Exam 3- OEQ Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

what is the proposed mechanism of action of apripiprazole (Abilify) for treating schizophrenia?

A

D2 parital agonist/5HT2a antagonist

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2
Q

What common side effect do Pregabalin (lyrica) and sertaline (zoloft) have in common when being used to treat generalized anxiety?

A

weight gain

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3
Q

What is a proposed mechanism of action of Lorazepam (Ativan) for treating anxiety?

A

GABA-A receptor Agonist

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4
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of action of Risperidone (Risperdal) for treating schizophrenia?

A

D2 antagonist/5HT2a antagonist

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5
Q

Which antipsychotic has the greatest risk of causing metabolic side effects such as weight gain, hyperglycemia and hyperlipedima?

A

quetiapine (seroquel)

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6
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of action of haloperidol (halidol) for treating schizophrenia?

A

D2 antagonist

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7
Q

Which benzodiazepine would be most appropriate to give 15-20 min prior to a dental procedure to manage anxiety?

A

Triazolam (Halcion)

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8
Q

Why does Alprazolam (Xanax) have a higher risk of abuse compared with Clonazepam (Klonopin)?

A

Alprazolam (Xanax) has a faster onset effect

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9
Q

Why does Clonazepam (Klonopin) have a lower risk of abuse compared with Alprazolam (Xanax)?

A

Clonazepam (Klonopin) has a longer duration of effect

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10
Q

What is the reason a patient with a psychiatric illness is taking deutetrabenazine (austedo) medication?

A

For tardive dyskinesia (TD)

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11
Q

Which statement correctly identifies a second generation antipsychotic (Haloperidol/Haldol) (Chlorpromazine/Thorazine)?

A

A&C

Low risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia

-Low risk of Tardine dyskinesia (TD)

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12
Q

What medication is the treatment of choice for anxiety disorders including generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

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13
Q

Which antipsychotics have the greatest potential to prolong the QT interval and cause cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Clozapine (Clozaril) and Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

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14
Q

Proper disposal of short acting opioids includes all of the following options except:

A

Flush unused tablets down the toilet

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding PDMP?

A

Reduces prescription drug misuse, abuse an diversion while ensuring patients have access to safe, effective treatment

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16
Q

Patients may experience increased CNS depression from benzodiazepines when suffering from uncontrolled:

A

Hypothyroidism

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17
Q

Patients may experience increased effects from epinephrine when suffering from:

A

Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

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18
Q

Acetominophen has which of the following properties?

A

Analgesic and Antipyretic

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19
Q

Which of the following is indicated to treat hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spironolactone

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20
Q

Naloxone can be given:

A

Every 2-3 minutes

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21
Q

You give a patient hydrocodone/acetominophen. What should you educated her about before sending her home?

A

All of the above:

-How medication will effect you
-Do not drink alcohol or take other meds that cause drowsiness
-potential medical abuse

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22
Q

Which of the following is a pure opioid antagonist that blocks opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdoses?

A

Naloxone

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23
Q

NSAIDs are contraindicated or should be used with caution in patients with which of the following conditions?

A

Chronic kidney disease

24
Q

Which of the following medication is not recommended for children under 12 years of age?

A

Tramadol or Codeine

25
Sierra is a 42yo undergoing endo for tooth #15, which has irreversible pulpitis and is extremely percussion sensitive. She reports she has HTN but is otherwise healthy. Her BP is currently well controlled. She reports the only medication she takes is amlodipine. She reports NKDA. Which of the following is the best pain management regimen?
Ibuprofen 600mg 4x daily with aceptominophen 650mg 4x daily for 48-72hrs post procedure then prn
26
Acetominophen is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
alcoholic liver disease
27
ST, a 24yo white male was given hydrocodone/acetominophen after having his 3rd molars removed. Before ST leaves the office you should educate him/his caregiver on which common side effect?
Constipation
28
Pt in pain and has a history of NSAID induced GI bleed, CKD- stage III, active hepatitis C, and MI in 2014. NKDA, which of the following is the best pain management regimen?
Oxycodone 5mg q6hrs prn with a three day supply
29
Which of the following medications is used for chronic neuropathic pain and has been used for pre-op and peri-op analgesia in dental school and other surgical procedures?
Pregabalin (Lyrica)
30
When prescribing an oral corticosteroid for its anti-inflammatory effects to treat an inflammatory dental condition, what instructions should be provided for administration?
A&B -GI upset is a common adverse reaction -Take in the morning with food
31
Therapeutic qualities of corticosteroids include:
Anti-inflammatory
32
What is a realistic pain goal?
30-50% pain reduction
33
Opioid script contains all except:
Patients age (does include- patients full name and address, doctors full name and address)
34
What is the proposed mechanism Latuda (schizo drug)?
D2 antagonist/5HT2a antagonist
35
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for Naproxen?
NON-selectively inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
36
What are the side effects of Clozapine (Clozaril)?
1. Sialorrhea (slobbering) 2. Dry mouth 3. Hypersalivation
37
Wha is the max dosafe for acetominophen?
4000 mg
38
Which treatment initiated 24hrs before a dental procedure decreases post-op edema and improves healing time?
Ibuprofen
39
Acetominophen effect?
Constipation
40
Patient is hypertensive but otherwise healthy, what can she take after a tooth extraction?
acetominophen and oxycodone (no ibuprofen)
41
Pt is taking acetominophen. What would be the most important thing you should tell her?
Do not take more than one medicine at a time
42
What drug should you avoid taking with an opioid?
Dapezium
43
Pregabalin (lyrica) and gabapentin share what?
no oral side effects
44
What is the proposed mechanism of action of Diazepam (Valium) for treating anxiety?
GABA-A receptor agonist
45
What should you NOT take with acetominophen?
1. Leflunomide (RA medication) 2. Methotrexate (RA medicaiton) 3. Carbamazepine (Anti-convulsant)
46
What is the max recommended daily dose for acetaminophen?
LESS than 3g daily for adulys 2-3g daily for elderly
47
What patient risk factors are important to assess when treating patients with NSAIDs?
1. hx of GI problems and GI risk factors 2. cardiovascular conditions and CV risk factors 3. renal dysfunction (all of the above)
48
GABA-A is coupled to what channels and is the mechanistic target for the therapeutic benefits of benzodiazepines?
Chloride
49
Which of the following medications has been associated with the development of seizures?
1. Clozapine 2. Carbamazepine 3. Buproprion (all of the above)
50
ions may cross cellular membranes by one of the three mechanisms which includes, ion pumps, ligand-gated channels and:
voltage-gated channels
51
The action potenial depolarization phase begins with an influx of which one of the following?
Sodium
52
which of the following adjunctive pain medications is an anticonvulsant often used to treat neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin
53
What would you prescribe to a patient who experienced their FIRST schizophrenic episode?
Apiprazole (Abilify)
54
Which drug is well suited for treating REFRACTORY schizophrenia?
Clozapine
55
What is the primary advantage for using a second generation antipsychotic over first generation?
No risk of EPS
56
EEG activity 1-2MAC was seen with which anesthetic?
Etomidate (sevoflurane)
57