Week 1 (chp. 1-5) Flashcards
(131 cards)
1
Q
What year was the DOT charges with developing EMS standards
A
1966
2
Q
When was the NREMT founded
A
1970
3
Q
NEMSS Act was passed by congress when
A
1973
4
Q
Ambulance on scene within
A
9 minutes
5
Q
1st to the scene, activate the EMS system, control the scene, and prep for ambulance
A
EMR (police)
6
Q
Basic level medical and trauma care, transport to facilities
A
EMT
7
Q
Provides additional advances level care
A
AEMT
8
Q
All skills of EMT and AEMT with additional skills
A
Paramedic
9
Q
You don’t need oxygen for about __ after cardiac arrest
A
10 minutes
10
Q
Number one responsibility of EMT
A
Personal safety
11
Q
An EMT should be able to carry up to
A
125 pounds
12
Q
Continuous self review with the purpose of identifying aspects within the system that require improving.
A
Quality improvement
13
Q
Physician who assumes responsibility for the patient care aspects of the EMS system,
A
Medial director
14
Q
Standing orders issues by the medical director that allow EMTs to give certain medications
A
Off line medical direction
15
Q
Protocols are developed by the
A
Medical director
16
Q
Policy/protocol that authorizes EMTs and others to perform certain skills in certain situations
A
Standing orders
17
Q
Most states require refresher training for E M T s every: A. 1 to 2 years. B. 5 to 7 years. C. 2 to 4 years. D. 4 to 5 years.
A
C
18
Q
Who is accountable for the activities of E M S personnel within the E M S system? A. E M T–Intermediate B. E R nurse C. Medical Director D. shift commander
A
C
19
Q
3.Which of the following is NOT a role or responsibility for an EMT? A. Transfer of care B. Personal safety C. Lifting and moving D. Providing medical direction
A
D
20
Q
The level of E M S training in which the emphasis is on activating
the E M S system and controlling immediate life-threatening emergencies is:
A. EMR.
B. E M T.
C. A E M T.
A
A
21
Q
Lists of steps, such as assessment and interventions, to be
performed in different situations by EMS personnel are known
as:
A. protocols. B. care directives. C. enhanced QA. D. EMD s.
A
A
22
Q
What is one outcome of medical research for E M S? A. Evidence-based techniques B. New E M S shift designs C. Better E M S documentation D. Improved ambulance design
A
A
23
Q
The modern Emergency Medical Services (E M S) system has been developed to
provide what is known as….
A
Pre hospital or out of hospital care
24
Q
The type of specialty hospital in which surgery teams are available on a round-the-
clock basis is the .
A
Trauma center
25
The specially trained E M S personnel who obtain information about emergency
situations from callers and who also provide instructions for emergency care to
callers are .
EMD
26
Ways EMT can participate in public health
Public vaccination programs, disease surveillance, injury prevention for youth and geriatric
27
Many states use the National Registry examinations as their
| certification exams.
True
28
All body fluids should be considered
Infectious
29
Equipment that protects EMS worker from infection and exposure to danger
PPE
30
What kind of gloves are required
Vinyl or non latex
31
When should you change gloves
Between patients
32
Eye and face protection must cover
Front and sides
33
What masks should you wear if patient has tuberculous
N95 or HEPA
34
Wear gowns when…
Pregnant , multiple injuries, arterial bleed
35
Causes inflammation of the liver and can live on surfaces in dried blood
Hepatitis
36
Deadly, killed hundreds of health care workers before vaccine
Hep. B
37
Acquired through blood, food, or water contaminated by stool
Hep a
38
Infects lungs, airborne, highly contagious
TB
39
Set of conditions that results when immune system has been attacked by HIV, no cure
AIDS
40
Attacks immune system so that your body can’t fight off infection
HIV
41
Hemorrhagic fever, affected US in 2014
Ebola
42
Spreads through respiratory droplets
SARS
43
Found in poultry, not easily transmissible between humans
Avian flu
44
Pandemic flu, killed many in 1918
Influenza
45
OSHA standard on blood borne pathogens requires
Infection control to be the joint responsibility of employer and employee
46
Under the Ryan White CARE Act, the officials in every
emergency response organization who gather facts about
possible emergency responder exposure to infectious diseases
are the:
A. reporting officers.
B. logistics officers.
C. designated officers.
D. on-scene officers.
C
47
Allows EMS to find out if they have been exposed to life threatening diseases….
Ryan white care act
48
```
The test that can detect exposure to tuberculosis is the:
A. P S A test.
B. T S T test.
C. S A T test.
D. Elisa test.
```
B
49
Equipment and procedures that protect you from the blood and
body fluids of the patient are referred to as:
A. infective body fluid measures.
B. isolated infection controls.
C. preventive control substance standards.
D. Standard Precautions.
D
50
The goal of critical incident stress debriefing is to:
A. assign blame for the incident.
B. assist patients to recover.
C. assist emergency care workers in dealing with the stress of an incident.
D. allocate funds for ambulance services.
C
51
```
The first stage of stress is also known as:
A. alarm reaction.
B. resistance.
C. exhaustion.
D. surprise.
```
A
52
The reaction to death and dying in which a patient seeks to
postpone death, even for a short time, is:
A. anger.
B. bargaining.
C. acceptance.
D. denial.
D
53
The agency that has issued strict guidelines detailing
precautions against exposure to bloodborne pathogens is the: A. U.S. Department of Transportation. B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration. D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health.
C
54
```
The three words that sum up the actions required to respond to
danger are:
A. run, regroup, reattack.
B. plan, observe, react.
C. observe, react, control.
D. evade, escape, eliminate.
```
B
55
```
A delayed stress reaction is more commonly known as a(n):
A. overload.
B. toxicity.
C. burnout.
D. posttraumatic stress disorder.
```
D
56
What happens in the alarm phase of stress
Fight or flight, sympathetic nervous system increase and more cortisol produced
57
2nd stage of stress
Stage of resistance
58
Stage 3 of stress
Exhaustion
59
What stress reaction is linked to catastrophe
Acute
60
Delayed stress reactions
PTSD
61
Burnout stress reaction, results of years of low sustained stressors
Cumulative
62
Stages of death and dying in order
```
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
```
63
If hazardous materials suspected…
Notify haz mat team and don’t treat until decontaminated
64
The 3 R’s in react
Respond (using distance and cover), radio (for help), and reevaluate ( don’t enter crime scene unless secured my police)
65
The ___________________ ___________________ is the time between contact and first
appearance of symptoms.
Incubation period
66
Hepatitis B and H I V/AIDS are examples of diseases that are transmitted by contact
with ___________________ .
Blood
67
Signs and symptoms of a(n) ___________________
| include the onset of difficulty breathing or chest pain just after a catastrophe.
Acute stress reaction
68
The E M T’s first priority at scenes involving violence is to be certain that the
___________________ ___________________ ___________________ .
Scene is safe
69
H I V/AIDS presents a greater risk to health-care workers than
hepatitis and T B.
False
70
The proper use of your body to facilitate lifting and moving a patient is called
Body mechanics
71
When would you use an emergency move
Scene is hazardous
Care of life threatening conditions requires repositioning
You must reach other patients
72
In an emergency move… move the patients
In direction of long axis of the body
73
Examples of emergency moves
Clothes drag, incline drag (head first), blanket drag
74
When would you use urgent moves
- Requires treatment can be performed only if patient is moved
- Patient moved to support breathing or to treat shock or altered mental status
- Factors at the scene cause patient decline
75
Urgent moves usually involves
Moving patient to backboard and when spinal injury precautions are performed
76
Head of the stretcher can be elevated for
Cardiac patients with no spine injury
77
Power stretches are good for
Lifting patient from ground level, and reduce back injury
78
__ are ideal when patients have difficulty breathing
Stair chair
79
What board is great when removing patients from vesicles with possible neck or spine injury
Long board
80
Place a __ on patient with suspected spine or neck injury
cervical collar
81
Perform a __ when no suspected spine injury
Extremity lift, draw sheet method
82
Positioning for someone who is unresponsive with no spine injury
Recovery position
83
Patient with shock in what position
Supine
84
When possible, it is safer and more efficient to move a patient over distances
on what device.
Wheeled
85
Major cause of EMT injuries is __ while lifting
Twisting
86
When using the power grip, hands should be kept at least
| inches apart when possible.
10
87
Usually patients are transported over rough terrain via a(n) __
stretcher.
Basket
88
To slide a patient from an ambulance stretcher to a hospital bed, the E M T
would use the -
method.
Draw sheet
89
When pushing or pulling,
| , whenever possible.
Push
90
Avoid reaching how many inches in front of body
20
91
A patient is found seated in the front seat of a Car after a collision. What board
Long backboard
92
An elderly woman has fallen between the toilet and the
| bathtub.
Scoop stretcher
93
A hunter has twisted her knee in the woods.
Basket stretcher
94
A factory worker must be moved through narrow sections between machines.
Flexible stretcher
95
Scope of practice vs standard of care
```
Scope= what you can do
Standard = how you do it
```
96
Informed consent=
Expressed consent
97
Implied consent falls under
Assumed
98
If unconscious patient…what consent
Assumed consent
99
Involuntary transportation occurs if
Patient is a threat, court order, or decision by police or mental pro
100
When patient refuses care.,,
Must be fully informed, legally able to consent, awake and oriented, asked to sign a release form
101
Lawsuits against EMTs are usually classified as
Torts
102
EMT failed to provide standard of care expected or failed to act
Breach of duty
103
Patient suffered from harm because of EMT action or inaction
Proximate causation
104
When handing off patient to hospital or others, you must hand them over to someone with
Equal or greater training
105
Obligation to provide care to patient
Duty to act
106
Allow person to drop off an infant or child at any fire stations police, or ems service
Safe haven, 72 hour infant
107
Must report what kind of cases…
Abuse, human trafficking, violence, sexual assault, drunk people with injuries, or mentally incompetent with injuries
108
Authority granted to a teacher or other adult by a child’s parents
to make treatment decisions in their absence is called:
A. res ipsa loquitur.
B. implied consent.
C. in loco parentis.
D. informed consent.
C
109
```
Mentally competent adults of legal age who accept care from an
E M S crew are said to give:
A. guardian consent.
B. implied consent.
C. partial consent.
D. expressed consent.
```
D
110
Minors who are married or of a certain age and who are legally
able to give consent for medical care are known as: A. emancipated. B. released. C. practiced. D. responsible.
A
111
A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his
physician, stating that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts is called a(n): A. res ipsa loquitur.
B. D N R order.
C. consent form.
D. P O L S T.
B
112
A person whom the signer of a document names to make health care decisions in case the signer is unable to make such decisions is called a(n): A. proxy. B. assistant. C. designated agent. D. safe haven
A
113
Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for
citizens and some health care personnel who administer emergency care are known as: A. First Responder laws. B. E M S Acts. C. Helping Hands legislation. D. Good Samaritan laws.
D
114
```
An E M T’s obligation in certain situations to provide care to a patient is
referred to as a(n):
A. standard of care.
B. scope of practice.
C. advance directive.
D. duty to act.
```
D
115
A D N R order is one example of a(n):
A. Good Samaritan law.
B. confidentiality agreement.
C. consent form. D. advance directive.
D
116
Once police have made the scene safe, the priority of the E M T at a crime scene is to: A. preserve evidence. B. contact dispatch. C. provide patient care. D. assist the investigation.
B
117
```
The extent and limits of the job that the E M T does are referred
to as:
A. duty to act.
B. professional practice.
C. limits of liability.
D. scope of practice.
```
D
118
```
Simply stated, liability means:
A. moral responsibility.
B. ethical responsibility.
C. legal responsibility.
D. referred responsibility.
```
B
119
When dealing with children and mentally incompetent adults, the
___________________ and ___________________ have the legal authority to give
consent.
Parents and guardians
120
If all efforts fail and the patient does not accept your care or transportation, you must
have the patient sign a(n) ___________________ __________________
Release form
121
The only time that confidential information about a patient may be disclosed is when
the patient has signed a(n) ___________________ ___________________ .
Written release
122
List the two things that must be monitored frequently when transporting a restrained
patient.
Mental status and vital signs
123
List the three conditions that must be proven for a legal finding of negligence to be
made against an E M T.
EMT had duty to the patient, didn’t provide standard care, or caused harm to the patients
124
Patients who are mentally competent have the right to refuse medical
care.
True
125
Patient lying on back
Supine
126
Patient lying on stomach
Prone
127
CPAP stands for
Continuous positive airway pressure
128
The elbow is __
to the shoulder because the elbow is
farther away from the torso than the shoulder.
Distal
129
What suffix describes inflammation
Itis
130
The shoulder is __ to elbow
Proximal
131
The term __ refers to a position farther away from the midline.
Lateral
