system makes
50% more RBCs by 2nd tri
179
Pregnant women increased cardiac output more prone to
Pulmonary embolism
180
Placenta, infant, and fluid total
20-24 pounds
181
Irregular, non sustained, and not indicative of impending delivery-false pregnancy pains
Braxton hicks contractions
182
Fetus movement from high in abdomen down to birth canal
Lightening
183
Baby may be imminent when contractions last
30s-1 min and 2-3 mins apart
184
Meconium standing indicated
Fetal distress
185
Third labor stage lasts
10-20 mins
186
Gravita, pera
G: number of pregnancies
P: number of living children
187
Newborn=
| Neonate=
Within two hours
| 28 days of life
188
Give narcan to pregnant women at what week and after
35
189
Deep fundus massage role
Release oxytocin for vasoconstriction to stop hemorrhage
190
Apply clamps on umbilical cord
10 and 7 inches from baby
191
If shallow, slow, gasping, or absent, provide pos. Pressure ventilations of neonate at
40-60 pre minute
192
In neonate, if less than __ bpm, continue pos pressure ventilations
If less than __ begin chest compressions at __
100
| 60,120
193
Most common abnormal delivery
Breech presentation
194
When placenta blocks birth canal
Placenta previa
195
Tearing pain, placenta prematurely separates from uterine wall, usually caused by trauma
Abruptio placenta
196
Ectopic pregnancy vitals
Low BP
Rapid weak pulse
Pain on one side
197
Seizure in pregnancy vitals
Preeclampsia, weight gain, swelling
198
Pregnant patients pulse beats __ faster
Blood loss may be __% before signs and symptoms appear
10-15
| 30-35
199
Displace uterus in cpr if child more than
20 weeks
200
Obesity is a body mass index (B M I) of
30 or more
201
BMI is
(weight in pounds/ height in Inches)^2 x 703
202
Use the mnemonic __when treating a patient with Autsim
ABCS
Awareness
Basic
Calm
Safety
203
occurs after birth and
| may be cause by exposure, trauma, or a medical condition
Acquired diseases
204
present at birth that
| may or may not be genetic
Congenital
205
Biphasic continuous positive airway pressure
| (B i P A P) devices provide
Inhalation, exhaustion assistance
206
blow oxygen under constant low pressure
▪ They prevent collapse of airway passages
▪ They are often prescribed for sleep apnea
CPAP
207
ICS considers how many people manegable span
3-7
208
single incident managed by
| unified incident command manged by
fire services
| police, ems, public works
209
first steps of incident command phase
scene size up and triage
| organization/delegation
210
uncoordinated or undirected activity at the scene
freelancing
211
SALT uses a ~~ of patients based on priority when moving them away from incident
forward movement
212
management system used by federal, state, and local government to manage emergencies in US
NIMS
213
subset of NIMS designed for MCIs
ICS
214
ambulances command vehicles etc should be positioned __ from crash
downstream
215
what class extinguisher should be used for nickels metal hydride batteries
class D
