Exam 4

Question 1

what do helper T cells activate?

Answer 1

B and other T cells

Question 2

what do plasma cells secrete

Answer 2

antibodies

Question 3

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the

Answer 3

variable region

Question 4

antigen presenting cells

Answer 4

all of the answer choices are correct

Question 5

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?

Answer 5

neutralization

Question 6

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is

Answer 6

IgA

Question 7

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

Answer 7

IgG

Question 8

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

Answer 8

IgE

Question 9

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

Answer 9

its a dimer

Question 10

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

Answer 10

IgM and IgG

Question 11

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

Answer 11

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

Question 12

An example of natural passive immunity would be

Answer 12

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

Question 13

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

Answer 13

IgM

Question 14

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

Answer 14

IgG

Question 15

Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells?

Answer 15

TC

Question 16

In __________ immunity, an individual makes their own antibodies in response to antigen exposure, whereas in __________ immunity, an individual receives antibodies made by another individual(s).

Answer 16

active; passive

Question 17

Antibodies against chicken-pox virus will protect against subsequent chicken-pox infections but not against measles. This is because antibodies are

Answer 17

specific

Question 18

Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except

Answer 18

phagocytic white blood cells.

Question 19

Nonspecific chemical defenses include

Answer 19

all of these choices are correct

Question 20

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the

Answer 20

repiratory tract

Question 21

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are

Answer 21

eosinophils

Question 22

The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by

Answer 22

macrophages

Question 23

All of the following pertain to platelets, except

Answer 23

They contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Question 24

Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?

Answer 24

spleen

Question 25

Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?

Answer 25

lymph nodes

Question 26

Which is incorrect about complement?

Answer 26

Complement proteins only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen.

Question 27

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

Answer 27

T-cell and B-cell responses

Question 28

All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except

Answer 28

basophils

Question 29

Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action?

Answer 29

IFN

Question 30

All of the following are the results of complement activation, except

Answer 30

lysis

Question 31

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

Answer 31

Antibiotics

Question 32

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

Answer 32

All answer choices are correct

Question 33

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body’s normal microbiota often cause

Answer 33

Superinfections

Question 34

Penicillins and cephalosporins

Answer 34

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

Question 35

Sulfonamides

Answer 35

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

Question 36

Aminoglycosides

Answer 36

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

Question 37

Gram-negative bacilli are often treated with

Answer 37

aminoglycosides.

Question 38

Which of these drugs is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?

Answer 38

isoniazid.

Question 39

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?

Answer 39

Trimethoprim

Question 40

The drug used for several protozoan infections is

Answer 40

metronidazole

Question 41

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.

Answer 41

Fungal

Question 42

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

Answer 42

HIV

Question 43

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

Answer 43

All of the answer choices are correct

Question 44

The multidrug-resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause

Answer 44

removal of drugs from the cell

Question 45

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed

Answer 45

Narrow spectrum drugs

Question 46

One of the greatest challenges in development of antivirals is finding drugs that are

Answer 46

selectively toxic for viruses

Question 47

Which is the best guide for selecting an effective antibiotic?

Answer 47

Results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing

Question 48

Which of the following inhibits folic acid synthesis?

Answer 48

Trimethoprim

Question 49

Which of the following types of control agents would be most likely to achieve sterility?

Answer 49

Sporicide

Question 50

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is called

Answer 50

Sterilization

Question 51

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

Answer 51

Bacterial endoscopes

Question 52

The process of physically cleansing inanimate surfaces to reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is called

Answer 52

Sanitization

Question 53

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is

Answer 53

Antiseptic

Question 54

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is called

Answer 54

Degermination

Question 55

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are

Answer 55

Mycobacterium and staphylococcus

Question 56

What type of molecule can be denatured by heat or changes in pH?

Answer 56

Protein

Question 57

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except

Answer 57

Hydrogen peroxide

Question 58

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by

Answer 58

Pasteurization

Question 59

All of the following are true of food irradiation except

Answer 59

it makes the food less nutritious.

Question 60

You are a scientist isolating a particular microbe from a water sample. As a first step, you need to inoculate a broth culture with your microbe using a sterile loop. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to sterilize your loop before inoculation? Consider effectiveness, time, and safety.

Answer 60

Sterilize the loop by using a bunsen burner at your bench.