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Flashcards in Exam 3 Deck (88)
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1

In dogs, prolapsed uterus typically occurs when in relation to parturition

during (or shortly after) parturition

2

What hormones are shifting (and in what direction) that leads to the development of pseudopregnancy?

declining P4 in the face of rising prolactin

3

If an owner requests medical treatment for their dog showing signs of pseudopregnancy, what general type of drug would be indicated?

Dopamine agonist

*remember, dopamine and prolactin always go in opposite directions*

4

A bitch presents to you with a malodorous, red/brown vaginal discharge. The owners inform you she just had puppies a few days ago but doesn't seem very interested in them recently.
Upon physical exam, she is febrile and depressed.

Based on the timeline and clinical signs, what's your top differential? What would be a good next step?

Metritis

Take radiograph to rule out a retained fetus

5

In dogs, which form of mastitis is most serious and why?

Acute mastitis; can be life-threatening to dam

6

Most common isolate from dogs with mastitis

Staph aureus

7

What signalment/type of dog would you expect to be affected with eclampsia/hypocalcemia

small breed dog with a large litter

*heavy lactation demands*

8

How does the presentation of hypocalcemia differ between dogs and cows

in dogs, it leads to tetany/tremors

in cows, flaccid paralysis (prevents ACh release)

9

In dogs, uterine involution is usually complete by _______ (timeframe). If this gets delayed, the dog is at risk of developing?

12weeks (3months)

SIPS

10

A 2yr old bitch presents to you for hemorrhagic vaginal discharge. After talking to the owners, you learn that she recently had her first litter of puppies about 3.5 weeks ago.

After ruling out other potential causes, you diagnose the bitch with SIPS. Is this likely to recur with subsequent pregnancies?

NO

11

Most common location for placement of intraosseous catheters in canine neonates?

proximal femur (trochanteric fossa)

12

What 4 things are important to check for/evaluate in neonates during physical exam

cleft palate
anus (atresia ani)
limbs/digits
auscultation

13

What 2 procedures are typically done on neonates using only local anesthesia. And at what age are these usually done?

Dewclaw removal and tail docking

typically done together at around 3-6d of age

14

Though cattle are usually culled for aglactia, what is the treatment of choice in our other spp. (i.e. dog and horse)

Domperidone (dopamine antagonist)

15

What recommendations would you make to an owner who's puppy is diagnosed is puppy vaginitis in regards to treatment and future care?

tx is probably not needed (most resolve on their own)

Allow this dog to have at least her first heat cycle before spaying

16

In dogs, vaginal prolapse is stimulated by ______ and most commonly occurs ________?

ESTROGEN

Late proestrus (less commonly occurs near parturition)

17

2 reasons we recommend spay for dogs with vaginal prolapse

1) it's likely heritable so we don't want to breed these dogs
2) it will increase in severity with each subsequent estrus

18

In dogs, most vaginal neopalsias are _______ (malignant/benign) and the most common one is ______

Benign

Leiomyoma

19

In cows, vaginal prolapse typically occurs?

What is our usual tx? Are there any exceptions?

Prepartum

Cull (affected female AND her offspring)

Exception= embryo donors (prolapse due to high estrogen, not heritable)

20

When treating vaginal prolapse in cows, the Buhner technique serves to mimic the natural function of which muscle?

Constrictor vestibuli

21

The minchev technique for repair of vaginal prolapse in cows anchors the dorsal vagina to which structure

sacrosciatic ligament

22

In cows, which vaginal prolapse repair technique if common for embryo donor cows & allows normal breeding and parturition

Winkler's cervicopexy

23

In most spp. vaginal prolapse occurs _____ except for which spp.? When does it occur in them?

In most--> prepartum

Not in dogs
dogs= proestrus or estrus (when estrogen is high)

24

In ALL spp., uterine prolapse is considered to be ________ (it's cause)

an incident of parturition

25

What should be avoided in a cow with a prolapsed uterus?

movement--risk of rupturing middle uterine artery

26

T/F: once a cow prolapses her uterus once, she should be culled because it is likely to happen again

FALSE---no more likely to occur than in animals that have never prolapsed

27

Most infections of the male repro tract occur by which route?

Ascending infection (urinary pathogens)

*seminal vesiculitis, epididymitis, prostatitis

28

In males, orchitis most commonly occurs secondary to ____

epididymitis (which occurs secondary to ascending infection)

29

Which viral agent has been assoc. with Balanoposthitis in bulls?

BHV-1

30

How do Hypospadia and Epispadia differ?

Hypo= urogenital groove didn't close on the VENTRAL side of the penis

Epi= dorsal side

31

Most common testicular tumor of dogs and bulls?

Interstitial cell tumor

*non-invasive, encapsulated

32

Sertoli cell tumors primarily occur in _______ testes

cryptorchid/retained

33

Which testicular neoplasia has been associated with a feminizing paraneoplastic syndrome

Sertoli cell tumor

34

Most common testicular tumor of aged stallions?

seminoma

35

2 indications for exteriorizing the uterus with C-section

1) fetus emphysematous (septic uterine contents)

2) J-lube present in uterus

36

When closing the uterus after a C-section, what is the most important goal? What type of pattern is typically used?

NO LEAKING (tight seal)

non-penetrating, inverting pattern

37

Which suture pattern for unterine closure following c-section is assoc with the best maintenance of fertility post-op?

Utrecht pattern

38

Most common indication for C-section in
1) cow
2) bitch
3) camelids

1) fetal oversize

2) single or 2 puppy litter

3) uterine torsion

39

3 ways horse c-sections are different

1) always require general anesthesia

2) done in hospital (not field or barn)

3) MUST exteriorize uterus (prevent contamination)

40

In which species is a hemostatic/compressive stitch used post-c section and why

Horses (mares)

to compress subendometrial vessels

41

Name the 4 fetotomy cuts

decapitation
limb amputation
detruncation
pelvic division (reduction)

42

Fetotomy:
What is the goal when you are:
1) amputating forelimb
2) amputating the hindlimb

1) removal of scapula

2) coxofemoral luxation

43

A pelvic symphsiotomy can only be used in which type of cow and what 2 circumstances must be present/true?

only in heifer calfs <2yr

Must also only be MILD fetopelvic disproportion and the cow must be ambulatory

44

Milk proteins and eggs are commonly used for what purpose when freezing semen

EXTRACELLULAR Cryoprotectants

*prevent structural changes in cell membrane when cooled*

45

T/F: the addition of antibiotics to semen is done to eliminate the presence of Brucella and Tritrichomonas

FALSE

*can only control CEM in horses and Campylobacter in cattle

46

The biggest/most common problem with using frozen semen AI

TIMING

47

Where in the female repro tract must frozen semen be placed during AI?

MUST go intrauterine

48

For what type of semen is the insemination dose the lowest? Highest?

Lowest= fresh

highest= frozen/thawed

49

Insemination dose for bovine if using frozen/thawed semen?

10-15 million (x10^6)

50

4 components of BSE?

Physical exam
Scrotal circumference
Motility
Morphology

51

A BSE is best done when in relation to the breeding season

30-60d prior

52

What two things does a BSE not evaluate for

Libido
Mating Ability

53

Which accessory sex gland, though present, isn't palpable in cattle?

Bulbourethral gland

54

For cattle:
1) minimum progressive motility
2) minimum normal morphology

1) 30%

2) 70%

55

Bulls >24months should have a scrotal circumference of at least?

34cm

56

Primary sperm defects occur when? What parts of sperm are normally affected

during synthesis (spermatogenesis)

head and mid-piece

57

Secondary sperm defects occur when? What part of sperm is usually affected

during storage or transport

principle piece

58

Scoring for serving capacity testing is based on what 2 things?

sexual interest (mounts)
services (ejaculations)

59

With multi-sire breeding groups, every additional bull added after the first is good for?

1/2 as many cows as the first

60

T/F: If a bull is found to have a corkscrew deviation of his penis while being collected using EE, you should recommend culling

FALSE

*EE can sometimes cause this due to over pressure; doesn't mean it will occur with natural service..do test mating

61

Which species shows the most dramatic seasonal changes in SC and libido

Ram

62

Prior to the breeding season, mature rams should have a minimum SC of?

36cm

63

To be marked satisfactory, a ram must have a minimum of ____% normal morphology

50%

*Motility standards same as cattle

64

SC of a Ram to be marked satisfactory
1) if 8-14months
2) if >14 months

1) at least 29 (>36 is exceptional)

2) at least 32 (>40 is exceptional)

65

Which reproductive condition is more common in
1) rams
2) bucks

1) rams get Scrotal Varicocele

2) bucks get Sperm Granulomas (polled goats)

66

A gloved hand technique is most commonly use for collection of which spp?

Boar

67

What is the minimum motility and morphology for boars?

60/60 min for both

68

Around what age to stallions become sexually mature

4-5yr

*they go through puberty 12-24months

69

What is the definition of a satisfactory potential breeder (Stallion)

produces at least 1billion PM, morphologically normal, sperm in 2nd ejaculate at any time of year

70

How does Imipramine work in the stallion? Use?

Use= chemical ejaculation

Lowers the ejaculatory threshold

71

Standard insemination dose for horse?

500million progressively motile sperm

**This means if shipping, must ship 1 billion PMS

72

Most common breeding problem in stallions?

Low libido

73

How can you determine azoospermia vs. incomplete ejaculation

measure seminal plasma alkaline phosphatase

**Will be HIGH if ejaculation was complete (>2500)

74

For hemospermia, what is your top differential
1) stallion
2) dog

1) urethral tear

2) prostate problem

75

Most common neoplasia of stallion's external genital tract?

SCC

76

Which accessory sex glands does each have
1) dog
2) cat

1) prostate only

2) prostate and bulbourethral

77

Canines are most commonly collected using which technique

Manual stimulation (pressure at base of penis behind bulbus glandis)

78

Motility and morphology standards for canine sperm

80% motility

80% morphology

<60% in either= decreased fertility

79

What disease must you ALWAYS rule out if a dog presents with orchitis

Brucellosis

80

Most common testicular neoplasia in RETAINED testicles

Sertoli cell tumor

81

Which testicular neoplasia is almost always located in scrotal testicles

interstitial cell tumor

82

Which hormone acts on the prostate in the dog? What enzyme is important for its creation?

DHT

5-alpha reductase

83

Which ejaculatory fraction is best to use for evaluation of the canine prostate

3rd fraction

(1st is okay if dog too painful to ejaculate)

84

Symmetrical, non-painful enlargement of the prostate in an older, intact male dog is most likely

BPH

85

Fenasteride MOA?

5=alpha reductase inhibitor

**reduces prostatic size without affecting testosterone

86

A dog with a sertoli cell tumor may be at risk for developing which prostatic disease?

Squamous metaplasia

**due to increased estrogens

87

What characteristics must antibiotics have if you are going to use them to treat prostatitis?

Basic & lipophilic

*prostate= acidic

88

Concerning prostatic neoplasia
1) is incident rate higher in intact or castrated males
2) most common type

1) neutered

2) adenocarcinoma