Final Exam Questions

Question 1

Bacteria in early infections:

Answer 1

Gram positive aerobes

Question 2

Oral side effect with beztropine?

Answer 2

Xerostomia

Question 3

What patient would NOT be a good candidate for a short course of NSAIDs?

Answer 3

End-stage kidney disease

Question 4

Pathogen for infective endocarditis:

Answer 4

Strep

Question 5

How would you prescribe amoxicillin?

Answer 5

Drug: Amox
Dose: 500mg
#: 4 capsules
Directions: By mouth x1

Amox 500mg, 4 caps PO x1

Question 6

Which med should not be held the morning of a dental procedure:

Answer 6

You would not hold long/ultra long-acting insulins:

1. Glargine
2. Deglucdec

Question 7

Which is NOT an NSAID?

Answer 7

Acetaminophen (It is an APAP)

Question 8

What antidepressant drug class may cause bruxism?

Answer 8

SSRI

-fluoxetine (prozac)
-peroxetine (paxil/pexeva)
-sertraline (zoloft)
-citalopram (celexa)
-escitalopram (lexapro)

Question 9

Diabetes can increase:

Answer 9

risk of infection and periodontitis

Question 10

What agent might be given for a LATER odontogenic infection?

Answer 10

Augmentin

Question 11

What meds should be avoided if opioid therapy is warranted for dental pain management?

Answer 11

Diazempam

Question 12

Which med causes hypoglycemia?

Answer 12

Aspart (Rapid acting insulin)

Question 13

Oral antidiabetic medications most likely to cause hypoglycemia?

Answer 13

Sulfonylureas
-glimepiride
-GLYBURIDE
-glipizide

Meglinitides
-Nateglinide
-Repaglinide

Question 14

Which antibiotic should not be used in pregnancy?

Answer 14

Doxycycline

Question 15

What best explains why amoxicillin is dosed 3x per day?

Answer 15

8 hour half life and time dependent

Question 16

Antidepressant thats MOA is both norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor:

Answer 16

Wellbutrin

Question 17

Medication that is most likely to contribute to the development of dose-related thrombocytopenia:

Answer 17

Valproic acid

Question 18

Antipsychotic that can be associated with both dry mouth and sialorrhea:

Answer 18

Clozapine

Question 19

Medication used to manage HIV:

Answer 19

Genvoya

Question 20

Patient is taking Fosamax, what is the most accurate?

Answer 20

Low risk of ARONJ and treatment outweighs the risk

Question 21

If a patient has a sulfa allergy, you would not give them:

Answer 21

Zonisamide

Question 22

MOA for lorazepam:

Answer 22

GABA-A receptor agonist

Question 23

Need for adjunctive systemic antibiotics in a patient with a period abscess that presents:

Answer 23

systemic symptoms

Question 24

Medication that has a drug interaction with warfarin:

Answer 24

Fluconazole

(also ASA/NSAIDS)

Question 25

Monoclonal antibody:

Answer 25

Denosumab (anything ending in -mab)

Question 26

MOA of buspirone:

Answer 26

5HT receptor partial agonist

Question 27

Antibiotic that kills strep (gram +), oral gram negative and bacteroides?

Answer 27

Augmentin

Question 28

Oral side effect of antidepressants:

Answer 28

Xerostomia

Question 29

What would be the best for treating a patient that becomes unconscious due to hypoglycemia?

Answer 29

Glucagon IV 1mg

Question 30

Prescription for a 4yr old weighing 27lbs:

Answer 30

Amox 125mg

Question 31

Warrants antibiotic prophylaxis in a high risk patient:

Answer 31

manipulation of gingival tissue

Question 32

Side effects with paroxetine following treatment:

Answer 32

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, insomnia

Question 33

What labs do you want to measure prior to a patient starting gabapentin?

Answer 33

renal function test

Question 34

Cathinones are derived from which plant?

Answer 34

Khat

Question 35

Ideal characteristics of anesthetic agents?

Answer 35

Amnestic effect

Question 36

Which designer drugs are detected on a drug screen?

Answer 36

None

Question 37

Which of the following anesthesia medications is a negative ionotrope?

Answer 37

propofol

Question 38

Best drug for patient with xerostomia and mild candidiasis:

Answer 38

Nystatin

Question 39

Patient is on once weekly azithromycin- what is this indicative of?

Answer 39

HIV

Question 40

Patients who are taking acetaminophen should be educated on the following:

Answer 40

do not take more than one acetaminophen containing drug

Question 41

What medication has a really high potential for drug interactions?

Answer 41

Fluconazole

Question 42

Medication of choice for anxiety disorders including generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder:

Answer 42

Escitalopram (SSRI)

Question 43

Patient taking oxycodone should be educated on:

Answer 43

1. do not drive 2. take with food

Question 44

Which med is used in treatment of HYPERthyroidism?

Answer 44

Methimazole (Tapazole) Propylthiauracil (PTU)

Question 45

Bevicizumab is associated with the following side effects:

Answer 45

Increased bleeding

Question 46

Cavulanic acid will increase amoxicillin activity if the bacteria is resistant to:

Answer 46

Beta lactamases

Question 47

How long should citalopram be continued after first episode of depression?

Answer 47

9-12 months

Question 48

Oral antidiabetic agent most likely to cause hypoglycemia:

Answer 48

Natglinide (Meglitinide) (Also repaglinide would do this too) (also sulfonylureas- glimepiride, glyburide, glipizide)

Question 49

Medication used to treat HYPERthyroidism:

Answer 49

Propylthialuracil (PPU)

Question 50

Patient has addisons disease, what treatment for stress prophylaxis to minimize risk of adrenal crisis?

Answer 50

None indicated

Question 51

EPS:

Answer 51

Tardive dyskinesia (common side effect of antipsychotics)

Question 52

Best option to prescribe to begin 24 hours before extractions as an initial pain management:

Answer 52

Ibuprofen

Question 53

MOA of risperidone:

Answer 53

D2/FHT antagonist

Question 54

What antiepileptic drug commonly causes gingival hyperplasia?

Answer 54

Phenytoin

Question 55

Pure opiod antagonist:

Answer 55

Naloxone

Question 56

What anti-infective drug has alot of interactions with other drugs:

Answer 56

Erythromycin

Question 57

What drug can potentially decrease calcium and vitamin D?

Answer 57

Valproic acid (anticonvulsant)

Question 58

Denosumab inhibits:

Answer 58

RANKL

Question 59

MOA of fluconazole:

Answer 59

Conversion to ergosterol

Question 60

Side effect of zoloft that is NOT transient and does NOT subside with continued use:

Answer 60

Sexual dysfunction

Question 61

MOA of nystatin:

Answer 61

Binds to ergosterol

Question 62

Cytochrome p450

Answer 62

3A4

Question 63

Azithromycin is dose once a day because it is:

Answer 63

concentration dependent

Question 64

Antiretroviral lipid changes and fat redistribution:

Answer 64

Protease inhibitors

Question 65

Meds for best coverage of anaerobic bacteria:

Answer 65

metronidazole

Question 66

Chemotherapy with tooth pain:

Answer 66

Oxaloplatin

Question 67

Abcess formation is due to:

Answer 67

Bacteroides

Question 68

Drug that caues immunosuppression:

Answer 68

Methotrexate

Question 69

IV anesthetic causing adrenal suppression due to 11-beta:

Answer 69

Etomidate

Question 70

Antidepressant first line therapy:

Answer 70

SSRIs & SNRIs

Question 71

Maximum dose of acetominophen per day:

Answer 71

4g

Question 72

Type II diabetes drug of choice:

Answer 72

metformin

Question 73

Antibiotic associated with high C-diff prevalence:

Answer 73

Clindamycin

Question 74

antidepressant medication that you can OD with a 7 day supply:

Answer 74

Amitriptyline (TCA)

Question 75

Anything ending in "tide":

Answer 75

GLP1

Question 76

MOA of apiprazole:

Answer 76

(antipsychotic for schizophrenia) D2 partial agonist

Question 77

Potent alpha 2 receptor agonist:

Answer 77

Precedex

Question 78

When should you avoid Keflex?

Answer 78

When you have blistering skin reaction

Question 79

Ingested K2:

Answer 79

Synthetic cannabinoids

Question 80

Education for patients taking prednisone:

Answer 80

take in morning (insomnia = side effect)

Question 81

Zometa moa:

Answer 81

Osteoclast ruffled border

Question 82

Maintains airway:

Answer 82

Ketamine

Question 83

Adverse effect of dapagliflozin (SGLT2) (Flozins):

Answer 83

UTI & yeast infections

Question 84

Adverse effects have been reported after synthetic cannibinoid use:

Answer 84

all of the above

Question 85

avastin MOA:

Answer 85

blocks VEGF & angiogenesis

Question 86

Antipsychotic that can cause weight gain, hyperglycemia, and hyperlipidemia:

Answer 86

Quetiapine (Seroquil)

Question 87

Management of aggitation:

Answer 87

Benzodiazepine

Question 88

MOA of metformin:

Answer 88

Decreases hepatic glucose production

Question 89

Oversupplementation of thyroid treatment:

Answer 89

Sweating & nervousness, tachycaria & difficulty sleeping

Question 90

Fludrocortisone is a:

Answer 90

mineralocorticoid

Question 91

Strep viridans has a high resistance to:

Answer 91

Azithromycin

Question 92

What drug causes an increased risk of nephrolithiasis?

Answer 92

Topirmate

Question 93

Antiepileptic medication that is considered a controlled substance:

Answer 93

Phenobarbitol (also pregabalin, clonazapam, clobazam)

Question 94

Adverse effects of corticosteroids:

Answer 94

Mood swings